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Published by mohansir2023, 2022-12-22 02:48:27

ROBOMATE TOPOGRAPHY BOOK

ROBOMATE TOPOGRAPHY BOOK

Chapter 14

AGRO-BASED INDUSTRIES

Q.I. Very Short Answer Questions :

1. Name an agro-based industry based in the following industrial centres:

(a) Ahmedabad (b) Mysore

Ans. (a) Ahmedabad – Cotton (b) Mysore – Silk

2. Mention any two important by-products of the sugar industry.
Ans. Molasses, Press Mud, Bagasse are important by-products of the sugar

industry.

3. Why Uttar Pradesh has been relegated to the second place in terms of
sugar production?

Ans. Uttar Pradesh has been relegated to second position because of old mills,
management and labour problems and shorter crushing period.

4. Why is the sugar industry highly dispersed in India?
Ans. Sugar industry is highly dispersed in India since sugarcane is grown

throughout the country.

5. Which two states are collectively called the ‘Sugar-belt of India’?
Ans. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are collectively called the sugar belt of India.

Together they account for almost half of India's total sugarcane production.

6. Which are the main centres of sugar industry in Uttar Pradesh (Any four)?
Ans. The main centres of sugar production in Uttar Pradesh are Kanpur,

Gorakhpur Bulandshahar, Meerut, Gaziabad, Muzaffarnagar, Bagpat,
Saharanpur, Gonda and Basti.

7. Which are the main centres of sugar industry in Bihar (Any four)?
Ans. Main centres in Bihar are West Champaran, East Champaran, Sitamarhi,

Muzzaffarpur and Bhagalpur.

8. Name any three major sugar producing centres in Maharastra.
Ans. The major centres in Maharashtra are : Ahmednagar, Kolhapur, Solapur,

Satara, Sangli, Pune and Nashik.

9. Name the major sugar producing centres in Tamil Nadu.
Ans. Coimbatore, Vellore, Tiruchchirapalli and Villupuram.

10. Name the major sugar producing centres in Andhra Pradesh.
Ans. Kakinada, Chittor, West Godavari, East Godavari and Vijayawada.

11. Name the major sugar producing centres in Karnataka.
Ans. Mandya, Shimoga, Belgaum, Bijapur and Bellary.

Q.II. Short Answer Questions :

1. What is meant by ‘Agro-based industry’? Name the leading agro-industry
in India.

Ans. Agro-based industries are those industries which use agricultural produce
as their raw material.
Cotton and sugar are the leading agro-industries in India.

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2. Mention any two problems of small-scale and cottage industries.
Ans. The problems of small-scale and cottage industries are as follows :

(i) Small-scale and cottage industries lack modern technology.
(ii) They cannot complete in terms of quality and price with the large

scale industries.
(iii) Unorganized marketing makes the products unprofitable.

3. Name two important centres for each of the following industries and

state the facilities they are enjoying at these centres:

(i) Cotton Industry (ii) Silk Industry

Ans. (i) Maharashtra and Gujarat are the foremost cotton textile manufacturing

states. In these states, Mumbai and Ahmedabad contribute about 50

percent of the total installed looms and nearly half of India’s cotton

mill cloth. Mumbai and Ahmedabad have emerged as the most important

cotton-manufacturing centres for the following reasons :

(a) Proximity to raw material.

(b) Favourable climatic conditions

(c) Transport facilities

(d) Port facilities

(e) Labour

(ii) Silk Industry is an important industry of India due to international

demands. Main centres are Bangalore, Kanchipuram, Varanasi, Mysore,

Murshidabad etc. Silk worms are reared mainly on mulberry plants. It

is both developed as handloom and machines manufacturing. These

centres get the raw material easily and there are expert workers rather

traditional, which are well trained in weaving and design making.

4. In what way does the cotton industry contribute to the economy of
India? Mention-any three relevant factors. OR

Mention any three special features of cotton textile industry in India.
Ans. (i) Cotton textile is a major industry in India.

(ii) It directly or indirectly supports more than nearly 40 per cent of the
country's labour force.

(iii) It also contributes to export of the country on a large scale.

5. Name any two large sugar producing states, one each in north and south
India.

Ans. The two large sugar producing states in India are
(i) North - Uttar Pradesh
(ii) South - Tamil Nadu

6. What is sericulture? Name any two types of silk.
Ans. The rearing of silkworms for silk production is known as Sericulture.

Types of silk are mulberry, eri, tasar and muga.

7. Classify industries on the basis of the nature of products. Give one
example of each.

Ans. (i) Basic Industries : Iron and steel industry and petroleum industry.
(ii) Secondary or Consumer Industries : Textile, sugar, paper making, etc.
(iii) Tertiary Industries : Railways, transport, banking, post and telegraph, etc.

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8. What are cottage industries?
Ans. (i) These are also known as household industries and are organized by

individuals with private resources and with the help of members of
the households.
(ii) They use locally available resources and skills.
(iii) For example, carpet weaving, handloom and handicrafts industry, etc.

9. State two economic advantages of the handloom industry.
Ans. (i) The industry today provides employment to about 10 million people

(ii) It contributes over 23 per cent of the total cloth production in the
country.

10. Name the by-products of the sugar industry. Give the industrial use of each.
Ans. (i) Molasses is used in the alcohol industry for the distillation of liquor

(rum), power alcohol, etc. It is also used in the production of certain
chemicals and synthetic rubber.
(ii) Press mud is utilised for making wax, carbon paper and shoe polish.

11. Give three important reasons which have made Maharashtra the leading
producer of sugar in India.

Ans. (i) The black soil here is more fertile than the alluvial soil of the northern
India. Besides this, the black soil is well drained.

(ii) The cane is of superior quality with higher yield.
(iii) The excellent transport facilities, especially in the state of Maharashtra

in relation to export markets have placed it in a very advantageous
position for the further expansion of the sugarcane industry.

12. Which industry has a tendency to migrate towards the south? Why?
Ans. Sugar industry has a tendency migrate towords the south. The reason are:

(i) The yield per hectare is high due to tropical climatic conditions.
(ii) The crushing season is longer than northern India.
(iii) Most of the mills are new and are well equipped with modern machines.

13. What are the reasons for higher output of sugar in Tamil Nadu?
Ans. Tamil Nadu has higher sugar output due to :

(i) Higher sucrose content of sugarcane.
(ii) Longer crushing season.
(iii) Higher per hecrare yield of sugarcane.
14. ‘The handloom industry is important for our history and development of
our country.’ Why ?
Ans. (i) The handloom industry is one of the oldest in India.
(ii) The industry today provides employment to about 10 million people and

contributes over 23 percent of the total cloth production in the country.
(iii) The number of handlooms is estimated to be about 38 lakhs and of

power looms 34 lakhs.

15. How can silk industries be bought at international standards ?
Ans. Suggestions :

(i) Systematic testing and grading of silk should be done as in developed
countries like Japan.

(ii) Modern power looms for increasing production.

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16. Why is Uttar Pradesh and Bihar called the ‘Sugar-belt of India’?
Ans. The chief reasons are :

(i) Large quantity sugarcane is produced here, specially in the Ganga-
Yamuna doab region and in the Terai region.

(ii) Availability of ample supply of coal from the nearby coalfields for
processing.

(iii) Ample supply of cheap skilled and unskilled labour.
(iv) A good network of various modes of transport (Kanpur is the main

distribution centre).
(v) Abundant supply of water for irrigation and for other purposes.

Q.III. Distinguish between :

1. Mineral-based and Agro-based industries.

Ans. Mineral-based Agro-based industries

1. Mineral-based Industries use 1. Agro-based Industries depends
minerals, both metallic and non- on the raw material produced by
metallic, as raw materials and the agricultural sector.
are based on ferrous and non-
ferrous metallurgical processes. 2. The major agro-based industries
are cotton, jute and textile
2. The major mineral based industries, sugar industry, tea
industries include iron and steel, industry, coffee industry etc.
heavy engineering and machine
tool, cement, basic and light
chemicals, fertilisers, etc.

2. Large-scale and Small-scale industries.

Ans. Large-scale industries Small-scale industries

1. Large-Scale Industries require 1. Small-Scale Industries are small

huge infrastructure and large industries managed mostly by

number of workers. private individuals.

