Integrated Reading

Exercise 1
Look at the line graph below. Identify whether the following is TRUE or FALSE

1. The graph shows monthly ice-cream
sales.

2. The vertical line represents the months.
3. In April as many as 4000 units of ice-

cream were sold.
4. The sales reached its peak in May.
5. From February to March sales decreased.
6. From August to September sales declined

drastically.
7. From October to December sales

increased dramatically.
8. In July sales remained at 4000 units.

Exercise 2 Chart Reading

Number of cars soldNumber of cars sold in a week

18 Blue
16 White
14 Red

Green
12

Black
10
8
6
4
2
0

Color of cars

1. The title of this graph is: a. the number cars sold in a week.
b. the color of the cars
c. the number of cars sold

2. The horizontal axis shows: a. the number cars sold in a week
b. the color of the cars
c. the number of cars sold

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3. The vertical axis shows: a. the number cars sold in a week
b. the color of the cars

4. Which color of car sold the most? a. Blue b. White c. Red
d. Green e. Black

5. How many blue cars were sold? a. 4 cars b. 5 cars c. 6 cars

6. Which two colors of cars sold the same amount? c. black and white
a. blue and white b. black and blue
d. white and green e. red and green

7. There were six cars of this color sold: a. green b. white c. blue

8. How many red cars were sold? a. 12 cars b. 15 cars c. 18 cars

9. What is the total number of black and white cars sold? a. 5 cars
b. 10 cars

10. How many total cars (all colors) were sold in this week? a 18 cars

b. 35 cars c. 25 cars

Exercise 3
Look at the table below. Answer the questions that follow.

1. What is the table about?
2. What age group spends the most time socializing with 4 or more people?
3. Do the 70s like doing group exercise/sport?
4. Which group spends the least time doing individual exercise?
5. How many hours do teenagers go to the cinema per year?
6. What age groups spend the same amount of time watching TV/videos?
7. Which age group spends the most time doing group exercise/sport?

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Exercise 4
Look at the graph below, and then complete the sentences.

1. The ............................................... compares three products : A, B and C.
2. The ............. shows time over ten years while the ............. shows sales in

number of units.
3. As you can see, product A is represented by the ........................................
4. The performance of Product B is shown by the ..........................................
5. And a …………………………………. has been used to show the results of

Product C.
6. Clearly, ............................. is the most successful product .........................
7. Sales of Product B .......................... in recent years while sales of Product

C ......................
8. On the contrary, product A has shown a ..................................................

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146

Exercises for Tutorial Classes
(UNIT 10)

Exercise 1

Read the table on “World Temperatures” and then choose the best answer based
on the information from the table.

WORLD TEMPERATURES

January 5

Hi Lo Weather

C/F C/F c
sh
Amsterdam 6 / 41 3 / 37 sh
Athens pc
Bangkok 13 / 55 8 / 46 sh
Beijing r
Brussels 32 / 90 27 / 80 r
Budapest sh
Frankfurt 12 / 53 1 / 34 t
Jakarta sh
Kuala Lumpur 4 / 39 1 / 34 pc
Madrid s
Manila 3 / 37 0 / 32 c
Seoul pc
Taipei 3 / 37 1 / 34
Tokyo
29 / 84 24 / 75

31 / 88 24 / 75

9 / 48 1 / 34

33 / 91 21 / 70

9 / 48 -2 / 29

21 / 70 14 / 57

9 / 48 -2 / 29

Weather sh : shower pc : partly cloudy
s : sunny c : cloudy r : rain
t : thunder

1. Which two cities were cloudy on January 5?

a. Amsterdam and Taipei b. Beijing and Manila

c. Athens and Tokyo d. Bangkok and Seoul

2. Which city had the highest temperature?

a. Athens b. Bangkok c. Jakarta d. Manila

3. Which city had the closest spread between high and low temperature?

a. Brussels b. Frankfurt c. Seoul d. Tokyo

4. Kuala Lumpur had ……

a. sun b. thunderstorms c. rain d. showers

5. Which city had the lowest temperature?

a. Frankfurt b. Brussels c. Budapest d. Tokyo

6. Which two cities rain on January 5? b. Seoul and Manila
a. Taipei and Tokyo d. Frankfurt and Budapest
c. Kuala Lumpur and Jakarta

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7. Which two cities were partly cloudy on January 5?

a. Taipei and Tokyo b. Seoul and Manila

c. Beijing and Jakarta d. Tokyo and Beijing

8. What kinds of weather in Brussels, and Madrid?

a. Rain b. Cloudy c. Shower d. Sunny

9. What did Seoul have on January 5?

a. Rain b. Cloudy c. Shower d. Sunny

10. How many cities had shower? d. 5
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4

Exercise 2

Answer the following questions briefly.
1. What is the line graph about?
________________________________________________________________
2. What is the busiest time of day at the store?
________________________________________________________________
3. At what time does business start to slow down?
________________________________________________________________

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4. How many people are in the store when it opens?
________________________________________________________________

5. About how many people are in the store at 2:30 pm?
________________________________________________________________

6. What was the greatest number of people in the store?
________________________________________________________________

7. What was the least number of people in the store?
________________________________________________________________

Exercise 3

Read the table and fill in the blank spaces with 10 words/phrases provided. Write
down the corresponding letters only.

Results of airline survey in 2002 of economy class business travelers

In-flight Feature Females Males
Ranked First Age 25-45 Age 45+ Age 25-45 Age 45+
Seat/Leg room
Meals/Drinks 30 35 39 46
Attendant Service 26 31 20 24
Movies/In-flight Entertainment 34 30 27 26
10 4 14 4
TOTALS INTERVIEWED
100 100 100 100

A. 26 B. 30 C. 2002 D. drinks and E. entertainment F. former
G. older meals K. service L. younger
H. respectively I. rising to
J. seat/leg
room

The table indicates in-flight preferences of 400 regular male and female
economy class travelers in two age groups, based on an airline survey in
___(1)____.

Specifically 39 of the 100 men aged 25-45 rated seat/leg room as the
most important feature, ___(2)____ 46 of the older men. ___(3)____ was next
with 27 of the 25-45 male group and ___(4)____ of the 45+ group rating that first.
After that, at 20 and 24 ___(5)____ comes meals/drinks. Last is entertainment,
chosen by only 14 of the __(6)_____ and 4 of the 45+ males.

Turning to the female groups, it is clear that ___(7)____ is also of low
importance with only 10 of the younger and 4 of the older age group placing it
first. ___(8)____ are rated number one by 26 younger women and 31 of the over
45s. Service and ___(9)____ are the most important in-flight features for women,
with 34 younger and 30 older women choosing the ___(10)____; while 30 and 35
chose the latter.

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Exercise 4

a. sharply b. stood c. 6.4 percent d. shows e. increase
f. remained g. rose h. reported i. October 2008
j. inflation rate

The graph above _ _1__ about __2__in Indonesia from 2008 to 2010. In
February of 2008 , the inflation rate __3__ at 7.5 percent. Over the next 6
months it __4__ dramatically. It reached the highest __5___ of inflation rate at
12.14 percent in __6__. But at the end of this month, it dropped __7__ at 2.40
percent. It __8__ at this level between August of 2009 and January of 2010. It
was__9__ at __10__in August of 2010.

Exercise 5
Use the pie chart/circle graph to find the best answer to each question.

150

1. Approximately how many hours a day are spent sleeping?

A. 6 hours B. 9 hours

C. 8 hours D. 10 hours

2. According to this graph, for every 24 hours, about how many hours are

spent socializing and watching TV?

A. 4 hours B. 2 hours C. 5 hours D. 6 hours

3. If a student ate ¾ (three-fourths) of their meals away from home, what %

of the total day is spent eating other than at home?

A. 6% B. 4% C. 7% D. 12%

4. Approximately how many hours a day are spent in school and doing

homework?

A. 7 hours B. 8.5 hours C. 9 hours D. 8 hours

5. Which equation shows how to figure the amount of time a student spends
watching TV during a week? A equals the total amount of time watching
TV for a week.
A. A = 13% X 24 X 7
B. A = 24 X 13 X 7
C. A = 1.3 X 7 X 24
D. A = 24 DIVIDED BY 13% X 7

6. Approximately how much time is spent in a week on socializing?

A. 20 hours B. 21 hours C. 22 hours D. 23 hours

Exercise 6

Read the following graph on Water Temperature and answer the questions
that follow.

Water Temperature Over 14 Days
30

25

20

0

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14

151

Cross (X) T (TRUE) or F (FALSE) on your answer sheet.
1. The line graph above shows temperatures of water over 14 days.
2. The vertical axis of the graph indicates water temperatures (ºC).
3. The temperature of water slightly decreases on the third day.
4. The highest temperature reached by water is 27ºC.
5. The lowest temperature of water occurs on the seventh day.
6. Water has the same temperature on the fifth and eighth days.
7. The water temperature fluctuates from the first to fifth day.
8. The temperature of 25ºC is reached by water on the fifth of the fourteen

days.
9. Water temperature starts to dramatically increase on the seventh day.
10. At the end of 14 days, water reaches 25ºC.

ooo0ooo

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UNIT 11
TRANSFERRING INFORMATION &

TRANSITIONAL MARKERS

Objectives:
1. To transfer text into diagrams, charts, or tables
2. To recognize each transitional marker and its function
3. To choose the right transitional markers to complete a text

A. Advantages of Transferring Information
a. Help you remember main points easily
b. Help you have a better understanding of text organization (how
sentences/ideas
are connected to produce a paragraph)

B. What You Need to Know When Transferring Information
 Topic sentences (main idea and controlling idea)
 Supporting ideas/sentences
 Sentence relationships
 Transitional markers

C. Definition of Transitional Markers
Transitional markers are words or phrases that indicate the flow or
direction of the writer‟s idea. The transitional markers help readers
understand the organization of a text as well. In turn, understanding of the
text organization will help readers transfer the text into tables or charts
etc., or make it into an outline.

Function Common words and phrases

Addition First of all, for one thing, second, the third reason, also,
next, another, and, in addition, moreover, furthermore,
finally, last of all.

Time First, then, next, after, as, before, when, while, meanwhile,
now, during, finally

Space/ Next to, across, on the opposite side, to the left, to the right,
position in front, in back, above, behind, nearby

Contrast But, however, yet, in contrast, otherwise, still, on the
contrary, on

Illustration For example, for instance, specifically, as an illustration,
such as

Conclusion/ Therefore, consequently, thus, then, as a result, in summary
cause-effect

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Exercise 1
Read the paragraph and transfer it into the diagram below

Pets are often an important part of people‟s lives. Different types of
animals can be pets, ranging from reptiles to horses. One of the most common
pets is a dog. In fact, dogs serve a variety of purposes for humankind. One way
dogs serve human is they are great just for companionship. Many an only child
has bonded with his/her “Fido”, thus having a wiling and loyal friend to play with
on a daily basis. Additionally, dogs have served humans as work animals,
corralling sheep, conquering rats, and guarding the homestead Finally, dogs are
also used to serve the disabled, for example, by leading the blind, alerting the
hearing impaired, and alerting epileptics of impending seizures.