2. They require huge capital and 2. They do not require huge capital
employ large number of workers. and employ only a few workers.

3. They produce machinery and 3. They include weaving industry,
goods on large scale like the iron food processing industry etc.
and steel industry, ship building
industry, automobile industry, etc.

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3. Heavy and Light industries.

Ans. Heavy industries Light industries

1. Heavy Industries produce capital 1. Light Industries produce goods

goods and consumer durables which which are light in weight like

are quite bulky and are therefore, cycles, sewing machines,

known as heavy industries. electronic goods, etc.

2. They require huge capital, large 2. They require less capital and

quantity of raw material, scientific less number of workers than in

knowledge, sophisticated the heavy industries.

machinery, etc.

4. Basic and Secondary industries.

Ans. Basic industries Secondary industries

1. These industries form the core 1. Secondary or consumer

industries on which other industries process the basic raw

industries depend for their materials into primary goods for

manufacturing. direct use by the consumers.

2. For example iron and steel 2. They include textile, sugar, paper
industy and petroleum industry. making etc.

5. Public Sector and Private Sector industries.

Ans. Public Sector industries Private Sector industries

1. Public Sector Industries are 1. These industries are owned and
owned and managed either by managed by an individual or
the Central Government or the group of individual.
State Government.

2. They include public utility 2. They include industries like
industries like railways, post and Reliance India Limited (RIL),
telegraph, oil refineries, heavy Infosys, Wipro etc.
engineering industries, defence
establishments, etc.

6. Sugar industry in North India and Sugar industry in Peninsular India.

Ans. Sugar industry - North India Sugar industry - Peninsular India

1. The yield per hectare is low due 1. The yield per hectare is high due
to unfavourable climatic to tropical climatic conditions.
conditions.

2. The crushing season is short in 2. The crushing season is longer in

northern India. northern India.

3. The factories are old and 3. Most of the mills are new are well

obsolete machineries are used. equipped with modern machines.

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Q.IV. Give reasons for each of the following :

1. Small-scale industries are important in India.
Ans. Small-scale industries are important in India because they can be started up

by less capital investment and provides employment to large number of people.

2. It is necessary to crush sugarcane within 24 hours of havesting.
Ans. It is necessary to crush sugarcane within 24 hours of havesting because

its sucrose content goes on decreasing with time.

3. Sericulture flourished in Karnataka.
Ans. Sericulture flourished in Karnataka because

(i) It has favourable climate for rearing silkworms.
(ii) Many mulberry trees are grown here as the climate is suitable for the

growth of mulberry trees.

4. Kolkata is an important cotton manufacturing centre even though West
Bengal is not a leading producer of cotton.

Ans. Kolkata is an important cotton manufacturing centre even though West
Bengal is not a leading producer of cotton because :
(i) Kolkata has a humid climate which helps in weaving.
(ii) Water, coal, cheap labour is easily available
(iii) Port facilities are available here.

5. India produces very little cane-sugar though it is one of the largest
producers of sugarcane in the world.

Ans. India produces very little cane-sugar though it is one of the largest producers
of sugarcane because the sucrose content of the cane in India is very low
and also the per hectare production of sugarcane in India is low.

Q.V. Long Answer Questions :

1. List the problems faced by sugar industry.
Ans. The sugarcane industry suffers from a number of problems. These are the

following :
(i) The sugarcane cultivated in India is of poor quality low yield per hectare

and low sucrose content.
(ii) The cost of production is quite high because of the inefficient and

uneconomic nature of production, low yield, short crushing season
and location of sugarcane producing areas far away from the factories.
(iii) About whole of sugarcane is harvested at the same time, as a result
there is excess pressure on factories during harvest time and some
amount of cane goes waste. This adds to the cost of production.
(iv) The supply of raw materials to sugar factories is irregular as no
plantation industry exists around the factory. Moreover, sugarcane is
grown by small farmers who sell their produce to sugar factories.
(v) The output of cane also depends on the price offered for the sugarcane.
Farmers sell the cane to the factories at prices fixed by the government.
If the prices offered are not attractive, farmers switch over to other
crops.

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(vi) The by-products of sugar like molasses and bagasse are not utilised
completely. These can be converted into other useful products to reduce
the cost of production.

(vii) Old and obsolete machinery is used in sugar industry. This should be
replaced by new technology and new machinery.

(viii) Instead of sugar, in rural areas, the demand for gur and khandsari is
more.

2. Mention the problems faced by silk industry.
Ans. The main problems being faced by the silk industry are the following:

(i) Competition from artificial silk is the main problem faced by the Indian
silk industry. Artificial silk is cheaper and better in quality.

(ii) Import of better quality and cheaper raw silk from China is also
detrimental for the Indian silk industry.

(iii) The changes in prices of raw silk badly affect both the growers and the
silk industry.

(iv) There is no systematic testing and grading of silk as in advanced
countries like Japan.

(v) The industry needs modern power looms for increasing production.

3. What factors have favoured the localisation of the cotton textile industry

in Mumbai and Ahmedabad ? OR

Why have Mumbai and Ahmedabad emerged as the important cotton
manufacturing centres ?
Ans. (i) Proximity to Raw Material : The supply of raw cotton for the mills is

supplied by the cotton producing areas of the Deccan Plateau that lie
close to these mills.
(ii) Climatic Conditions : The humid coastal climate favours the textile
making without breaking the thread.
(iii) Transport Facilities : Mumbai and Ahmedabad are well connected through
rail and road links with cotton growing areas of Maharashtra and Gujarat,
respectively and also through sea routes with the foreign markets.
(iv) Port Facilities : Mumbai is a leading port with export and import
facilities from Kandla. The location of port facilities from Kandla. The
location of ports facilitate import of capital goods, chemicals etc. and
the export of finished goods.
(v) Labour : Mumbai and Ahmedabad have enough labour force from within
or nearby states.
(vi) Capital : Both Mumbai and Ahmedabad being the financial and
commercial centres of the country have easy access to capital and
financial resources. A large number of banks and other financial
institutions exist in these cities which provide loans and other credit
facilities to the manufacturers.
(vii) Power : Power is of utmost need for the development of any industry.
The cotton mills in Mumbai are supplied electricity by the Tata
Hydroelectric system located in the Western Ghats whereas electricity
is supplied in Gujarat by the Ukai and Kakrapara hydroelectric projects.

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(viii) Market : There is a huge market for the cotton cloth in these states
as well as in the southern and coastal areas of the country because of
the hot climate which prevails in these areas. Besides internal
demand, a huge market for the India cotton cloth exists outside the
country, especially in the Middle East countries which are located
comparatively near to Mumbai and Ahmedabad.

4. What are the problems faced by Handloom and Khadi industries ?
Ans. The handloom and khadi industry faces a number of problems. These include

the following:
(i) The raw materials available for this industry are neither adequate nor

of satisfactory quality.
(ii) The craftsmen employed in this industry belong to poor families and

have no technical skills.
(iii) The technology used in these industries is old and obsolete, the goods

produced by these industries are no match to the modern fast changing
fashions and designs.
(iv) These industries have to face competition from mill-made cloth.
(v) These industries lack capital few facilities exist for providing cheap
credit.

5. What are the problems of the cotton textile industry?
Ans. The cotton textile industry suffers from the following problems :

(i) Shortage of Raw Material : There is a shortage of raw material,
particularly of long staple cotton, which is imported from Pakistan,
Kenya, Uganda, Sudan, Egypt, USA and Peru.

(ii) Sick Industrial Units : The cotton industry faces constant threat of
sickness and consequent closure, because of -
(a) uncertainly of raw material; (b) low productivity of machines and
labour; (c) increasing competition from powerloom sector; (d) lack of
modernisation; and (e) management problems. These sick units require
heavy financial investments for replacement and modernization
purposes. Many of these sick units have been taken over by the
government.

(iii) Shortage of Power : The cotton textile mills are facing acute shortage
of power. Supplies of coal are difficult to obtain and frequent cuts in
electricity and load shedding affect the industry badly. This leads to
loss of man hours, low production and loss in the mills.

6. How and why does the government take decision to encourage new

industries to be set up ? OR

Why does government try to control the location of industries ?

Ans. (i) The government has a very significant role in the industrialisation

process especially in the developing and under developed countries.

(ii) The big industries which require large infrastructure and capital are

set up by the government.

(iii) The government makes rules and regulations for running the industries

and also provides the basic facilities like land, water, electricity.

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(iv) Further, it is the government which makes policies and taken decisions
to protect and encourage indigenous industries.

7. Give reasons for sick mills and how they can be revived ?
Ans. Reason for sickness :

(i) Uncertainty of raw material.
(ii) Low productivity of machines and labour.
(iii) Lack of modernisation.
(iv) Management problems.
Revival :
(i) This sick units require heavy financial investments for replacement

and modernization purposes.
(ii) Many of these sick units have been taken over by the government.

8. Explain why sericulture is an important cottage industry in Assam.
Ans. Sericulture is an important cottage industry in Assam because :

(i) It provides sustenance to thousands of people.
(ii) About 3.43 percent of India's total silk output comes from Assam.
(iii) Assam is one of the largest producers of non-mulberry silk (tasar, eri

and muga)
(iv) It is also the only muga producing region of India.

9. What are the solutions to the problems of cotton textile industries ?
Ans. Solutions :

(i) Government should provide continuous power to industries.
(ii) India should export garments/spun cloth instead of yarn so that we

can meet local demands as well as earn more foreign exchange.
(iii) Machine should be ungraded.
(iv) Output per labourer should be increased

10. Classify the industries on the importance of finished products and
services.

Ans. (i) Key or basic industries : Most other industries depend upon them.
Eg. Iron and steal, heavy machinery, cement etc. They indicate the
economic health of the nation.

(ii) Consumer / Secondary industries : Goods are for the direct use of
the consumers. For example, Processed food, textile, paper etc.

(iii) Public utility based / Tertiary industries : These include transport,
health, / insurance, education, etc. They do not produce any goods
but provide services.

(iv) Ancillary industries : Provide spare components for other larger
industries such as automobiles, aircraft industry etc.

11. Classify the industries on the basis of the source of raw materials.
Ans. (i) Agro based : These industries procure raw materials from agriculture.

(ii) Mineral based : These industries depend on minerals for their raw
materials.

(iii) Forest based : These industries procure raw materials from forest
products. Eg.: Paper, Shellac etc.

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(iv) Animal based : These industries depend upon other living beings for
their raw materials. Eg.: Silk, woollen, dairy, leather etc.

12. Classify the industries on the basis of the quantity and cost of raw
materials and the nature of products.

Ans. (i) Heavy industries : The quantity and the cost of their raw materials is
greater, more scientific knowledge and sophisticated machinery.
Finished product is heavy and bulky. Cost of transport is more.

(ii) Light industries : They require lesser and cheaper raw materials,
lesser labour, less capital investment and less sophisticated machinery
as compared to heavy industries. Finished product is lighter. Transport
cost is less.

13. Classify the industries on the basis of size, manpower and capital
investment.

Ans. (i) Large scale : Greater workforce and large amount of investment is
involved. Eg.: Aircraft Industry, automobile, railway manufacturing,
defence equipment etc

(ii) Medium scale : Neither too big nor too small. Eg.: Paper, small textile
mills etc.

(iii) Small scale : Relatively less number of people work. Generally owned
by individuals. They require less capital. Eg.: Bicycles, food processing,
confectioneries etc.

14. Classify the industries on the basis of ownership and management.
Ans. (i) Private sector : They are owned and managed by individuals or firms.

Eg.: Tata Iron and Steel at Jamshedpur, Infosys, Wipro etc.
(ii) Public sector : These are completely owned and managed by the state

or central govt., or by their agencies. For eg.: Railways, Postal service,
BHEL, GAIL, Indian Oil Corporation etc.
(iii) Joint sector : These are owned & managed jointly by government
individuals and firms. The government may hold 26% or more of stake,
while the private promoters hold 25% and the rest is by general public
by means of share capital. Eg.: Maruti Udyog Ltd, TELCO, Automobile
Corporation of Goa Ltd., etc.
(iv) Co-operative sector : These industrial units are run with the active
cooperation of a large number of individuals or firms. Eg.: The Sugar co-
operatives in Maharashtra, Anand Co-operative Society in Gujarat etc.

15. Classify the small scale industries on the basis of location and market.
Ans. (i) Village industries : Based in villages. Cater the local needs. Raw

materials are procured locally. Eg.: Pottery, handloom, carpentry, black-
smithy etc.
(ii) Cottage industries : They are run by the household members. Locally
available resources are used. Eg. Carpet making in Kashmir, Woollen
clothing in the North-East. Products need not be sold in local market
alone.



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Chapter 15

MINERAL BASED INDUSTRY

Q.I. Very Short Answer Questions :

1. Name two products of the petroleum industry.
Ans. Two products of petroleum industry are plastics and PVC pipes.

2. Name two cities that have leading Software Companies.
Ans. Two cities that have leading Software Companies are Bengaluru and

Hyderabad.

3. Name the iron and steel plant set up with German collaboration.
Ans. The iron and steel plant set up with German collaboration was Rourkela

steel plant.

4. Name one important centre each for the production of the following :
(i) Electronic goods (ii) Petro chemicals.

Ans. (i) Electronic goods - Bengaluru
(ii) Petro chemicals - Haldia.

5. What factors affect the location of an integrated steel plant ?
Ans. Availability of raw material, water supply, power supply, labour force and

market.

6. Name two petrochemical industries.
Ans. Two petrochemical industries are Herdillia Chemicals Ltd. and Petrofils

Cooperative Limited (PCL)

7. Name the steel plants that were set up with Russian collaboration.
Ans. Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant.

8. What are Petrochemicals ? Name any two products made from
petrochemicals.

Ans. Petrochemicals are chemicals derived from petroleum, L.P.G. and coal.
Products - Synthetics, fibre, plastics.

9. Name any two products made from petrochemicals.
Ans. Fertilisers and Insecticides are made from petrochemicals.
10. From where does Rurkela Steel Plant get its iron ore ?
Ans. Sundergarh and Keonjhar district in Odisha.
11. Which river provides water to the township of Jamshedpur ?
Ans. Kharkai and Subarnarekha.
12. Name the states that provide labour force to Jamshedpur.
Ans. Bihar, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Uttar Pradesh.
13. Which seaport serves the region of Jamshedpur ?
Ans. Kolkata port.
14. Name the main raw materials used in the petrochemical industry.
Ans. Naphata or Ethylene and Benzene.

15. Name two large-scale industries dependent on iron and steel industry.
Ans. Automobile, railway locomotives.

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16. Which is the oldest and privately owned steel plant ?
Ans. Tata iron and steel plant is the oldest and privately owned steel plant in India.

17. What is ‘pig-iron’ ?
Ans. Iron derived from blast furnaces by the mixture of iron-ore, coking coal and

limestone. It contains large quantities of impurities.

18. What is ‘Wrought iron’?
Ans. It is an iron alloy with some quantity of carbon. It has fibrous appearance.

19. What is an integrated steel plant ?
Ans. An integrated steel plant is the one in which all the processes from providing

raw materials, basic fuels, water supply, etc. to the conversion to steel,
rolling etc., are all done at one place.

20. Where is the petrochemical plant of The Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.
(IPCL) located? What sarelhe main products of this unit?

Ans. It is located at Panipat and in Gujarat. The main products are- Benzene,
purified Tereptalic Acid and Naptha.

21. Where is the petrochemical plant of Petrofils Co-operatives Ltd. (IPCL)
located? What is the main product of this unit?

Ans. It is located at Vadodara. The main product is Polyester yarn.

22. Where is the petrochemical plant of the Bongaigaon petrochemicals
Ltd. located? What is the main product of this unit?

Ans. It is located at Bongaigaon in Assam. The main product is Polyester fibre.

23. Where is the petrochemical plant of Haldia Pertochemicals Ltd. located?
What are the main products of this unit?

Ans. It is at Haldia in West Bengal. The main products are Benzene, butadiene
and cyclopentane.