To complete the diagram, you need to know:
1. The topic sentence, i.e. In fact, dogs serve a variety of purposes for
humankind.
2. The transitional markers to connect the supporting ideas/sentences: one
way, additionally, and finally.

Dog‟s 1. 4.
various 2. 5.
services 3. 6.

for
human

kind

7. 8. 9.

Exercise 2
Read the following passage and study how the transitional markers are used.
Then arrange the phrases below according to the steps of processing green
coffee shown in the passage.

Processing green coffee (wet process). First, the skin and pulp of the fresh fruit is
removed by a pulping machine, which consists of a rotating drum or disk that
presses the fruit against a sharp-edged or slotted plate, disengaging the pulp
from the seed. Pulp still clings to the coffee, however, as a thin, mucilaginous
layer. This is then eliminated by fermentation, actually a form of digestion in
which naturally occurring pectic enzymes decompose the pulp while the wetted
seeds are held in tanks for one to three days. Washing clears all remaining
traces of pulp from the coffee seeds, which are then dried either by exposure to
sunlight on concrete terraces or by passing through hot-air driers. The dry skin
around the seed, called the parchment, is then mechanically removed,
sometimes with polishing.

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a. Mechanical removal of dry skin
b. Decomposition of remaining pulp by 1-3 day fermentation in tanks
c. Skin/pulp removal by machine
d. Drying by sunlight or hot-air driers
e. Washing traces of pulp from coffee seeds

Processing Green Coffee (Wet Process)

1.
2.

3.
4.

5.

Exercise 3
Read the paragraph and transfer it into the table below.

In recent decades, cities have grown so large that now about 50% of the
Earth‟s population lives in urban areas. There are several reasons for this
occurrence. First, the increasing industrialization of the nineteenth century
resulted in the creation of many factory jobs, which tended to be located in cities.
These jobs, with their promise of a better material life, attracted many people
from rural areas. Second, there were many factory laborers. The promise of a
better education persuaded many families to leave farming communities and
move to the cities. Finally, as the cities grew, people established places of
leisure, entertainment, and culture, such as sports stadiums, theatres, and
museums. For many people, these facilities made city life appear more
interesting than life on the farm, and therefore drew them away from rural
communities.

EFFECT (Topic sentence) CAUSES (Supporting sentences)
1. 2.

3.

4.

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Exercise 4
Read the following passage and complete the diagram below.

Orchids can be classified based on different criteria. The criteria for
classification of orchids are floral features and how they live and survive.

On the basis of definite floral features, orchids are divided into
Line different orchid tribes. Most interesting types of orchids under these

5 criteria are the Lady‟s Slipper orchid tribe, the Rein orchid tribe, the
Bird‟s Nest orchid tribe and the Tree orchid tribe. According to the way
they live and survive, there are three types of orchids: Epiphyte orchids,
Terrestrial orchids and Lithophyte orchids
Epiphyte orchid plants have evolved to live upon trees are

10 epiphytes. They are not parasites but merely take advantage of the tree
as a support. Epiphyte orchids obtain their nutrients from the moisture in
the air and from any debris collected on the branches or beneath
mosses where their roots penetrate. Example of this type of orchids is
Sophronitis Coccinea orchids. Scarlet flowers of the epiphytic

15 Sophronitis Coccinea orchid plants sparkle like bright gems on the trees
on high ridges of the Brazilian coastal forest.
Terrestrial orchid plants grow in the ground and there is hardly any
area on Earth where terrestrial orchids have not adapted to grow. They
are found in places as diverse as hot dry Australian deserts, to the

20 gentler climates of temperate woodlands, to the very edge of Arctic
Circle. Examples of this type of orchids are the fragrant Zygopetalum
crinitum orchids, found growing under the trees away from the Brazilian
sunshine; Cypripedium calceolus, a lady‟s slipper orchid, a terrestrial
orchid found in Europe and North America; and Stenoglottis fimbriata, a

25 terrestrial orchid from South Africa.
Lithophyte orchid plants take a middle path between the above

mentioned two classes. Lithophyte orchids make their home on rocky
cliff faces and sometimes on near vertical slopes. Lithophyte orchid
plants obtain their nourishment in a similar way to epiphyte orchids. But
30 they sometime have to withstand longer period of extreme dryness.
Extra water and nutrients are obtained from roots that penetrate into the
crevices in the rocks. Examples of this type of orchids are the species
cytopodium andersoniae grows mainly on smooth, flat rock surfaces, the
pleiones and some species of paphiopedilum

3.
1.

4.

Orchids 5.
6.
2.

7. 8. 9.

156

Exercise 5
The following passage is taken from the previous unit. Complete the diagram that
follows based on the information from the passage.

The planet earth seems to us a very stable and unmoving place –
continents of solid rock surrounded by the oceans. In one sense, of
course, it is stable, or our kind of life would be impossible. But when we
Line experience or hear about violent natural events like earthquakes and
5 volcanoes, we also get some idea of the great forces at work under its
surface. In fact the earth is a very complex object, made up of many
layers. What we are familiar with is only the upper surface of the „skin‟, or
crust. This crust is altogether rather more than 100 km deep. The outer
crust, of a depth of approximately 8 km, is made mostly of very hard rock,
10 a kind of granite. This makes up the continents or major land masses.
Below it is a much thicker layer, the inner crust, also made of a hard but
different kind of rock, basalt. Beneath this lies the upper mantle, a semi-
fluid layer about 600 km deep, where temperatures reach 1,500⁰C. The
lower mantle is more rigid, because of the great pressure at those depths.
15 It extends a further 2,900 km towards the center of the earth and has a
temperature twice that of the layer immediately above it. Within the mantle
is the core. This again is divided into two layers, the outer and the inner.
The former consists of molten nickel and iron and has a temperature of
3,900⁰C. The latter of the same constituents, is however, relatively solid,
20 again because of the great pressure of those depths. The temperature of
the inner core is about 900⁰C higher than that of the outer core and its
diameter is approximately 4,300 km.

1.

4. 2.
5. 3.
6.

Layer Composition Temperature Depth
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

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Exercise 6
Read the text and do the exercises that follow.

Some scientists warn that the gradual warming of the earth‟s
atmosphere, known as the Greenhouse Effect, will cause dramatic
changes in the world as we know it. First of all, because of the increase
Line in temperature of up to 10 degrees F by the end of the next century,
5 which some believe has already begun, there will be changes in existing
patterns of agriculture. Such fertile areas as the U.S. Great Plains may
become deserts, while the now arid lands in Saudi Arabia may become
grain-producing farmland. Secondly, since rainfall patterns will change,
water supplies in some areas will diminish. Experts predict, for instance,
10 that the rice fields in Southeast Asia will someday require irrigation to
sustain crops. Changes in water levels will also be responsible for
altered living creatures. Coastal areas, such as Florida and the
Netherlands, will experience such a dramatic rise in water levels that
they will fall below sea level and become uninhabitable. In other areas,
15 like the Great Lakes, water levels will fall; consequently, they will no
longer be able to support industry with energy supplies and a ready
means of transportation.

Complete the table below based on the reading above with ONE or TWO
WORDS for each answer

Cause Effect Signal Examples of
Increased words Areas
................ (1) Changes in agricultural because of
…………. (2) ……..…… (5)
Changes in ……... (10) ……....…… (6)
………... (7) For example :
Fertile land  ……… (3) …..…. (12) ……..…… (11)
Changes in water Arid land  …….….. (4)
level ……….… (15)
Increased …….... Reduction in and …… (16)
(13) …………..… (8) ………… (20)
Decreased For example:
……….... (17) Rice fields will need
……..(9)

Altered living creature

Coastal areas under sea
level and …… (14)

Unable to support …..… (19)
……………… (18)

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Exercises for Tutorial Classes
(Unit 11)

Exercise 1
Read the text and do the exercises that follow.

Are you nervous? Maybe you should sit in a blue room. Are you
always cold? Maybe you should sit in a room painted in a “warm color”
such as soft orange. Are you often sad? Maybe you should sit in a
Line yellow room. Some researchers believe that colors affect almost
5 everyone in the same way. They tested this idea in different settings.

One study was in a workplace. The researchers painted heavy
boxes white and they painted light boxes black. They wanted to see
how colors affected the workers’ feelings. Which boxes do you think

were more difficult to lift? The heavy white one? No, the black boxes
10 were more difficult. The white boxes were heavier but they looked light.

The researchers think that this is because light colors seem light.
Another study was at a hospital with brown and green-grey walls.

Painters repainted the hospital walls in bright colors – bright orange on
the first floor, bright pink on the second floor, bright green on the third
15 floor. What do you think happened? The hospital says patients
changed. They visited each other and talked more. The workers also
changed and were happier about work.

Another study was in a school. Researchers at the University of

Alberta in Edmonton, Canada studied children with behavior problems
20 in their classroom. When the walls were brown and yellow, the

children‟s heart rate went up and they were over-active. When the walls
were light and dark blue, the children‟s heart rate was slower and the
children were much calmer.

If this is true, people might want to think carefully about the colors
25 around them – not just in houses, but also in offices, schools, hospitals,

gyms, prisons, museums, and restaurants!

Based on the passage above, complete the following table with the words
provided below. Write A, B, C, etc. on the space provided.

(A) black (D) brown (G) easier (J) patients (M) white
(B) blue (E) calmer (H) higher (K) school (N) workers
(C) bright (F) difficult (I) hospital (L) slower (O) workplace

Research Types of Color Results
settings
1)……….. 2) ………. heavy boxes Seem 3)…………. to lift
4)……….. light boxes Look more 5)………… to lift
6)……….. 7)……….. colored walls 8)…..…… visit each other &

(orange, pink, green) talk more
9)………. feel happier about
10)………. 11)………. and yellow walls
Light & dark 13)……….. walls work
Children‟s 12) ……….. heart
rate & over-active children
Children‟s 14)………. heart rate
& 15)…………. children

159

Identify whether the following statement is TRUE or FALSE based on the
passage above.

1. The passage above mainly describes the success of researchers in affecting
people‟s feelings.

2. The word affect in line 4 is a noun.
3. The words this idea in line 5 refers to “everyone in the same way”.
4. The word settings in line 5 is closest in meaning to “places”.

5. The transitional markers (One study, Another study) in lines 6, 12, and 18
show a chronological (process) type of text organization.