24. Where is the petrochemical plant of National Organic Chemicals
Industries Ltd. located ? What are the main product of this unit?

Ans. It is located at Belapur near Mumbai. The main products are PVC pipe,
Benzene and ethylene.

25. Where is the petrochemical plant of Reliance Petrochemicals located?
What is the main product of this unit ?

Ans. It is located at Hazira in Gujarat. The main product is Polyester fibres.

26. What are the main products manufactured by Indian Telephone Industry
(ITI), Bengaluru?

Ans. The main products are varieties of telephone equipment for communication,
railways, defence, automatic telephone switching systems, teleprinter
exchanges and long distance transmission systems.

27. What are the main products manufactured by Bharat Electronics Ltd.
(BEL), Bengaluru?

Ans. The main products are equipment for Meteorological department, defence,
radio communication, radar, fire control systems for tanks and various
kinds of optical systems etc.

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28. What are the main products manufactured by Electronic Corporation of
India Ltd. (ECIL), Hyderabad?

Ans. The main products are equipment, related to Computer technology,
agricultural technology, nuclear technology and medical fields.

29. Which organization is the apex body of India’s space science programme?
Ans. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the apex body.

30. Which cities are the centres of the Indian Entertainment technology?
Ans. They are Mumbai, Hyderabad, Pune, Chennai and Kolkata

31. What is the role of manganese in the process of making steel?
Ans. Manganese is used for converting pig iron into steel through the process of

deoxidation. It gives toughness to steel.

Q.II. Short Answer Questions :

1. Which is the largest mineral based industry in India ? Why is it called a
basic industry ?

Ans. The largest mineral based industry in India is iron and steel industry.
(i) Iron and steel industry is known as the basic industry as it forms the
backbone of the modern industry.
(ii) It is used to manufacture industrial machinery, railway tracks, dams,
etc. which helps in industrialization and economic development of the
country.

2. Define a mini steel plant.
Ans. (i) Mini steel plants usually have smaller operational units as compared

to the integrated steel plants.
(ii) They use cheaply available scrap iron in electric furnaces, which cater

the local market, and hence produce fewer items like stainless steel,
alloy, steel, etc.

3. With which large scale industry would you identify the following

manufacturing centres ?

(i) Kanpur (ii) Rourkela (iii) Pune (iv) Mangalore

Ans. (i) Kanpur - Sugar industry

(ii) Rourkela- Iron and steel plant

(iii) Pune - Cotton textile industry

(iv) Mangalore - Silk industry

4. State two reasons for the growing importance in the status of
petrochemical industries.

Ans. The reasons for the growing importance of the petrochemical industry are
as follows :
(i) The petrochemical products do not depend on agricultural raw
materials, hence there is no fluctuation in production due to climatic
factors.
(ii) The petrochemical products like plastics, PVC pipes, synthetic fibres
are cheaper and more durable.

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5. Name one integrated iron and steel plant in the private sector. Where
does it obtain its iron and coal from ?

Ans. Tata Iron and Steel company. It obtains iron ore from Singhbhum in
Jharkhand and Mayurbhanj and Bonai in Odisha. Coal is secured from
Jharia in Jharkhand.

6. Name two raw materials used in the petrochemical industry and state
two advantages of petrochemical products.

Ans. Naphtha, Propylene, Ethylene and Benzene are the raw materials used in
the petrochemical industry.
Advantages :
(i) They are durable and cheaper.
(ii) They are not dependent on agricultural raw materials. Hence there is
no fluctuation in production due to climatic factors.

7. What is the significance of the Electronics Industry in recent times ?
Ans. (i) The Electronics Industry covers a wide range of products including

television, transistor, cellular telecom, computer, defence, railways,
meteorological equipment, space research as well as medical
equipments.
(ii) It has revolutionized the life style of the Indian masses in the recent past.

8. Explain three reasons as to why there is a large concentration of iron
and steel plants in the Chhota Nagpur Region.

Ans. Three reasons for large concentration of iron and steel plants in the Chhota
Nagpur Region are :
(i) Availability of raw iron ore from Singbhum and others regions.
(ii) Availability of coal for power from Damodar valley.
(iii) Availability of cheap labour from highly populated areas of Bihar, Odisha
and West Bengal.

9. Why has the electronics industry grown in importance ?
Ans. (i) The electronic products like telephone and internet services have made

communication easy and fast, so the demand for such commodities is high.
(ii) Industrial and technological development has also increased the

demand for electronic products.
(iii) It does wonders in the field of entertainment, defence equipment and

medical diagnosis.

10. Mention three advantages that a mini steel plant has over an integrated
steel plant.

Ans. The advantages are :
(i) Mini steel plants use electric furnaces thus conserving coking coal.
(ii) They require less capital investments. Since they are located in
industrial towns so transport cost is reduced.
(iii) It is ecofriendly, does not require large capital investment.

11. Give two geographical reasons for the growth of IT industries in Bengaluru.
Ans. The growth of IT industries in Bengaluru is due to :

(i) Readily available world class IT infrastructure.
(ii) High concentration of IT companies and quality research and

development institutions.

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12. Name the basic raw materials used in Iron and steel industry.
Ans. (i) The main raw materials used in iron and steel industry are iron ore,

manganese, limestone, silica, chromate, feldspar, scrap iron, flux and fuel.
(ii) Coking coal obtained from Jharia, Raniganj, Bokaro, Giridih and Korba

is used as fuel.
(iii) Manganese is used for hardening of steel and also for removing

impurities.

13. How is it advantageous for a mini steel plant.
(a) to use electric furnaces.
(b) not to be located close to the location of the raw material.

Ans. (a) They are dependent on electric power so they do not cause pollution.
(b) Since mini steel plants use scrap iron from integrated steel plants
they need not be located near the source of raw material.

14. Why are traditional raw materials being replaced by petrochemical

products ? OR

‘Traditional raw materials are being replaced by petro chemical product.’
Give reason.
Ans. (i) Petrochemicals are cost-effective, economically stable, cheaper as they

are produced on a mass scale.
(ii) Its raw material are easily available, not dependent on agricultural

raw material as in the case of jute.
(iii) Therefore, traditional raw materials like wood, glass and metals are

being replaced by petrochemical products.

15. From where does the integrated steel plant at Bhilai get its requirement
of iron and coal ?

Ans. (i) Iron ore deposits are supplied from Dalli Rajhara mines.
(ii) Coal is obtained from Bokaro, Kargati and Jharia fields in Jharkhand
and Korba in Chhattisgarh.

16. Name four large-scale industries dependent on iron and steel industry.

Ans. Four large-scale industries dependent on iron and steel industry:

(i) Automobile industry, (ii) Ship Building industry,

(iii) Machine tool industry, and (iv) Railway Locomotive industry.

17. Name two major steel plants in Public Sector.

Ans. The major steel plants in public sector are as follows :

(i) The Bhilai Steel Plant, (ii) The Rourkela Steel Plant,

(iii) The Durgapur Steel Plant, (iv) Bokaro Steel Plant,

(v) The Indian Iron and Steel Company (IISCO), and

(vi) Visveswaraya Iron and Steel Limited (VISL)

18. What two advantages do the Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant have over the
other Steel Plants in the public sector?

Ans. Two advantages of Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant, over the other Steel Plant
are :
(a) It is a major export oriented steel plant and takes full advantage of its
coastal location.
(b) It is the second largest producer of iron and steel in the country.

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19. Identify the following iron and steel plants :
(i) The steel plant built the German co-operation.
(ii) The integrated steel plant with an advantage of coastal location.

Ans. (i) Rourkela steel plant (Odisha).
(ii) Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant.

Q.III. Give reasons for each of the following :

1. Mini steel plants cause less pollutions than integrated steel plants.
Ans. Mini steel plants work through electric furnaces causing less pollution

whereas the integrated steel plants use blast furnaces where coke are fed
continuously to smelt the iron ore, causing huge pollution.

2. The electronic industry has made an impact on both entertainment and
education.

Ans. Electronic industry with mass scale integration process has produced
computers, servers, displays, TVs and cameras, telephone exchanges etc.,
to enable capture and broadcast news, advertisements, cinema, educational
programs etc., to large section of the population over the country and
overseas, thus revolutionizing the life style of the Indian masses.