6. “how colors affected the workers’ feelings” in line 8 is a noun clause.
7. The word light in line 10 is the opposite or antonym of “heavy”.
8. “that this is because light colors seem light” in line 11 is an adjective clause.

9. The word When in line 20 implicitly indicates a cause-effect relationship in the
sentence.

10. The word carefully in line 24 is an adverb.

Exercise 2
Read the text and do the exercises that follow.

It is important to plan your trips carefully. For example, when you go
on a trip, you need to think about how much money to allot for things
like transportation, food, and hotels. In particular, hotels and
Line transportation on trips can be expensive if you don‟t book them with
5 plenty of time in advance. Another thing to plan for is how much time
you want to spend sightseeing and doing different sorts of activities.
Even though you may want to do everything, you have to remember that
there are only so few hours in the day! In sum, planning your trip
carefully will allow you to have a more relaxed trip.

Read the passage above again and transfer it to the following tree diagram by
filling in the blank with ONE WORD from the passage.

Careful planning of trips

1) ….... to spend 2) ….... to spend

transportation 3) ….... 4) ….... 5) ….... 6) different …....

Reason: 7) ….... if not booked in 8) ….... 9) limited …....
Conclusion: careful planning 10) …... trip

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Indicate whether the following sentences are TRUE or FALSE based on the
passage above.

11. The first sentence is the topic sentence of the paragraph.
12. The word „like‟ in line 2 signals a similarity (comparison).
13. The word “Another” in line 5 indicates that the writer is showing a contrasting

idea.
14. The sentence connector “Even though” in line 7 is to show a cause-effect

relationship.

15. It can be inferred from the passage that there are some things that you
cannot do in your trips.

Exercise 3
Read the text and do the exercises that follow.

Gold used in jewelry is mixed with harder metals to add strength
and durability. The metals added can also be used to change gold‟s
color, giving it a fashionable rose or white tint, or to lighten or darken the
Line natural yellow tone of pure gold. Mixtures like these, of less costly
5 metals with more valuable ones, are called alloys. Copper and silver are
the most common metals mixed with gold to make yellow gold jewelry.
White gold is usually made with an alloy of gold and nickel.

There are some types of gold based on the measure of gold‟s
purity, which is called a karat. The higher the karat rating, the higher the
10 amount of pure gold: 24 karat is pure gold,18 karat is 75% pure gold, 14
karat is 58.5% pure gold, and 9 karat is 37.5% pure gold. All other
things being equal, the higher the percentage of pure gold used in the
alloy, the more valuable and expensive the jewelry will be.

Gold jewelry pieces are usually stamped with a marking to identify
15 the karat amount. While gold that is 24K is too soft for jewelry, 18K, 14K

and 9K gold are all appropriate for jewelry, and they all make pieces
that look great and wear beautifully.

Complete this diagram with ONLY ONE WORD from the reading passage
Other Metals in Gold

Examples Functions (what for)

Silver 1. _____ 2. _____ 3. _____ 4. _____ 5. _____

Identify whether the following statement is TRUE or FALSE based on the
passage above.

1. The main idea of this passage is that gold jewelry is made using alloys.
2. The suffix –en in the word „darken‟ in line 3 indicates that this word is a verb.
3. It can be understood that pure gold is not used to make rings.

161

4. The use of other metals in gold alloys can be used to make the gold different
color.

5. The word „an alloy‟ in line 7 is most similar to a combination.
6. The lower the karat rating, the less pure the gold.
7. Pure gold does not contain other metals.
8. The text organization of Paragraph 2 is a Definition.
9. Iron is not mentioned as the metal to mix with gold.
10. The word „While‟ in line 15 is used to show time relationship.

Exercise 4
Read the text and do the exercises that follow.

1) The coffee plant, an evergreen shrub or small tree of African
origin, begins to produce fruit 3 or 4 years after being planted. The fruit
is hand gathered when it is fully ripe and a reddish purple in color. The
Line ripened fruits of the coffee shrubs are processed where they are
5 produced to separate the coffee seeds from their covering and from the
pulp. Two different techniques are in use: a wet process and a dry
process.

2) The wet process. First the fresh fruit is pulped by a pulping
machine. Some pulp still clings to the coffee, however, and this residue
10 is removed by fermentation in tanks. The few remaining traces of pulp
are then removed by washing. The coffee seeds are then dried to a
moisture content of about 12 per cent either by exposure to the sun or
by hot air driers. If dried in the sun, they must be turned by hand several
times a day for even drying.
15 3) The dry process. In the dry process the fruits are immediately
placed to dry either in the sun or in hot air driers. Considerably more
time and equipment is needed for drying than in the wet process. When
the fruits have been dried to a water content of about 12 per cent the
seeds are mechanically freed from their coverings.
20 4) The characteristic aroma and taste of coffee only appear later and
are developed by the process known as roasting. Temperatures are
raised progressively to about 220-2300C. This releases steam, carbon
dioxide, carbon monoxide and other volatiles from the beans, resulting
in a loss of weight of between 14 and 23 per cent. Internal pressure of
25 gas expands the volume of the coffee seeds from 30 to 100 per cent.
The seeds become rich brown in color; their texture becomes porous
and crumbly under pressure. However, the most important phenomenon
of roasting is the appearance of the characteristic aroma of coffee,
which arises from very complex chemical transformations within the
30 beans. The coffee, on leaving the industrial roasters, is rapidly cooled in
a vat where it is stirred and subjected to cold air propelled by a blower.
Good quality coffees are then sorted by electronic sorters to eliminate
the seeds that roasted badly.

162

Based on the passage above, complete the following outline with the words
provided below. Write A, B, C, etc. on your answer sheet.

A. 3/4 years F. evergreen K. in the sun P. rich brown
B. Africa G. fermentation L. machine Q. roasting
C. aroma H. freed M. moisture R. sorting
D. dried I. gases N. porous S. volume
E. driers J. gathered O. reddish T. washing

Coffee plant : 1) _____ shrub
 Physical characteristics : 2) _____
 Origin : 3) after _____ of planting
 When produces fruit : 4) _____ purple
 Color of ripe fruit : 5) _____ by hand
 Ways of collecting fruit

Processing
A. Separating seeds from covering (two processes used)

 wet process  fruit pulped by 6) _____
 7) _____ in tanks
 8) _____
 seeds dried to 12% 9)_____ by sun or hot air 10)_____
 turned by hand for even drying 11) _____

 dry process  12) _____ immediately in sun or with driers
 when dried to 12% seeds, mechanically 13) _____ from

coverings

B. 14) _____  To release 15) _____ etc.  loss of weight,
increased 16) _____ up to 100%, become
at 220- 17) _____, texture becomes 18) _____
230o C
 development of 19) _____ and taste

C. Finally 20) _____ good quality coffee

Give short answers based on the passage above

21. Write ONE word from Paragraph 2 that indicates a process relationship
22. Write ONE word from Paragraph 4 that indicates a cause-effect relationship
23. Write ONE word from Paragraph 4 that indicates a contrast relationship
24. „This‟ in line 22 refers to roasting at 220-2300 C. (True/False?)
25. The last paragraph is mainly about sorting processed coffee. (True/False?)

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Exercise 5
Read the text and do the exercises that follow.

Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate
most foods only in season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve
meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh
Line milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage.
5 But in 1810 a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the
cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850's an American
named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving
milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during
the 1860's, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by
10 hand.

By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering
machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of
food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.

Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for
15 Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban populations created

demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more
produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers
to ship perishables to great distances and to preserve them for longer
periods. Thus, by the 1890's, northern city dwellers could enjoy
20 southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously
available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In
addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store
perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been
invented in the 1870's, and by 1900 the nation had more than two
25 thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries.
The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the
mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920's and 1930's.

Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people
continued to eat mainly foods that were heavy in starches or
30 carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless,
many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits,
vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.

Below are the trends and inventions that changed the American diet. Put them in
the chronological order as shown in the passage above. Write ONLY the letters
A, B, C, etc. on the space provided. The first one has been done for you as the
example.

Chronological Order Trends and inventions

Example A (i). A. Process of canning
1. _______ (ii). B. Method of milk preservation
2. _______ (iii). C. Urban population growth
3. _______ (iv). D. Railroad refrigerator cars
4. _______ (v). E. Commercial ice plants
5. _______ (vi). F. Machines for mass-production of cans
6. _______ (vii). G. Mechanized refrigerators
7. _______ (viii). H. Method of producing ice commercially

164

Choose the best answer based on the passage above

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
D. Population movements in the nineteenth century

2. The phrase “in season” in line 2 refers to _____.

A. a kind of weather C. an official schedule

B. a particular time of year D. a method of flavoring food

3. The word “prevent” in line 4 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. estimate B. avoid C. correct D. confine

4. During the 1860's, canned food products were ______.

A. unavailable in rural areas C. available in limited quantities

B. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet

5. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use ______.
A. before 1860 B. after 1900 C. before 1890 D. after 1920

6. The word “them” in line 18 refers to ______.

A. growers C. distances

B. refrigerator cars D. perishables

7. The word “fixture” in line 26 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. luxury item C. commonplace object

B. substance D. mechanical device

8. The author implies that in the 1920's and 1930's home deliveries of ice ___.

A. decreased in number C. increased in cost

B. were on an irregular schedule D. occurred only in the summer

9. The word “Nevertheless” in line 30 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. therefore B. because C. occasionally D. however

10. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the

passage?

A. Drying C. Canning

B. Cold storage D. Chemical additives

Exercise 6
Read the text and do the exercises that follow.

Some air pollutants harm plants and animals directly. Other
pollutants harm the habitat, food or water that plants and animals need
to survive.
Line When acidic air pollutants combine with water droplets in clouds,
5 the water becomes acidic. When those droplets fall to the ground, the
acid rain can damage the environment. Damage due to acid rain kills
trees and harms animals, fish, and other wildlife. Acid rain can destroy
the leaves of plants. When acid rain soaks into the ground, it can make
the soil an unfit habitat for many living things. Acid rain also changes the
10 chemistry of the water in lakes and streams, harming fish and other
aquatic life.

165

Air pollutants called chlorofluorocarbons(or CFCs) have destroyed
parts of the ozone layer. The ozone layer, located in the stratosphere
layer of Earth's atmosphere, shields our planet from the Sun's ultraviolet
15 radiation. The areas of thin ozone are called ozone holes. Ultraviolet
radiation causes skin cancer and damages plants and wildlife.

Ozone molecules wind up near the Earth's surface as a part of air
pollution. Ozone molecules near the ground damages lung tissues of
animals and prevent plant respiration by blocking the openings in leaves
20 where respiration occurs. Without respiration, a plant is not able to
photosynthesize at a high rate and so it will not be able to grow.