Q.IV. Long Answer Questions :
1. Mention the factors which have helped Jamshedpur to develop into
India’s major centre of steel production.

Ans. (i) Jamshedpur is most ideally located with respect to iron ore, flux and
fuel supplies which are obtained within 175 km of it.

(ii) Kharkai and Subarnarekha rivers which never run dry throughout the
year supply a continuous stream of water for cooling purposes.

(iii) Availability of market which is not only an important market for iron
and steel goods but also has facilities for export of finish goods.

2. Why is the Government of India promoting and planning to set up more
mini steel plants in India ?

Ans. The Government of India is promoting and planning to set up more mini
steel plants because these plants have the following advantages:
(i) They use scrap iron which is easily available and is comparatively
cheap.
(ii) They are dependent on electric power so they do not cause pollution.
(iii) They do not require heavy investment.
(iv) Since mini steel plants use scrap iron from integrated steel plants
they need not be located near the source of raw material.
(v) These plants can meet the demands of local market and reduce
pressure on large plants. Some of the mini steel plants are located at
Kanpur, Jaipur, Hyderabad, Delhi, Pune and Ranch

3. What are the problems of iron and steel industry in India ? OR

‘India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world yet
it is not able to perform to its full potential.’ Explain.
Ans. Although India is an important Iron and Steel producing country in the
world, yet it is not able to perform to its full potential due to the following
problems :

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(i) Capital Intensive : Iron and Steel Industry is a capital intensive
industry, i.e., it requires huge amount of capital. Besides, iron and
steel plants have a long gestation period.

(ii) Obsolete Technology : Iron and Steel plants established after India
attained independence, are not working to their full potential as the
machinery being used is outdated. Consequently, the iron and steel
industry is lacking behind the advanced countries in terms of new
technological inputs.

(iii) Limited Availability of Coking Coal : Though India has huge deposits
of high grade iron ore, her coal reserves, especially high grade coking
coal, used for smelting iron ore are limited. Consequently, many steel
plants are forced to import coking coal. For example, steel plant at
Vishakhapatnam has to import coal from Australia.

(iv) Sick Industrial Units : Due to the inadequate supply of power and
sharp increase in the cost of raw materials, many small iron and steel
plants are either experiencing sickness or have been closed down.

(v) Control of Prices : The government has fixed price for iron and steel
which leaves little margin of profit for the manufacturers.

(vi) Inefficiently Managed Public Sector : Many iron and steel plants in
the Public Sector are facing strikes, lockouts, energy crisis caused by
heavy investment on social overheads, poor labour relations, inefficient
management and underutilisation of capacity.

(vii) Heavy Demand : Even at low per capita consumption rate, demand for
iron and steel is increasing rapidly. To meet this increasing demand,
large quantity of iron and steel has to be imported.

4. List the three basic steps involved in steel making.
Ans. Iron ore is always found with some impurities like sulphur, silica,

phosphorus, lime, etc. So the impurities have to be removed to get pure
iron ore used for making steel.The following process is used for converting
iron ore into steel :
(i) Ore Reduction : The process of ore reduction is carried out in a blast

furnace where the ore and coke are fed continuously from the tap.
Small quantities of limestone and dolomite are also added as flux to
help combine the impurities in the ore as slag. This slag floats on the
molten iron and can be easily separated from it. Molten iron is collected
at the base of the furnace at regular intervals. The product so obtained
is known as pig iron. This pig iron can be converted into wrought iron,
steel and cast iron.
(ii) Steel Melting Furnaces : The pig iron obtained after reducing the ore
contains upto 5 per cent of carbon and other impurities. To convert pig
iron into steel, impurities are removed through deoxidation. Hardening
materials including carbon are added to get the desired quality.
(iii) Rolling Mills : The steel is then cast into ingots and rolled into different
sizes.

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MAJOR INDUSTRIES IN INDIA

INDUSTRY STATES AND MAIN CENTRES OF PRODUCTION

Iron and steel 1. Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) – Jamshedpur, Jharkhand
2. Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant – Durg, Chhattisgarh
3. Rourkela Steel Plant – Sundargarh, Odisha.
4. Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant – Vishakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
5. Bokaro Steel Plant – Hazaribagh, Jharkhand.
6. Durgapur Steel Plant – Burdwan, West Bengal.
7. Indian Iron and Steel Company (IISCO) – IISCO Plants are located

at Burnpur, Hirapur and Kulti, near Asansol, West Bengal.
8. Vishvesvaraya Iron and Steel Limited – Shimoga, Karnataka.
9. Vijayanagar Steel Plant – Bellary, Karnataka.
10. Salem Steel Plant – Salem, Tamil Nadu.

Petrochemical 1. Herdillia Chemicals Ltd. – Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
Industry 2. National Organic Chemicals Industries Ltd. – Mumbai,

Maharashtra.
3. Petrofils Cooperative Limited (PCL) – Three plants located at

Vadodara and Naldhari in Gujarat.
4. Indian Petrochemical Corporation Ltd. – Vadodara, Gujarat.
5. The Bongaigaon Petrochemicals Ltd. – Bongaigaon, Assam.
6. The Reliance Industries : Hazira, Gujarat.
7. Haldia Petrochemicals Ltd. : Haldia, West Bengal.
8. The Indian Oil Corporation : Three plants in Gujarat and Panipat.

Electronics 1. The Indian Telephone Industries (ITI) – Bengaluru, Karnataka;
2. The Electronics Corporation of India Ltd. (ECIL) – Hyderabad,

Andhra Pradesh;
3. The Bharat Electronics Ltd. (BEL) – Bengaluru, Karnataka.

Space 1. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) – Bengaluru,
Technology Karnataka.

2. Satellite Launching Station – Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
3. National Remote Sensing Agency – Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh.
4. Chandrayaan-I – India's First Scientific Mission to Moon.

Software Bengaluru and Hyderabad.
Industry

Entertainment Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and Pune

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Chapter 16

TRANSPORT

Q.I. Very Short Answer Questions :

1. What was the first road from Peshawar to Kolkata known as?
Ans. The first road from Peshawar to Kolkata was known as Grand Trunk (GT)

2. Name the organisation responsible for the development and maintenance
of highways in India.

Ans. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) constituted in 1988 is
responsible for the development, maintenance and management of National
Highways.

3. Why is road transport favoured in the northern plains of India?
Ans. North Indian plains have a flat topography and thus construction of roads is

easier.

4. Name the cities which have Metro rail network.
Ans. Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Bengaluru

5. What is an EMU?
Ans. Suburban trains that handle commuter traffic are mostly Electric Multiple

Unit (EMU).

6. How many zones do the Indian Railways have?
Ans. The Indian Railways have 17 zones .

7. What is the name of the National Airlines of India?
Ans. Air India.

8. Name a port on the east coast which is often hit by cyclones during the
months of October and November.

Ans. Vishakhapatnam / Chennai.

9. On which river and between which two places does the National Waterway
No.2 lie?

Ans. Dhubri-Pandu (Guwahati)-Tezpur-Neamati-Dibrugarh-Sadiya on river
Brahmaputra.

10. Name the cities connected by Golden Quadrilateral.
Ans. Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai cities connected by Golden

Quadrilateral.

11. Where was the first railway line laid ?
Ans. Railways were first introduced to India in 1853 when a line was constructed

from Mumbai to Thane covering a distance of 34 km.

12. What are the chief means of transportation in India?
Ans. The chief means of transportation in India are railways, roadways, airways,

waterways.

13. When and where did the air transport begin in India?
Ans. The air transport began in India between Allahabad and Naini in 1911.

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14. Give the width of broad gauge, metre gauge and narrow gauge.
Ans. Broad gauge - 1.676 m., Metre gauge - 1m and Narrow gauge - 0.762 m.

15. State the features of Ahmedabad-Vadodara Expressway.
Ans. This expressway was India's first 4-lane and dual carriageway expressway

project and includes minor bridges and canal crossing and interchanges at
Nadiad and Anand.