Complete the outline for the types of air pollutants and their effects with NOT
MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.

Types of pollutants Effects

1). ________ 2). dead ________ and harm animal, fish and wildlife;
3). damage plants‟ ________;
4). unhealthy ________;
5). change water ________ in lakes and streams

6). ________ 7). damage ________ layer, causing ultraviolet
8). ________ radiation reaching atmosphere resulting in skin
cancer and destroyed plants and wildlife

9). Destroy animals‟ _____, making plants unable to
photosynthesize and thus unable to grow

Give short answers to the following questions

10. What is the text organization of the reading passage?

11. Mention two signal words indicating cause-effect relationship.

12. From the passage, find and write a word having the same meaning with the
word „damage‟ as a verb

Exercise 7
Read the text and do the exercises that follow.

1) Another type of a highly infectious disease is cholera. It has
resulted in millions of deaths time after time over centuries. It is caused
by the bacterium Vibrio cholera, first isolated by Robert Koch in 1883.
Line 2) The organism enters the body through the digestive tract when
5 contaminated food or water is ingested. The bacteria multiply in the
digestive tract and establish infection. As they die, they release a potent
toxin that leads to severe diarrhea and vomiting. This results in
extreme dehydration, muscle cramps, kidney failure, collapse, and
sometimes death. If the disease is treated promptly, death is less likely.
10 3) In many countries, a common source of the organism is raw or
poorly cooked seafood taken from contaminated waters. The disease is
especially prevalent after a natural disaster or other destruction that
results in a lack of fresh water. Sewer systems fail, and waste travels
into rivers or streams; piped water is not available, so people must take

166

15 their drinking and cooking water from rivers or streams. Because
people frequently develop communities along waterways, the
disease can be spread easily from one community to the next
community downstream, resulting in serious epidemics.

Put the following events into the logical process leading to the illness. Write A, B,
C, etc. on the space provided.

A. sanitary system fails D. people drink the water
B. fresh water is unavailable E. contaminated water flows into
C. disaster occurs
waterways

1. _____ 2. _____ 3. _____ 4. _____ 5. _____ illness

Choose the best answer based on the passage above.

11. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A. Dysentery and its Effects
B. Results of War and Natural Disasters
C. Water Purification Systems and Their Importance
D. The Causes and Effects of Cholera

12. The word „infectious‟ in line 1 is closest in meaning to_______.

A. communicable B. severe C. isolated D. common

13. According to the passage, cholera is caused by _______.

A. a bacterium B. a virus C. kidney failure D. dehydration

14. All of the following are probable causes of infection except eating _______.

A. overcooked pork C. food cooked with contaminated water

B. undercooked seafood D. raw oysters

15. According to the passage, what is a symptom of the infection?

A. Release of a toxin by the bacteria C. Overeating

B. Vomiting D. Epidemics

16. The word „As‟ in line 6 is used to show a _______ relationship.

A. cause-effect B. time C. comparison D. contrast

17. The verb „leads to‟ in line 7 is used to indicate a _______ relationship.

A. cause-effect B. time C. comparison D. contrast

18. The clause „that leads to severe diarrhea and vomiting‟ in line 7 is

a/an_______ CLAUSE.

A. ADJECTIVE B. NOUN C. ADVERB D. MAIN

19. The word „This‟ in line 7 refers to _______.

A. dead bacteria C. patent toxin

B. diarrhea and vomiting D. nothing

20. The word „If‟ in line 9 implicitly indicates a/an _______ relationship.

A. time B. cause-effect C. contrast D. parallel

21. The word „prevalent‟ in line 12 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. dangerous B. commonplace C. unusual D. organized

22. The word „lack‟ in line 13 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. contamination B. multitude C. shortage D. well

167

23. According to the passage, cholera _______.
A. is easily passed from one person to another
B. is not a real threat
C. is no more dangerous than the common cold
D. cannot be passed from one to another by casual contact

24. The word „piped‟ in line 14 is a/an _______.

A. adjective B. noun C. verb D. adverb

25. The clause „Because people frequently develop communities along
waterways‟ in lines 15–16 is a/an_______ CLAUSE.

A. ADJECTIVE B. NOUN C. ADVERB D. MAIN

Exercise 8
Read the text and do the exercises that follow.

The banana is a fruit produced in tropical climates by a giant,
herbaceous, flowering plant. It is one of the most widely consumed
foods in the world. Banana plants are often mistaken for trees because
Line they are sturdy and usually 20 to 25 feet tall. While all bananas are
5 similar in nutritional composition, the characteristics of the fruits of the
individual varieties are distinctive with respect to taste, color, size, and
texture. Even though it is not known for its superior taste, the Dwarf
Cavendish is the most popular variety for global commerce because it is
easy to ship and has a long shelf life.
10 Bananas grown for export are picked before they ripen. They
require careful handling, rapid transport to ports, and temperature
control during shipping. The goal is to prevent further ripening by
keeping the bananas from producing their natural ripening agent,
ethylene. Upon arrival to the destination country, the bananas undergo
15 an artificial ripening process. Green bananas are placed in warm,
airtight rooms filled with ethylene gas. In a few days, the fruit begins to
ripen and is distributed for final sale. Artificially ripened bananas
develop a vivid yellow color, while those harvested when fully ripe have
a greenish-yellow appearance which changes to brownish-yellow as
20 they ripen further. Bananas that ripen naturally on the plant taste better
and have a better texture than any type of green-picked fruit, but they
only have a shelf life of 7 to 10 days.

Transfer the information from both paragraphs into the following summary by
filling the blanks with the words.

All bananas contain 1) _______ nutritional content, but each kind of banana
has 2) _______ characteristics for 3) ______, size, taste, and texture. Dwarf
Cavendish is not 4) _______ in taste, but globally is the most 5) _______ because
it is easy to deliver and its shelf life is 6) _______.

Bananas for export are harvested when they are still 7) ______. During the
delivery to destination countries, bananas need careful 8) _______, fast
transportation and heat control. This is to avoid further 9) _______. On arrival
bananas are kept in 10) _______ containing ethylene gas to make the bananas
ripen in a few days for final sale.

168

UNIT 12:
MAKING INFERENCES and PREDICTING

Objectives:
1. To make inferences based on stated details in a reading text
2. To predict the organization of ideas in a reading text

1. Making inferences

a. What is an inference?

Making inferences is a higher-level thinking skill in comprehending ideas
of a passage. An inference is an idea that we conclude based on stated details
in a reading text or a passage. The process of making an inference is also called
reading between the lines. The stated details give us the meaning clues or hints
to make a conclusion. We rely on the ability to make a supposition based on
actions or feelings that are stated in a reading passage. The conclusion or the
supposition should be logically drawn, and it is not explicitly stated in the reading.
Making an inference is a process to deeper meaning and makes us more aware
of the author‘s purpose.

b. What are some common types of inference questions?

Some inference questions will have the word infer, suggest, or imply.

Look at the following examples:

1. Which of the following can be inferred about X?
2. The author of the passage implies that X ...
3. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 1 about X?

When you decide an answer to an inference question, you have to be
sure that your answer does not contradict the main idea of the passage. Also,
the correct answer must be inferable from the passage. This means that you
should be able to defend your choice by pointing to explicitly stated information in
the passage that leads to the inference you have selected.

Example
―...The nineteenth century brought with it a burst of new discoveries and
inventions that revolutionized the candle industry and made lighting
available to all. In the early-to-mid-nineteenth century, a process was

Line developed to refine tallow (fat from animals) with alkali and sulfuric acid.
5 The result was a product called stearin. Stearin is harder and burns
longer than unrefined tallow. This breakthrough meant that it was
possible to make tallow candles that would not produce the usual smoke
and rancid odor. Stearis were also derived from palm oils, so vegetable
waxes as well as animal fats could be used to make candles ...‖

Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 1 about candles before the
nineteenth century?

a. They did not smoke when they were burned.
b. They produced a pleasant odor as they burned.
c. They were not available to all.
d. They contained sulfuric acid.

169

Explanation:
In the first sentence the author says that ―new discoveries and inventions‖

made ―lighting available to all.‖ The only kind of lighting discussed in the
passage is candles. If the new discoveries were important because they made
candles available to all, we can infer that before the discoveries, candles were
not available to everyone. Therefore, choice c is an inference about candles we
can make from the passage.

Choice a and b can be eliminated because they explicitly contradict the
passage (―the usual smoke‖ and ―rancid odor‖).

Choice d can be eliminated because sulfuric acid was first used to make
stearin in the nineteenth century, not before the nineteenth century.

2. Predicting the organization of ideas in a reading text

a. How do you predict the organization of ideas in a reading passage?

As a good reader, you are expected to predict what probably came before
the reading passage (in the preceding paragraph) or what probably comes after
the reading passage (in the following paragraph). Of course, the topic of the
preceding or following paragraph is not directly stated, and you must draw a
conclusion to determine what is probably in these paragraphs. When you make
a prediction, use key words and ideas in the passage, your general
understanding of the author‘s message, reason, logic, and common sense.

When you deal with this predicting question, you actually answer a
transition question. It asks you to demonstrate that you understand that good
writing contains transitions from one paragraph to the next. A paragraph may
start out with the idea of the previous paragraph as a way of linking the ideas in
the two paragraphs. A paragraph may also end with an idea that will be further
developed in the following paragraph.

Example:
Another program instrumental in the popularization of science was Cosmos.
This series, broadcast on public television, dealt with topics and issues from
varied fields of science. The principal writer and narrator of the program was
Carl Sagan, a noted astronomer and Pulitzer Prize-winning author.

1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _____.
A. a different scientific television series
B. Carl Sagan‘s scientific achievements
C. the Pulitzer Prize won by Carl Sagan
D. public television

2. What does the paragraph following this passage most likely discuss?
A. The popularity of science.
B. The program Cosmos.
C. The astronomer Carl Sagan.
D. Topics and issues from various fields of science.

Explanation:
The paragraph starts with ‗‘Another program ...Cosmos. The transition word
―Another program‖ grammatically signals that the new paragraph is going to
present a second television program that popularized science, and the previous
paragraph probably presented the first program in the popularization of science.

170

Cosmos is a television program, so the best answer to the first question is A.
Meanwhile, the second question wants you to predict what the paragraph will be
following the one you are reading. Since the existing paragraph ends with the
name Carl Sagan as the principal writer and narrator of the program and he was
a noted astronomer and Pulitzer Prize-winning author, the following paragraph
will probably be about Carl Sagan. So, the answer to the second question is C.

b. Another example of questions on making inferences and predicting what
is discussed in the previous paragraph and the following one.

Ever since people discovered the importance of exchanging
information, communications have been vital to society. Improvements
in communication have broadened people‘s knowledge of the world.
Line Today it is possible to follow events taking place around the globe
5 simply by turning on television or logging onto the Internet, yet, for
much of human existence, communication moved only as fast as a
person could move.

A breakthrough occurred in the fifteenth century with the
development of printing with movable type. In the 1830s, Samuel
10 Morse‘s invention of the telegraph showed that messages could move
at the speed of electricity. Since then, telephone, radio, television, and
satellite relays have continued to revolutionize communications. Today
the revolution is still going on.

How many of the following statements can you infer or conclude from reading this
passage? Check as many as you know to be true, based on the information in
the passage.

___ Societies value the exchange of information.
___ The Internet is a form of communication.
___ Before the fifteenth century people had no technology.
___ The telegraph is a form of communication.
___ Samuel Morse invented electricity.
___ The passage was written during a war.

From the information given, we can conclude that societies value the exchange
of information, the Internet is a form of communication, and the telegraph is a
form of communication. While the other statements might be true, there is
nothing in the passage to support them.

Now, answer a question:

What does the paragraph following this passage probably discuss?
A. Improvement in our standard of living
B. How satellite television has changed society
C. Global events at the turn of the century
D. Current breakthroughs in communications technology

The second paragraph discusses important developments in communication
technology from the fifteenth century to the present. It concludes with, ―Today
the revolution is still going on‖. This implies that the next paragraph will discuss
Current breakthrough in communication technology. (D)

171

Exercises
Read the following passages and choose the one best answer to each question

Reading 1
Temporary workers often receive their assignments through temporary
employment agencies. They work for firms that require additional help on an
occasional basis. In other cases, temporary workers are hired by shops
during busy seasons, such as Christmas. Temporary workers include

5 cashiers, sales demonstrators, and marketing researchers.

It can be inferred from the paragraph that _____.
A. temporary workers are well paid
B. some firms hire only temporary workers
C. shops need extra help at Christmas
D. temporary workers hope to find permanent jobs

Reading 2
Middle age has been regarded as a vague interim period when one is no
longer young and not quite old. The connotations of youth are vitality,
growth, and the heroic; whereas old age connotes vulnerability, withering,
and the brink of nothingness. This overly negative imagery of old age adds

5 greatly to the burden of middle age. It is terrifying to go through middle age
as though one was already very old, and it is a self-defeating illusion to live it
as though one was still young.

The author of the paragraph implies that middle age _____.
A. is preparation for the nothingness of old age
B. is when people have illusion about still being young
C. is defined primarily in negative terms
D. lasts several years

Reading 3
Although most honeybees die in the field while gathering pollen, some bees
die in the hives and must be removed in order to prevent the spread of
disease and to keep the nest from filling up with corpses. These corpses
emit a chemical that signals death. While some bees ignore the corpses,

5 other pokes them, lick them, or inspect them. Usually within an hour, the
bees that are in charge of removing dead bees grasp the corpses in their
mandibles, pull them through the hive toward the entrance, then fly away
and drop them as far as 400 feet from the hive.

It can be inferred from the passage that some bees _____.
A. do not care about the corpses of dead bees
B. have a special task related to what happens in the colony
C. do not always die in the hives

Reading 4
The extinction of many species of birds has undoubtedly been hastened by
modern man. Since 1600 it has been estimated that approximately 100 bird
species have become extinct over the world. In North America, the first
species known to be annihilated was the great auk, a flightless bird that

5 served as an easy source of food and bait for Atlantic fishermen through the
beginning of the nineteenth century.

172

Shortly after the great auk‘s extinction, two other North American
species, the Carolina parakeet and the passenger pigeon in captivity both
died in September 1914. In addition to these extinct species, several others
such as the bald eagle, the peregrine falcon, and the California condor are
today recognized as endangered; steps are being taken to prevent their
extinction.

Answer each of the following questions.

1. The passage implies that the great auk disappeared _____.

A. before 1600 C. In the 1800s

B. in the 1600s D. In the last fifty years

2. The paragraph following this passage most probably discusses _____.
A. what is being done to save endangered birds
B. what the bald eagle symbolizes to American
C. how several bird species became endangered
D. other extinct species

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the great auk was killed because ___.

A. it flew over fishing areas C. it was eating the fishermen‘s catch

B. fishermen wanted to eat it D. it baited fishermen

Reading 5
Manic depression is another psychiatric illness that mainly affects the
mood. A patient suffering from this disease will alternate between periods
of manic excitement and extreme depression, with or without relatively
normal periods in between. The changes in mood suffered by a manic-

5 depressive patient go far beyond the day-to-day mood changes
experienced by the general population. In the period of manic excitement,
the mood elevation can become so intense that it can result in extended
insomnia, extreme irritability, and heightened aggressiveness. In the period
of depression, which may last for several weeks or months, a patient

10 experiences feelings of general fatigue, uselessness, and hopelessness,
and in serious cases may contemplate suicide.

1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _____.
A. when manic depression develops
B. a different type of mental disease
C. how moods are determined
D. how manic depression can result in suicide

2. According to the passage, a manic depressive patient in a manic phase would

be feeling _____.

A. unhappy B. listless C. quite normal D. highly emotional

3. The passage implies that _____,
A. changes from excitement to depression occur frequently and often
B. only manic-depressive patients experience aggression
C. the depressive phase can be more harmful than the manic phase
D. suicide is inevitable in cases of manic depression

4. The word ―intense‖ (line 7) is closest in meaning to _____.

A. lengthy B. naughty C. strong D. extensive

173

Exercises for Tutorial Classes
(UNIT 12)

Exercise 1
The telephone system makes contacting consumers easier, and customers

can also phone in orders. Personal computers and the Internet have
revolutionized how people buy and sell. The nationwide system of highways, on
which large trucks can travel, enables huge quantities of goods to be transported
over great distances in a very short time. Sales workers, traveling by road or air,
can visit numerous customers every week.

Which of the following can be concluded from the paragraph?
A. The telephone will soon be superseded by personal computers and the

internet.
B. Improvements in communication and transportation have influenced

commerce.
C. Changes in technology have made human society more complex.
D. Traveling by road is less necessary because of telephones and the Internet.

Exercise 2
About 750 million acres, or one-third of the land in the United States, is

covered with forests. All fifty states have forest lands.The forests provide trees for
building materials, paper, fuel, and a variety of other uses. They help clean the
air, protect water supplies, and make a home for wildlife. They are a major
source of recreational opportunities for people and are the basis of hundreds of
thousands of jobs.

It can be inferred from the paragraph that _____.
A. forests in the United States have been replanted
B. Americans prefer houses built from wood
C. the number of jobs in forests is increasing
D. industrialized and urbanized states have forests

Exercise 3
The traditional English wooden house was built to insure strength and

durability. The house was built on a sturdy frame of heavy timbers about a foot
thick. These were held together by cutting down the end of the one beam into a
tounge which was then fitted into a groove in the adjoining beam. This kind of
construction required shaping tongues and grooves, making wooden pegs, and
fitting all these nearly together.

It can be inferred that traditional English houses _____.
A. required the tools and the training of a skilled carpenter
B. took as long as a year to complete
C. were sturdier and more durable than the houses built today
D. are no longer being built

174

Exercise 4
1) When Thomas Lincoln took his family across the Ohio River into

indiana in 1816, he was searching for a permanent homestead site. He
found it near Little Pigeon Creek on a plot of land he had laid claim to
Line earlier. Here the family settled down and remained for fourteen years, and
5 it was here that Nancy Hanks lincoln died from ―milksick‖, an illness
caused by milk from cattle that had eaten snakeroot.

2) Today the site of the Lincoln cabin is marked by bronze castings of
sill logs and a stone heart.Just beyond this, behind a split-rail fence, is a
reconstruction of the little house. It contains the homely and convincing
10 clutter of Abraham Lincoln‘s boyhood home: log table and benches, a
trundle bed, spinning wheels, and a fireplace with iron pots. In a shed
behind the cabin the tobacco crop is dried. A few horses, sheep, and
chickens complete the pleasant pioneer farm scene. Interpreters in period
dress are at hand-tending the crops, working the farm-and are happy to
15 answer one‘s questions.

3) Five bas-relief panels depicting scenes from Abraham Lincoln‘s life
decorate the visitor center. A walkway leads from the center to the small
hill where the president‘s mother is buried. Another walk is the Trail of
Twelve Stones. Each stone is from a site that played an important part in
20 lincoln‘s life.

Choose the best answer based on the passage above.

1. It can be concluded from lines 4 – 6 that _____.
A. ―milksick‖ was a common illness on farms
B. snakes killed many cattle
C. snakeroot is a poisonous plant
D. both people and cattle died from ‗milksick‖

2. It can be inferred from paragraphs 2 and 3 that _____.
A. the site of the Lincoln homestead is now a museum
B. the Lincoln cabin was built of stone and bronze
C. the Lincoln raised mainly tobacco
D. the Lincoln farm was modest but beautiful

3. Which of the following is most likely true?
A. Thomas Lincoln was originally from Indiana.
B. The Lincoln farm produced crops for only fourteen years.
C. President Lincoln is buried on a small hill at the homestead.
D. Thomas and Nancy Hanks Lincoln were president Lincoln‘s parents.

Exercise 5
Psychology recognizes two types of research, experimental and
differential. The former is concerned mainly with the overall processes
governing human activities, and the latter sets out to establish individual

Line differences in performance. More recent studies have demonstrated the
5 need for a third type of psychological study, namely, that which has to do
with human development. Rather than considering this aspect of human
performance as part of the first two types, scientists have noted that
developmental research indeed belongs in a separate category in and of
itself. Piaget‘s work would indisputably fall in the area of developmental

10 theories that have had great impact on both experimental and differential

175

research. When examining Piaget‘s studies, it is necessary to keep in
mind that, while his theories have been highly influential, his
methodology has been strongly criticized. The primary shortfall of his
work had to do with a lack of definition and standardization in his data
15 and experiment design.