16. State the features of Delhi-Gurgaon Expressway.
Ans. Some special features of this highway are SOS telephones at every 1.5 km.

CCTV surveillance, has reduced travel time between Gurgaon and Delhi
from 60 mins to approx 20 mins.

17. State the role of Rural roads.
Ans. Rural roads provide vital links by moving the agricultural produce and the

finished products of small-sale industries from the producing centres to
the marketing centres.

18. Explain why India has an extensive network of waterways ?
Ans. India is endowed with an rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks and a long

coastline accessible through the seas and the oceans. So we can say that
India has an extensive network of waterways.

19. Name the following :
(i) The riverline port in India.
(ii) The deppest landlocked port.
(iii) The oldest artificial port on the east coast.
(iv) Port which is a free trade zone.
(v) Port which is a public limited company

Ans. (i) The riverline port in India - Kolkata
(ii) The deppest landlocked port - Vishakhapatnam
(iii) The oldest artificial port on the east coast - Chennai
(iv) Kandla Port
(v) Ennore Port

Q.II. Short Answer Questions :

1. What is a National Highway?
Ans. (i) The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the Central

Government are known as the National Highways.
(ii) These roads connect state capitals, important cities, major ports and

industrial centres.

2. Name the two major projects undertaken by NHAI.
Ans. Two major projects undertaken by NHAI

(i) Golden Quadrilateral
(ii) North-South and East-West Corridors.

3. What is an Expressway?
Ans. (i) Express Highways constitute the most significant features of land

transportation.
(ii) These highways are cemented six-lane roads, designed to provide

smooth high- speed movement without any on-road obstacles like traffic
or speed breakers.

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4. Why is road transport in India considered more useful than rail transport?
State two reasons in support of your answer.

Ans. (i) Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of the railway line.
(ii) Roads can be constructed even in the areas of difficult terrain and
where railways lines do not exist.
(iii) Roads offer door to door service and thereby, reduce the cost of loading
and unloading. Roads also help farmers to move their perishable
products quickly to the markets.
(iv) The movement of goods is safer through road transport as the chances
of pilferage are lesser than in the railways.

5. What is the Golden Quadrilateral? Mention any two ways in which it
will help in the economic development of the country.

Ans. The Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) is the largest express highway project in
India. It connects India's four largest metropolies: Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata
and Chennai and thus, forms a quadrilateral.
The main economic benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Project are the
following:
(i) This highway interconnects many major cities and ports
(ii) It provides an impetus to truck transport throughout India

6. Mention any three problems being faced by the Indian Railways.
Ans. (i) Train tracks cannot be laid in every industrial region and trains have

to travel to a station, where the cargo is loaded from one form of
transportation to another. Most industrial locations have roads leading
to them, but not all of them have train tracks leading to them.
(ii) The trains which run on coal produce lot of air and noise pollution.
(iii) Trains cannot cross the oceans. They are limited to land travel and
cannot normally haul products from one continent to another.

7. Give one advantage and one disadvantage of air transport.
Ans. Advantage of air transport.

It is the fastest and comfortable mode of transport. It connects the far
flung and remote areas of the country.
Disadvantage of air transport.
Air transport is costly.

8. What are the two prerequisites of waterways to be navigable?
Ans. (i) Rivers, canals, backwaters and creeks which are deep enough to allow

the ships and boats to navigate safely.
(ii) These waterways must also be free of barriers such as waterfalls and

rapids.

9. Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of inland waterways.
Ans. Advantage of inland waterways

Inland waterways are the cheapest means of transport in carrying heavy
goods and passangers.

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Disadvantage of inland waterways
Inland waterways can be utilised only where there are rivers, canals etc.
thus their use is limited.

10. Give two reasons why peninsular rivers are not ideal for navigation.
Ans. (i) Peninsular rivers are seasonal as they are rain-fed.

(ii) These rivers are comparatively shorter than the rivers of north India.
(iii) These rivers are marked by a number of waterfalls.
11. Name two areas where helicopter services may be used?
Ans. (i) Hilly terrain of Himalayas and
(ii) Offshore drilling of Mumbai High.

12. Give two advantages and two disadvantages of waterways.
Ans. Advantages of water transport are :

(i) It is the cheapest means of transport.
(ii) It is most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky material.
Disadvantages of water transport are :
(i) It depends on weather conditions.
(ii) It needs long travelling hours which causes sea sickness.

13. Name the following : – Kolkata
1. Headquarters of Eastern Railway – Kandla
2. Tidal Port – Blue Aviation Pvt. Ltd.
3. Cargo Airlines – Mumbai
4. Biggest Port in India

14. What are the government initiatives taken to maintain hindrance-free
traffic on National Highways?

Ans. (i) The traffic on National Highways has been growing due to
industrialisation in the country. The Government is taking steps to
utilise latest technologies and improved management techniques to
provide hindrance-free traffic movement.

(ii) This is being done by widening roads. Grade separation, construction
of bypasses, bridges, rail-road crossings, etc.

15. What is the role of NHAI ?
Ans. (i) NHAI is currently undertaking the developmental activities under

National Highways Development Project (NHDP) in phases.
(ii) NHAI is also responsible for implementing other projects on National

Highways, primarily roads connectivity to major ports in India.

16. State the role of Border Roads.
Ans. (i) The Border Road Organisation (BRO) was set up in 1960 for

strengthening defence preparedness and accelerating economic
development through improvement of roads along the northern and
north-eastern boundary of the country.
(ii) Apart from the construction and maintenance of roads in strategically
sensitive areas, the BRO undertakes snow clearance in high altitude
areas and construction of airfields, buildings and permanent bridges.

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17. How are railways beneficial to man ?
Ans. (i) The railways constitute the principal mode of transportation for freight

and passenger.
(ii) It brings together people from the farthest corners of the country for

conducting business, sightseeing, pilgrimage, education, etc.

18. State the role of Indian railways. OR

How do railways help in acceleration the development of industry and
agriculture ?
Ans. (i) Indian Railways carry a huge variety of goods ranging from mineral

ores, fertilizers, petrochemicals, agricultural produce, iron and steel.
(ii) Ports and major urban areas have their own freight lines.
(iii) Thus, railways help in accelerating the development of industry and

agriculture.

19. How are the railways classified on the basis of track.
Ans. Based on the width of the track, the Indian Railways are divided into three

categories:
(i) Board Gauge : The distance between rails is 1.676 metre.
(ii) Metre Gauge : The distance between rails is one metre.
(iii) Narrow Gauge : The distance between rails is 0.762 metre and 0.610

metre.

20. Explain the role of roads in the economic development of the country.
Ans. (i) Roads offer door to door service and thereby, reduce the cost of loading

and unloading. Roads also help farmers to move their perishable
products quickly to the markets.
(ii) The movement of goods is safer through road transport as the chances
of pilferage are lesser than in the railways.
(iii) Roads transport supplements the other modes of transportation. It
provides link between railway stations and ports and their hinterlands.

21. Give three economic benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Project.
Ans. The main economic benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Project are the

following:
(i) This highway interconnects many major cities and ports.
(ii) It provides an impetus to truck transport throughout India.
(iii) It enables the industrial growth of all small towns through which it

passes.
(iv) It provides vast opportunities for transport of agricultural produce from

the hinterland to major cities and ports for export.

22. Explain how the Indian rail network is one of the largest and busiest
networks in the world.

Ans. (i) At present, Indian rail network is one of the largest and busiest rail
networks in the world, transporting over 18 million passengers and
more than 2 million tonnes of freight daily.

(ii) It is world’s largest employer, with more than 1.4 million employees.

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(iii) The railways traverse the length and breadth of the country, covering
7,030 stations over a total route length of more than 63,974 kilometres.

23. Discuss the contribution of Air India in the air transport of India.
Ans. (i) Air India manages the entire air transport in India.

(ii) It serves 50 domestic destinations, 39 internationals routes and serves
over 100 cities

24. What are district roads ?
Ans. (i) District roads are important roads within a district connecting areas

of production with markets.
(ii) They also connect small towns with one another or with state and

National Highways.
(iii) These roads also connect Taluka headquarters and rural areas to

District Headquarters within the state.