1. According to the passage, what is the central goal of experimental research?
A. To arrive at a general classification of individuals.
B. To analyze individual differences in human activity
C. To establish the psychological process governing humans
D. To administer experiments on humans and processes

2. In line 5, the word ―namely‖ is closest in meaning to _____.

A. specially B. specifically C. hence D. nearly

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author is a proponent of _____.
A. reversing current trends in research
B. furthering a third branch of investigation
C. abolishing experimental and differential studies
D. assessing a need for human development

4. In line 8, the word ―category‖ is closest in meaning to

A. case B. cause C. calling D. class

5. According to the passage, developmental psychology belongs in _____.

A. the domain of Piaget‘s work C. its own unique area of study

B. a category of dispute studies D. other domains of research

7. It can be inferred from the passage that studies of human performance and of
Individual variations ____.
A. should not be perceived as fundamental
B. should be taken with a grain of salt
C. cannot enumerate all facets of human brain
D. cannot account for all aspects of human psychology

Exercise 6
While draft laws are federal laws, marriage laws are state laws rather than

federal; marriage regulations are therefore not uniform throughout the country.
The legal marriage age serves as example of this lack of conformity. In most
states, both the man and the woman must be at least eighteen years old to marry
without parental consent; however, the states of Nebraska and Wyoming require
the couple to be at least nineteen, while the minimum age in Mississippi is
twenty-one. If parental permission is given, then a couple can marry at sixteen in
some states, and a few states even allow marriage before the age of sixteen.,
though a judge‘s permission, in addition to the permission of the parents, is
sometimes required in this situation. Some states which allow couples to marry at
such a young age are now considering doing away with such early marriages
because of the numerous negative effects of these young marriages.

1. The paragraph preceding the passage most probably discuss _____.

A. state mariage laws C. the lack of uniformity in marriage laws

B. federal draft laws D. the minimum legal marriage age

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2. The topic of paragraph following the passage is most likely to be _____.
A. disadvantages of youthful marriages
B. reasons why young people decide to marry
C. the age when parental consent for marriage is required
D. a discussion of why some states allow marriages before the age of sixteen

Exercise 7

Various other native American tribes also lived on the Great Plains. The
Sioux, a group of seven American tribes, are best known for the fiercely
combative posture against encroaching White civilization in the 1800s.
Line Although they are popularly referred to as Sioux, these native American
5 tribes did not call themselves Sioux; the name was given to them by an
enemy tribe. The seven Sioux tribes called themselves by some variation
of the word Dakota, which means ―allies‖ in their language. Four tribes of

the eastern Sioux community living in Minnesota were known by the
name Dakota. The Nakota included two tribes that left the eastern

10 woodlands and moved out onto the plains. The Teton Sioux, or Lakota,
moved even farther west to the plains of the present-day states of North
Dakota, South Dakota, and Wyoming.

1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _____.
A. how the Sioux battled the white man
B. one of the tribes of the plains
C. where the Sioux lived
D. Native American tribes on the East Coast

2. Which of the following represents a likely reaction of the Sioux in the 1800s to
the encroaching white civilization?
A. The Sioux would probably help the whites to settle in the West.
B. The Sioux would probably attack the white settlers.
C. The Sioux would probably invite the whites to smoke a peace pipe.
D. The Sioux would probably join together in hunting parties with the white
settlers.

3. It is implied in the passage that the seven Sioux tribes called each other by

some form of the word Dakota because they were _____.

A. united in a cause C. fiercely combative

B. all living in North Dakota D. enemies

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the present-day states of North and
South Dakota _____.
A. are east of Minnesota
B. are home to the four tribes known by the name Dakota
C. received their names from the tribes living there
D. are part of the eastern woodlands

Exercise 8

Most people think of deserts as dry, flat areas with little vegetation and

little or no rainfall, but this is hardly true. Many deserts have varied

geographical formations ranging from soft, rolling hills to stark, jagged
Line cliffs, and most deserts have a permanent source of water. Although

5 deserts do not receive a high amount of rainfall—to be classified as a
desert, an area must get less than 25 centimeters of rainfall per year----

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there are many plants that thrive on only small amounts of water, and
deserts are often full of such plant life.

1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Deserts are dry, flat areas with few plants.
B. There is little rainfall in the desert.
C. many kinds of vegetation can survive with little water.
D. Deserts are not really flat areas with little plant life.

2. The passage implies that _____.
A. the typical conception of a desert is incorrect
B. all deserts are dry, flat areas
C. most people are well informed about deserts
D. the lack of rainfall in deserts causes the lack of vegetation

3. The passage describes the geography of deserts as _____.

A. flat B. sandy C. varied D. void of vegetation

4. According to the passage, what causes an area to be classified as a desert?

A. The type of plants C. The amount of precipitation

B. The geographical formations D. The source of water

5. What is most likely the topic of the paragraph following this passage?

A. The geography of deserts C. Plants that do not require much water

B. The water sources of deserts D. The amount of rainfall in a desert

Exercise 9

Read the passages and the statements that follow it. Write I in the space if the
statement is an inference. Write R if the statement is a restatement. Leave the
space blank if the statement is neither an inference nor a statement.

a. The northern elephant seal, a 2,000-pound mammal, is making a dramatic
comeback after being hunted to near extinction in the late 19th century. The seals
that once thrived off the coast of California now receive protection from both the
Mexican and the US governments. A contributing factor to their survival is the
reduced demand for seal oil due to the ready availability of petroleum products.

A. ----- Products that were once made from seal oil are now made from
petroleum.

B. ----- Petroleum is easier to obtain now than seal oil is.
C. ----- Northern elephant seals are now numerous.

b. The white shark, having acquired a reputation for mindless ferocity unequaled
among terrestrial or aquatic predators, belongs to the family known as the
mackerel shark. Nothing about this terrifying fish is predictable: its behavior,
range, or diet. Despite this fearsome reputation, evidence from the remains of
victims of shark attacks suggests that the white shark does not eat people.

A. ----- A white shark is a kind of mackerel shark.
B. ----- The white shark has gained a terrifying reputation because it attacks

people.
C. ----- The white shark attacks its victims for reasons other than hunger.

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UNIT 13
DISTINGUISHING FACTS FROM OPINIONS

Objective:
1. To differentiate facts from opinions.

I. FACT
A fact is something which is certainly known to have occurred, to exist or to

be true, and the truth of which can be justified through experience, evidence,
observation, or research. A fact reflects an absolute certainty.

For examples:
 People need food to survive.
 IPB is located in Bogor.
 She has been working for IPB for two years.
 There are more females than males in this class.

II. OPINION
An opinion is someone's "belief" or "view". Opinions differ from facts in that

they are open to debate and cannot be proved to be true or they are true only to
certain groups of people. They may also change over time. Some writers might
make opinions sound like facts, but there are often phrases or markers that
indicate that they are actually opinions.

For examples:
 The students in my class looked so happy with the result of their test.
 I think they were satisfied with their scores.
 Perhaps they were of the assumption that they didn‟t deserve it.
 Some of them were even speechless.

Common markers to indicate opinions:
a. Certain verbs: appear, argue, assume, believe, consider, guess, seem,

suggest, suspect, say, etc.
For example:  I believe this debate is so important.

b. Adjectives (adjectives usually, not always, indicate opinions).
When an adjective is used to present a common belief, it is stating a fact, not
an opinion.
For examples:
Fact:  The weather in winter time is cold.
 The stars are uncountable.
 Sugar is sweet.
Opinion:  He is nice and helpful.
 Houses in this area are expensive.
 Bogor is beautiful.

c. Certain nouns: opinion, view, consideration
For example:  In my point of view, we should include poverty in
this discussion.

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d. Certain adverbs: maybe, perhaps, possibly, probably, likely, unlikely.
For example:  Perhaps he needs nobody in his life.

e. Certain ways which provide rooms for discussion by avoiding using
absolute expressions:
i. By reducing the size of the group
a few, a little, some, many, much, most (note: all and none indicate
absoluteness)
For example:  A few people like living by themselves

ii. By reducing the number of times something occurs:
usually, often, frequently, sometimes, occasionally, seldom (note: always
and never show absoluteness)
For example:  He is always/ never on time.
 He sometimes comes late.

iii. By using modal auxiliaries to say something is possible/probable:
may, might, can, could, should, will, could, must
For example:  Student should prepare themselves for the test.

will (when it is not used in a schedule)
For example:  The final test will be held for two weeks. (fact)

 We will run out of the fossil fuel soon. (opinion)

must (when it is not used to show regulation)
For example:  The diploma students must wear uniforms on

certain different days. (fact)
 They must prepare themselves well for the exam.

(opinion)

NOTE: A statement in a compound sentence can be a fact, an opinion, or a fact
and an opinion:

For example:  IPB is located in Bogor, and it has eleven faculties.
(a fact)

 IPB is very attractive to high school students, and it
is very promising as well. (an opinion)

 IPB has nine faculties, and they are all excellent.
(a fact and an opinion)

Exercise 1
Indicate whether each of the following statements is a FACT or an OPINION and
when it is an OPINION, indicate the markers.

1) People all over the world drink tea.
2) Now scientists are suggesting that tea may not be as safe as we had

previously believed.
3) Tea contains caffeine, but caffeine is also a larger component of other

drinks.
4) Pregnant women are advised to reduce their intake of tea until after their

baby is born.
5) Chocolate drinks contain about 30 mg of caffeine per glass.
6) The average American seems to favor rich desserts at the end of a full meal.

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7) Cherry, blueberry, peach and apple are used as fillings in fruit pies in
America.

8) If a poll were taken today, most Americans would choose the fruit pie as their
desserts.

9) Obesity could be one of the major health problems in America.
10) Most nutritionists would say that ice cream remains rather high in calories

when sweetened.

Exercise 2
Identify whether the following short paragraphs contain statements of Fact or
Opinion. Underline the markers for opinion.

1. There are also 504 Buddha figures in the Borobudur Temple. There is no
cement or mortar was used, instead the pieces of stone were fitted together
like interlocking pieces of Lego. About 55,000 cubic meters of stone were
used in the construction and they were joined together with knobs,
indentations and dovetails.

2. Spices, such as coriander, cardamom or ginger have been used for centuries
in the preparation of both meat dishes for consumption and meat dishes for
long-term storage. However, an initial analysis of traditional meat-based
recipes indicated that spices are not used equally in different countries and
regions, so we set about investigating global patterns of spice use.

3. Kangaroos have adapted over millions of years to fit into their ecological niche.
They have large ears, and relatively small heads. Their front limbs are very
small, but their paws are very nimble. Their hind legs are very large and
powerful. When they are moving slowly, kangaroos walk on all four limbs, with
the front limbs barely touching the ground. To move quickly, they stand nearly
upright, and start hopping on their hind legs.

Exercise 3
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

Current studies show that what goes on labels is an important
consideration for manufacturers, since more than seventy percent of
shoppers read food labels when considering whether to buy a product.
Line A recent controversy as to whether labels on prepared foods should
5 educate or merely inform the consumer is over, and a consumer group got
its way. The group had maintained that product labels should do more
than simply list how many grams of nutrients a food contains. Their
contention was that labels should also list the percentage of a day's total
nutrients that the product will supply to the consumer, because this
information is essential in planning a healthy diet.
10 A government agency disagreed strongly favoring a label that merely
informs the consumer, in other words, a label that only lists the contents of
the product. The agency maintained that consumers could decide for
themselves if the food is nutritious and is meeting their daily needs.

The consumer group, in supporting its case, had cited a survey in
15 which shoppers were shown a food label, and were then asked if they

would need more or less of a certain nutrient after eating a serving of this
product. The shoppers weren't able to answer the questions easily when
they were not given a specific percentage.

181

A. Underline any words signaling an opinion.

B. Choose the best answer.

1. What was the controversy about?
A. Whether it is necessary to put label on prepared foods.
B. What the daily requirements for certain nutrients should be.
C. How to get consumers to read labels more carefully.
D. What information food manufacturers should provide to consumers.

2. Why does the speaker mention that more than 70% people read food
labels?
A. To demonstrate that current consumer trends are stable.
B. To compare current consumer trends to those of the past.
C. To indicate that most consumers actively research the products they
buy.
D. To show that there has been a decrease in consumer awareness.

3. What did the consumer group propose?
A. Stricter standards for food preparation.
B. More detailed labels on food.
C. Removing certain foods from the market.
D. Regular testing of food products.

4. What did the survey of food shoppers reveal?
A. They were unable to comprehend a label without percentages.
B. They preferred more basic labeling.
C. They were unwilling to do simple arithmetic.
D. They thought the language on labels was too technical.

C. Underline all the sub-clauses and identify whether they are adjective clauses,
noun clauses, or adverb clauses.

Exercise 4
Choose the correct word out of the given choice in brackets while you are
reading the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

Experts say the food people eat (1. A. great, B. greatly, C. greatness)
affects their health. They say that some foods (2. A. is, B. are, C. were)
especially good for preventing disease.
Line Many foods (3. A. contain, B. containing, C. contains) substances
5 that protect against tissue damage. One of these (4. A. are, B. was, C. is)
tomatoes. The substance lycopene is (5. A. release, B. releasing, C.
released) when tomatoes are cooked. Lycopene helps reduce the (6. A.
risk, B. risky, C. risks) of developing cancer in the digestive system, which
(7. A. process, B. processes, C. processing) food.
10 The dark green vegetable spinach (8. A. to contain, B. contains, c.
containing) folic acid that prevents problems in developing fetuses. It also
lowers (9. A, blooding, B. bloody, C. blood) levels of homocysteine. High
homocysteine levels have (10. A. - , B. been, C. be) linked to heart attacks
and strokes. Another vegetable, broccoli, can (11. A. to help, B. helped, C.
15 help) protect against cancers of the breast, colon and stomach.

Oats help lower blood pressure and protect against heart disease.
They may also (12. A. improvement, B. improving, C. improve) the levels

182

of sugar in the blood. (13. A. It, B. These, C. The) reduces the chance of
developing the disease, diabetes.
20 Fish that contain omega three fatty acids help prevent blockages in
the arteries. Omega three also (14. A. lowers, B. low, C. lower) bad
cholesterol and may protect brain cells from diseases (15. A. as, B. like, C.
for) Alzheimer's. Fish that provide a (16. A. lot, B. less, little) of omega
three acids are salmon, herring, mackerel and bluefish.
25 Garlic may help protect the heart by (17. A. reducing, B. reduces, C.
reduce) cholesterol and making the blood less (18. A. sticky, B. stick, C.
stickiness). Health experts also suggest cooking with olive oil (19. A. after,
B. when, C. because) it also has been shown to help prevent cancer and
heart disease.

A. Underline the signal words for opinion.

B. Change the followings in all possible ways to make them statements of
opinion.
For example:
1. Many foods contain substances that protect against tissue damage.
I think many foods contain substances that protect against tissue
damage.
2. One of these is tomatoes.

3. Certain substance is released when tomatoes are cooked.

4. Lycopene helps reduce the risk of developing cancer in the digestive
system, which processes food.

5. Fish that provide a lot of omega three acids are salmon, herring, mackerel
and bluefish.

C. Indicate whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE.
1. The word „affect‟ in line 2 could be best replaced with “provide.”
2. The main idea of the second paragraph is stated in the first sentence.
3. The word „lowers‟ in line 12 is an adjective.
4. Paragraph three is presenting fact only.
5. Oats can improve the availability of our blood.
6. Garlic is good for the health of our heart.
7. The main idea of the last paragraph is the relationship between the
chocolate and weight.

D. Answer the following questions
1. Identify noun clauses in the text (if any).
2. Identify adjective clauses in the text (if any).
3. Identify adverb clauses in the text (if any).

183

Exercises for Tutorial Classes
(UNIT 13)

Exercise 1
Say whether the following sentences indicate FACTS or OPINIONS.

1. Indonesia got its independence in 1945.
2. Indonesia got its independent in 1945 with a great struggle.
3. The number of people who have high credit card debt is astonishing.
4. Indonesia proposed Jokowi and Prabowo as candidates for presidents.
5. The president is a person of a good reputation for most Indonesian people.
6. "Spam" is the e-mail equivalent of junk mail.
7. A person with a good communication skill usually lives economically better.
8. Female doctors are more caring than male doctors.
9. My mother does not speak English at all; she is Javanese.
10. The Center for Disease Control (CDC) is a government agency that is

responsible for the control and suppression of infectious diseases.
11. Last year there was a horrible outbreak of flu.
12. Babies generally start to talk between 18 and 24 months of age.
13. The average temperature in Jogjakarta in January is 30°C.
14. Italian is an easier language to learn than Spanish.
15. The capital of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) is Moscow.
16. More people stopped smoking last year than two years ago.
17. Many people believe a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet is the healthiest

diet.
18. Thousands of people die each year from the interaction of their prescribed

drugs.
19. Cell phones should be banned in all classrooms.
20. Children should not be allowed to watch more than five hours of television

per week.

Exercise 2
Identify whether the following short paragraphs contain statements of Fact or
Opinion. Underline the markers for opinion.

1. Archaeologists analyzed data from nearly 3,000 cod bones found in 95
different excavations in and around London. They identified a sudden change
in the origin of the fish during the early 13th century, indicating the onset of a
large-scale import trade.

2. COTAP is the global warming solution which also empowers you to fight global
poverty. By offsetting your unavoidable carbon emissions through our certified
forestry projects, you are not only taking action on global warming, but also
creating life-changing income in regions where income levels are less than $2
per day.

184

3. A livestock show is an event where livestock are exhibited and judged on
certain phenotypical breed traits as specified by their respective breed
standard. Species of livestock that may be shown include pigs, cattle, sheep,
goats, horses, llamas and alpacas. Poultry such as chickens, geese, ducks,
turkeys and pigeons are also shown competitively. A livestock show may be
part of an agricultural show.

4. As late as 1900, Indonesia was still a densely forested country: the total forest
represented 84 per cent of the total land area. Deforestation intensified in the
1970s and continuously accelerated since then. As a result, the estimated
forest cover of 170 million ha around 1900 decreased to 98 million ha by the
end of the 20th century.

5. You could be an ideal candidate for this program if you have a strong
analytical or programming background, and are accustomed to using
numerical data to describe and understand many situations. The curriculum of
the Bachelor of Science degree places a strong emphasis on mathematics,
statistics, and programming; the most successful candidates will be those who
are passionate about quantitative analysis.

6. This vibrant South America combines Latin American flare with all the warmth
of the Caribbean. It's colorful, exotic, sexy, historic and modern all at the same
time. It's mysterious. It's amazing. It's an adventure.

7. The Borobudur Temple is situated on the island of Java, in Magelang, in the
Kedu Plain, 40km from Yogyakarta, 53km from Surakarta and it lies in the
shadow of two active volcanoes. It covers 123m² and there are 2,672
intricately carved, stone relief panels most of which feature scenes from
Buddha‟s life and tell the story of Buddhist cosmology.

Exercise 3
Choose the correct word out of the provided choice in the brackets while you are
reading the text and then answer the questions that follow.

When people are in conflict during (1. A. active, B. activate, C.
activity) listening, they often contradict each (2. A. other, B. another, C.
others) denying the opponent's description of a situation. This (3. A.
Line tended, B. tends, C. tend) to make people defensive, and they will (4. A.
5 whether, B. either) lash out, or withdraw and say nothing (5. A. again, B.
more, C. against). However, if they feel that (6. A. them, B. their, C. theirs)
opponent is really attuned to their concerns and (7. A. want, B. wants, C.
wanting) to listen, they are likely to (8. A. explanation, B. explain, C.
explaining) in detail what they feel and why. If both (9. A. parties, B.
10 people, C. persons) to a conflict do this, the chances of being able to
develop a (10. A. solve, B. solvable, C. solution) to their mutual problem
becomes much greater. This paragraph is a (11. A. descriptive, B.

185

describe, C. description) of what happen when people are in conflict
during the listening.

A. Which sentences in the above text are statements of opinion? Mention the
signal words.

B. Guess the meaning of the underlined words.

C. Underline all the sub-clauses and identify whether they are adjective, noun or
adverb clauses.

D. Decide if the followings are true or false.
1. The word „they‟ in line 2 refers to people.
2. The word „This‟ in line 3 refers to situation.
3. The part of speech of the words „defensive‟ in line 4 is a verb.
4. The part of speech of the words „lash out‟ line 5 is a noun.
5. The word „However‟ in line 6 is a signal word for cause and effect.
6. The part of speech of the words „concerns‟ line 7 is an adverb.
7. The phrase „do this‟ in line 10 refers to oppose each other.
8. The part of speech of the words „chances‟ line 10 is a noun.
9. The part of speech of the words „mutual‟ line 11 is an adjective.
10. The part of speech of the words „happen‟ line 13 is a verb.

Exercise 4
Choose the correct word out of the provided choice in the brackets while you are
reading the text and then answer the questions which follow.

Third parties can make (1. A. communicative, B. communicating, C.
communication) better, or they can make it worse. (2. A. Skilled, B. Skill)
third parties can help speakers clarify (3. A. what, B. which, C. that) they
Line are saying, and they can (4. A. helped, B. help, C. helping) listeners hear
5 what is really (5. A. meant, B. mean, C. meaning). They can act as go-
betweens, carrying messages between people (6. A. who, B. whom, C.
whose) cannot or will not meet face-to-face. Untrained third parties, or
third parties with a (7. A. differ, B. difference, C. different) agenda can
make matters worse. The media's goal, for example, is (8. A. seldom. B.
10 often, C. never) not helping people understand each other (9. A. good, B.
better), but rather, presenting the story to (10. A. met, B. meet, C.
meeting) the media's own goals which may be to (11. A. inflaming, B.
inflame, C. inflammation) the readers' anger in order to sell more
newspapers (12. A. but, B. or, C. so) to support the publisher's or
15 government's own (13. A. interesting, B. interests, C. interested) and
views.