25. Give details about rural roads in India.
Ans. (i) The rural roads in India form a substantial portion of the road network.

(ii) There roads constitute about 80 percent of the total road length in the
country.

(iii) They provide vital links by moving the agricultural provide and the
finished products of small-scale industries from the producing centres
to the marketing centres.

26. Give any three features of the Yamuna Expressway.
Ans. (i) It provides a fast moving corridor to minimise the travel time and

connects with main townships and commercial centres on the eastern
side of Yamuna river.
(ii) It can reduce the travel time between Delhi and Agra to two hours.
(iii) It enables farmers in Western Uttar Pradesh to move their agricultural,
horticulture and dairy products to major cities.

27. Name the following :
(i) An important inland waterways of north east India.
(ii) One expressway with its terminal cities.
(iii) A major port which is not located on the sea coast and is at a
distance of 128 km. from the coast along the banks of a river.

Ans. (i) National waterways No. 2
Brahmaputra River - between Sadiua and Dhubri (891 km)

(ii) The North South corridor linking Srinagar and Kanyakumari.
(iii) Haldia.

Q.III. Distinguish between :

1. Broad Gauge and Metre Gauge

Ans. Broad Gauge Metre Gauge

1. The distance between rails is 1. The distance between rails is one

1.676 metre. metre.

2. The total route length of broad 2. The total route length of metre

gauge lines is 54,257 km. gauge lines is 7.180 km.

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2. National Highways and State Highways

Ans. National Highways State Highways

1. They are constructed and 1. They are constructed and

maintained by the Central maintained by the State

Government. Government.

2. These are main highways 2. These highways provide linkages

connecting major ports, state with the National Highways,

capitals, large industrial and district headquaters, important

tourist centres throughout the towns, tourist centres and minor

country. parts within the state.

3. They facilitate inter-state 3. They provide connectivity to

transport and movement of important towns and cities as

defence personnel and materials well as National Highways or

in strategic area. state highways of the

neighbouring states.

3. Inland Waterways and Oceanic Waterways.

Ans. Inland Waterways Oceanic Waterways

1. Waterways that are connected 1. Waterways that connect different
through navigable rivers, canals, countries of the world through
backwaters and creeks. sea and oceanic routes.

2. Passenger boats, small cargo 2. Cruise liners, luxury passenger
ships etc. are mostly handled ships, cargo from different
here. countries are handled here.

4. A Port and a Harbour.

Ans. Port Harbour

1. Ports are man-made commercial 1. Harbour are natural or created

places built along the coastline. places, connecting a piece of land

with a large waterbody, which

serve as ports.

2. The location of ports is chosen 2. Natural harbours are surrounded

along the coastline where water by land on most sides but have

is navigable and is close to land an entrance point to the sea.

facilities and infrastructure.

3. The main purpose of ports is 3. Harbours are utilised mainly for

loading and unloading of cargo providing safe parking or

ships. anchorage to ships.

4. Ports are very large with 4. When natural harbours have all

buildings and waterhouses for the facilities of ports they serve

strong goods and well-built as ports. For example, Mumbai

transport system. is a natural harbour and also the

biggest port in India.

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Q.IV. Give reasons for each of the following :

1. The Ganga is navigable from its mouth right upto Allahabad.
Ans. The river Ganga is navigable from its mouth right upto Allahabad because

(i) Ganga is a perennial river fed by monsoon rains in the rainy seasons
and melting at snow on the lofty mountain during dry season.

(ii) It is joined by Yamuna, Son, Ramaganga, Gomti, Ghagra, Gandak and
Kosi which increase the depth of water in Ganga, which is more than
10m upto Allahabad.

(iii) The slope of Ganga is gradual and the river bed is free from stones and silt.

2. The Peninsular rivers are not navigable.
Ans. Peninsular rivers are seasonal as they are rain-fed. Second, these are

comparetively shorter than the rivers of north India. Third, these rivers
are marked by a number of waterfalls.

3. The deltas on the east coast are not suitable for harbours.
Ans. A harbours requires deep and indented coastline. The Eastern Coastal

Plains are wide and have gentle slopes so the deltas on the east coast are
not suitable for harbours.

4. Mumbai is a harbour and a port.
Ans. Mumbai is a natural harbour and it has all the facilities of a port such as

warehouse for storing goods, well built transport system etc. Hence Mumbai
is a harbour and a port.

Q.V. Long Answer Questions :

1. What is the importance of transport ?
Ans. (i) Transportation helps in the better utilisation of the resources of the

backward areas by linking them with the more advanced areas.
(ii) It aids in the process of industrialisation and urbanisation.
(iii) It removes scarcity of goods during any crisis.
(iv) It helps in minimising the effects of natural disasters.
(v) It brings in homogeneity and national integration in thought and culture

through easy movement of people and bringing them in contact with
one another.

2. What are the National Highways ? State their importance.
Ans. (i) The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the Central

Government are known as the National Highways.
(ii) These are main highways running through the length and breadth of

the country connecting major ports, state capitals, large industrial
and tourist centres.
(iii) They facilitate inter-state transport and movement of defence personnel
and materials in strategic areas.

3. State the features of Yamuna Expressway.
Ans. Yamuna Expressway is a six-lane, 165 km long, controlled-access

expressway which connects Greater Noida with Agra.

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The main features of Yamuna Expressway are the following:
(i) It provides fast moving corridor to minimise the travel time and connects

with main townships/commercial centres on the eastern side of
Yamuna river.
(ii) It has reduced the travel time between Delhi and Agra to two hours.
(iii) It runs through the heart of cities like Faridabad, Ballabhgarh and
Palwal and had reduced congestion on National Highway 2.
(iv) It enables farmers in Western Uttar Pradesh to move their agricultural,
horticulture and dairy products to major cities.
(v) Rest rooms are located after every toll plaza but there are no petrol pumps.
(vi) It has telephone booths and CCTV cameras installed at every 5 kms.
(vii) Mobile radars have been installed to ensure that commuters comply
with minimum and maximum speed limits.

4. State the features of Mumbai-Pune Expressway.
Ans. (i) Six-lane concrete highway with 7m-wide divider. An extra lane provided

on each side as a hard shoulder;
(ii) Separate tunnels for traffic in each direction;
(iii) Complete fencing to avoid humans/animals crossing the expressway;
(iv) No two-wheelers, three-wheelers, or tractor vehicles allowed; and
(v) Provision of petrol pumps, hotels, workshops, toilets, emergency phones,

first aid, breakdown vans, etc.

5. State the importance of State Highways.
Ans. (i) The State Highways are constructed and maintained by the State

governments.
(ii) These highways provide linkages with the National Highways, district,

headquarter, important towns, tourist centres and minor ports within
the state.
(iii) Besides, these arterial routes provide connectivity to important towns
and cities as well as with National Highways or State Highways of the
neighbouring states.

6. Why are district roads important ?
Ans. (i) District roads are important roads within a district connecting areas

of production with markets.
(ii) They also connect small towns with one another or with the State

Highways and National Highways.
(iii) It also connects Taluka headquarters and rural areas to District

headquarters within the state.

7. List the advantages of roadways.
Ans. (i) It is through the roads that every village and hamlet can be reached.

(ii) Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of the railway line.
(iii) Roads can be constructed even in the areas of difficult terrain and

where railways lines do not exist.

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(iv) Roads offer door to door service and thereby, reduce the cost of loading
and unloading. Roads also help farmers to move their perishable
products quickly to the markets.

(v) The movement of goods is safer through road transport as the chances
of pilferage are lesser than in the railways.

(vi) Roads transport supplements the other modes of transportation.
It provides link between railway stations and ports and their
hinterlands.

8. State the disadvantages of roadways.
Ans. (i) Many roads are unsurfaced and therefore, not suitable for regular

vehicular traffic.
(ii) Roads are not properly maintained. Poor roads surfaces cause heavy

loss in wear and tear of vehicles.
(iii) There are multiple check-posts, toll tax and octroi duties collection

points on the roads which bring down the speed of the traffic, waste
time and cause irritation to the commuters.
(iv) Many roads have inadequate capacity, weak payment, unbridged level
crossings and lack of waysides amenities and safety measures.
(v) The traffic on Indian roads, especially in cities, is too high. Further,
same road is used by all types of vehicles - high speed cars, trucks, two-
wheelers, animal driven carts, cyclists and even by animals. This
increases traffic tie and causes congestion. Pollution and road accidents.