A. Answer the following questions.

1. What is the topic sentence of the paragraph?

2. Which third parties can improve communication? Why can they improve it?

186

3. And which third parties can worsen it? How can it happen?

4. What is the example of a bad third party mentioned in the paragraph?

5. What are the two possible purposes of the media according to the author?

B. Based on the above text, which statements are opinions and what are the
markers?

Exercise 5
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

An American food company recently recalled about eight-million
kilograms of ground beef that is used to make hamburgers. The meat had
sickened at least twenty-six people in five states.
Line The beef contained the bacteria E. coli. The bacteria are passed from
5 one person to another through infected solid human waste.

Most people with E. coli infections have pains in the stomach. They
may have diarrhea--waste that is loose and watery instead of solid.
Children under the age of five and older people might die if the bacteria
destroy red blood cells and cause kidney failure.
10 Experts say people should drink only pasteurized milk that has been
heated to kill bacteria. And people should drink only water that has been
treated with chemicals to kill bacteria. They also say all ground beef
should be cooked well to kill any bacteria that might be present.

Listeria are other dangerous bacteria spread in food: They are found
15 naturally in the soil and water. Vegetables can become infected from the

soil or from solid waste materials used as fertilizer. Unpasteurized milk
may also contain the bacteria.

People suffering from listeria infection have a high body temperature,
muscle aches and diarrhea. Experts say cooking all foods until they are
20 very hot and washing uncooked vegetables can prevent the infection.
They also say people who cook foods should always wash their hands and
cooking tools after touching uncooked foods.

Other dangerous bacteria are salmonella. This infection is spread by
eating foods that contain particles of animal waste. The victim gets a high
25 fever, diarrhea and stomach pain. Salmonella infection can kill a person if
it spreads through the bloodstream untreated. It can be prevented by
making sure that eggs, chicken and meat are cooked well.

A. Answer the following questions.
1. Name five examples of statements of FACTS from the passage above.
2. Name five examples of statements of OPINIONS from the passage above.
3. Are there any Noun Clauses in the first paragraph?
4. How many Adjective Clauses are there in the fourth paragraph?
5. How many Adverb Clauses are there in the passage?

187

B. Decide whether the followings are true or false
1. The main idea of the third paragraph is stated in the first sentence.
2. A three-year old girl may die if E. coli bacteria destroy the red blood.
3. Salmonella bacteria can be found in the meat that is not well cooked.
4. The word „another‟ in line 5 refers to person.
5. The word „They‟ in line 6 refers to infections.
6. People who suffer from listeria infection will get fever.
7. Cooking the eggs well can prevent salmonella infection.
8. All the sentences in Paragraph Three are statements of opinion.
9. The root word of the word „naturally‟ in line 15 is natural.
10. The part of speech of the word „uncooked‟ in line 22 is verb.

C. Change the followings in all possible ways to make them statements of
opinion.

1. The bacteria are passed from one person to another through infected solid
human waste.

2. Listeria are found naturally in the soil and water.
3. People suffering from listeria infection have a high body temperature,

muscle aches and diarrhea.
4. Salmonella infection is spread by eating foods that contain particles of animal

waste.
5. The victim gets a high fever, diarrhea and stomach pain.

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UNIT 14
REVIEW

Objectives:
1. To have an integrated picture of all the reading skills
2. To apply different skills when reading texts
3. To use grammatical points appropriately

A. Reading

What skills are necessary to understand a piece of writing?

From the previous units you know that the skills you apply when reading a
text depends so much on your purpose. When you want to get a general
overview of what you read, you apply skimming – reading quickly to get a
general idea. Usually when a word, typically a noun, constantly appears
throughout the passage, this word is most probably the topic.

In a different occasion you might know the topic from the title, e.g. the history
of soap. After reading the title, you might want to find out when people
started making soap and who created it for the first time. In this case, you
can apply scanning – reading quickly for specific information. In this example,
you will move your eyes quickly to find the time, probably date, year, or
period, which are normally in figures, to get the information regarding when
people started making soap. Trying to find the first person making soap can
also be done quickly by reading fast with the focus of someone‘s name, which
will always start with a capital letter.

However, to be able to have a thorough comprehension on what you read,
you need to read in detail – finding referents of the existing pronouns,
guessing meanings of difficult words, recognizing how the writer organizes
his/her ideas, mapping out how these ideas are linked with each other either
with or without the transitional markers that the writer uses, making
inferences of the implied information and even distinguishing facts from
opinions. By understanding all these details, when you have to summarize
the content of what you read, you will have no problem in transferring the
information into different forms.

You might be aware that you cannot always guess the meaning of difficult
words you find in texts. In this situation, you normally need to consult your
dictionary. However, there is often a list of meanings for one word you are
looking for. Thus, it is necessary for you to know how to use dictionary
properly.

Since a piece of information does not always come in words, it is also
necessary for you to be able to interpret information from graphs/charts and
tables.

If you learn all these skills throughout the previous units carefully, you will
most probably improve your reading skills.

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B. Grammatical Points

Sentence
As you know, a paragraph consists of sentences or clauses. Thus,
understanding a paragraph requires understanding of sentences. Let us
review the sentence components that you have learned.

1. Subject
The subject of a sentence can be in the form of a single noun, a noun
phrase, a pronoun, an infinitive, a gerund, an expletive, a noun clause, or
a noun plus an adjective clause.

2. Predicate
The predicate is normally occupied by a verb. When there is no verb, ‗BE‘
will always be used. The verb indicates the tense and the voice (active or
passive).

3. Object
What can occur in the subject position can also occupy the object
position, except an expletive, which is only used as a Subject.

4. Complement
Since only transitive verbs require objects, what follows other types of
verbs is called a complement.

Clauses
There are two types of clauses in English:
1. Main clause (independent clause)
2. Subordinate clause (dependent clause)

There are three types of subordinate clauses:

a) Noun Clause
A noun clause functions either as a subject, an object, or as a
complement.
The markers that indicate a noun clause are that, whether/if, wh-.

b) Adjective Clause
An adjective clause always follows or modifies a noun. The markers of
an adjective clause are that, wh-.

c) Adverb Clause
An adverb clause can come at the beginning or in the middle of a
sentence. Similar to the other subordinate clauses, an adverb clause
is always signaled with an adverb clause marker, which varies
depending on the function, e.g. because, although, while.

Examples:
1. You should plan when you will get your first degree. (Noun clause)
2. The year when you will get your first degree might be different from now.

(Adjective clause)
3. Your parents will be very happy when you get your first degree. (Adverb

clause)
4. When you get your first degree, your parents will be very happy. (Adverb

clause)

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Exercise 1
The following passage consists of three paragraphs. Read each paragraph and
answer the questions that follow. Try to apply all the reading skills you have
learned in previous units.

(A) Focus on Paragraph One
1) Understanding soap-making requires a short chemistry and

history lesson. Soap is made from a chemical reaction called
saponification. During saponification, an alkali base such as sodium
Line hydroxide reacts with a fat. This forms a small amount of alcohol
5 called glycerol and a metal salt of fatty acids, or soap. Soap cleans
because its molecules attach to non-polar molecules like oil and polar
molecules like water. One end of the soap molecule is attracted to oil
and keeps away water, while the other end attaches itself to water
and repels oil. This special quality of the soap molecule allows it to

10 suspend oils, which attract dirt. Water can then wash away the soap
and the dirt.

1. How many lessons does understanding soap-making require?

2. Read the second sentence. Is this a statement of fact of opinion?

3. ‗Saponification‘ (line 3) is a __________ reaction.
4. ‗sodium hydroxide‘ in lines 3-4 is an example of __________.

5. What happens during saponification?

6. What does ‗This‘ (line 4) refer to?
7. What is the parts of speech of the word ‗forms‘ in line 4?

8. ‗glycerol‘ in line 5 is a type of __________.

9. Do the molecules of soap attach only to one type of molecules?

10. How do molecules of oil and those of water differ?

11. Find the synonyms of the following words in the same paragraph:

a. attach (line 6) b. like (line 6) c. repels (line 9)

12. Explain why and how soap can clean dirt.

13. What tense is used in this paragraph? Why do you think the writer uses
this tense?

14. Find one example of a passive sentence.

15. What text organization do you think the writer uses in this paragraph?
Why do you think so?

(B) Focus on Paragraph Two
2) No one knows exactly when humans first developed soap.

Archeologists have found containers filled with a material similar to
Line soap while studying the ancient cultures of Babylon and Egypt. One

15 story says that soap got its name from Mount Sapo, a place where
ancient Romans used to sacrifice animals to their lovely gods.
Rainwater washed melted animal fat and wood ashes down the
mountain into a river where women were washing clothes in running
water. The women found that the ashes and fat combination made

20 their clothes much cleaner. Although the story may not be true, it is
likely that the discovery of how to make soap may have been
accidental.

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1. Can you tell us when soap was first developed? Why/Why not?

2. Does the word ‗soap‘ come from a name of a mountain?

3. What did the ancient Romans do at Mount Sapo?

4. According to the story, what contained in the ingredients that made
clothes cleaner?

5. Read the last sentence of this paragraph again. Is this sentence a
statement of fact or opinion?

6. The tenses used in Paragraph Two are more varied. Identify four
different tenses used in this paragraph. Why do you think the writer uses
each of them?

7. Identify whether the following is a noun clause, an adjective clause, or an
adverb clause.
a. …when humans first developed soap (line 12).
b. …that soap got its name from Mount Sapo (line 15).
c. …where ancient Romans used to sacrifice animals to their gods (lines
15-16).
d. …where women were washing clothes in running water (lines 18-19).
e. …that the ashes and fat combination made their clothes much cleaner
(lines 19-20).
f. Although the story may not be true… (line 20).
g. …that the discovery of how to make soap may have been accidental
(lines 21-22)

8. Identify the parts of speech of the following words:

a. exactly (line 12) e. lovely (line 16)

b. developed (line 12) f. melted (line 17)

c. material (line 13) g. washing (line 18)

d. cultures (line 14) h. running (line 18)

e. says (line 15) i. accidental (line 22)

(C) Focus on Paragraph Three
3) Soap businesses began to appear in England, France, and

Line Italy during the Middle Ages. By the 12th century, soap-making centers
25 had developed in cities such as Marseilles, France and Savona, Italy.
Later, Bristol, England also became an important city for soap

production. Two scientists helped modernize soap production. The

French chemist Nicolas Leblanc discovered how to make soda ash
from salt in the late 18th century. As a result, soda, a main material in

30 soap, became easier to make. But this process also released large
amounts of deadly hydrochloric acid gas. The Belgian chemist Ernest

Solvay later developed a better method of soda ash production in the

1860s.

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