9. Give the advantages of railways.
Ans. Railways constitute one of the most efficient and cost-effective forms of

transportation. It has the following advantages:
(i) Railways help in the easy movement of bulky goods and perishable

commodities to distant places.
(ii) Railways transport raw materials to the production units and finished

goods to the markets.
(iii) Railways have brought the villages closer to the cities and have helped

to transfer new ideas and innovations to the rural areas.
(iv) Railways help in reducing sufferings during natural calamities.
(v) Railways act as an integrating force, knitting the whole country into

one whole with its huge network running throughout the country.
(vi) Railways facilitate easy movement of police, troops and defence

equipment.
(vii) Railways provide comfortable journey as the trains have enough space

to stretch legs and move in the corridors. At night, one can sleep
comfortably on the berths provided in the trains.
(viii) Rail travel is safer and comfortable for families with babies and elders.

10. State the disadvantages of railways.
Ans. Rail transport has the following disadvantages :

(i) Rail transport lacks flexibility of routes. Train tracks cannot be laid in
every region of the country like in the hilly areas or remote forested areas.

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(ii) Train travel can be very long and tedious, especially when compared
to air travel.

(iii) Train tracks cannot be laid in every industrial region and trains have
to travel to a station, where the cargo is loaded from one form of
transportation to another. Most industrial locations have roads leading
to them, but not all of them have train tracks leading to them.

(iv) The trains which run on coal produce lot of air and noise pollution.
(v) Trains cannot cross the oceans. They are limited to land travel and

cannot normally haul products from one continent to another.

11. What is the significance of an efficient transport system?
Ans. (i) Transportation helps in the better utilisation of the resources of the

backward areas by linking them with the more advanced areas.
(ii) It aids in the process of industrialisation and urbanisation.
(iii) It removes scarcity of goods during any crisis.
(iv) It helps in minimising the effects of natural disasters.
(v) It brings in homogeneity and national integration in thought and culture

through easy movement of people and bringing them in contact with
one another.

12. Give two advantages and two disadvantages of air transport.
Ans. The advantages of airways are the following:

(i) It is the fastest and comfortable mode of transport. It connects the far
flung and remote areas of the country.

(ii) The speed and ease with which aeroplanes can across mountain
barriers, sandy deserts, large expanses of water or forests make the
air transport indispensable.

(iii) Air transport is of particular importance during natural calamities. It
is used to airlift people from the affected areas and to air-drop food,
medicines and other necessary things to calamity affected people.

The main disadvantages of airways are the following :
(i) Air transport is costly.
(ii) It depends on weather conditions. Flights are often delayed due to bad

weather.
(iii) Air transport is run on petroleum which is a non-renewable source of

energy.
(iv) Air transport can carry small tonnage but it has high freight charges.

13. Explain the role of oceanic waterways in the transport sector of India’s
economy.

Ans. (i) India has a long coastline of 7517 km. forming one of the biggest
peninsulas in the world. It has 12 major ports and 187 minor and
intermediate ports.

(ii) Ocean routes handle 95 percent of India’s foreign trade by volume and
about 70 percent by value.

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(iii) Besides international trade, these routes are also used for
transportation between the islands and the rest of the country.

(iv) This oceanic waterways constitute an important role in the transport
sector of India’s economy.

14. With reference to Railways, answer the following questions:
(i) Explain how the Indian rail networks is one of the largest and busiest
network in the world.
(ii) Describe the three categories of track system followed in India. (c)
(iii) Railways binds the economic and cultural life of the country. Justify
this statement giving examples.

Ans. (i) By 1947, the year of India's independence, there were forty-two rail
systems. In 1951 the systems were nationalised as one unit, becoming
one of the largest networks in the world. Indian Railways operate both
long distance and suburban rail system.

(ii) Based on the width of the track, the Indian Railways are divided into
three categories :
Broad Gauge : The distance between rails is 1.676 metre. The total
route length of broad gauge lines is 49,820 km which accounts for
74.14 per cent of the total length of rail route in the country. Almost
all the main routes are broad gauge. Broad gauge system links major
ports of India with the interior towns and Industrial centres and handles
85 per cent of the total goods traffic in terms of tonnes-km.
Broad gauge railway line on the west coastal lowland known as the
Konkan Railway Line, is an engineering marvel of the Indian Railways.
It is 760 km long rail route connecting Roha in Maharashtra to
Mangalore in Karnataka. It crosses 146 rivers, streams, nearly 2000
bridges and 91 tunnels. It also passes through 6.5 km long tunnel
which is Asia's largest tunnel. The States of Maharashtra, Karnataka
and Goa are partners in this project.
Metre Gauge : The distance between rails is one metre. It covers
10,621 km and accounts for 21.02 per cent of the total route length.
Narrow Gauge : The distance between rails is 0.76 metre and 0.610
metre. It covers 2,886 km and accoun for 4.94 per cent of the total
route length. It is main] confined to the hilly areas.

(iii) Role of railways cannot be neglected in the economic and social
development of the nation and the Government was focussing to improve
the standard of railway system. Railways have brought the villages
closer to the cities and have helped to transfer new ideas and
innovations to the rural areas. It acts as an integrating force, knitting
the whole country into one whole with its huge network running
throughout the country.

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15. With reference to the waterways, answer the following questions :
(i) Explain why India has an extensive network of waterways.
(ii) Explain the role of oceanic waterways in the transport sector of
India's economy.

Ans. (i) India has an extensive network of inland waterways in the form of
rivers, canals, backwaters and creeks. The total navigable length is
14,500 kilometres. out of which about 5,200 km of river and 485 km of
canals can be used by mechanised craft. Freight transport by waterways
is highly under utilised in India compared to other large countries.
The total cargo moved by inland waterways is just 0.15% of the total
inland traffic in India, compared to the corresponding figures of 20%
for Germany and 32% for Bangladesh. Cargo transport in an orgnaised
manner is confined to a few waterways in Goa, West Bengal, Assam
and Kerala. The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is the
statutory authority in charge of the waterways in India. It does the
function of building the necessary infrastructure in these waterways,
surveying the economic feasibility of new projects and also
administration and regulation.

(ii) Oceanic waterways constitute an important role in the transport sector
of India's economy. Ocean routs handle 95 per cent of India's foreign
trade by volume and 70 per cent by value. Besides international trade,
these routes are also used for transportation between the island and
the rest of the country.

16. Give two advantage and one disadvantage of helicopter services.
Ans. Advantage :

(i) Pawan Hans Helicopters Ltd. (PHHL) was established in 1985 with the
primary objective of providing helicopter support services to the oil
sector in offshore exploration.

(ii) Operate in the hilly and inaccessible areas and make available charter
flights for promotion of tourism.

Disadvantage :
It is expensive and beyond the reach of the common man.

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Chapter 17

IMPACT OF WASTE
ACCUMULATION

Q.I. Very Short Answer Questions :

1. Name the disease caused by mercury contamination in Japan.
Ans. Minamata disease.

2. State the main objective of the treatment of gaseous waste.
Ans. To minimize the generation of gaseous waste.

3. What caused Minamata Disease ?
Ans. Discharge effluents with methyl mercury into the sea.

Q.II. Short Answer Questions :

1. What is meant by the use and throw concept with respect to waste
generation ?

Ans. Use and throw means practice of discarding things after using them once.
This increases the waste. eg. Disposable plates, glasses etc.

2. How do solid waste affect landscape ?
Ans. Dumping of solid waste not only gives an ugly look and foul smell but also

causes serious health problems. It sometimes leads to outbreak of epidemics.

3. Why are radioactive wastes more hazardous than other wastes ?
Ans. (i) Radioactive waste produced by nuclear reactors and weapon factories

cause a potentially serious environmental problem.
(ii) Radioactive waste, although present in small quantities, remains

extremely harmful to human health for many years.

4. Name three monuments affected by acid rain.
Ans. Many monuments are affected by acid rain. Examples are: the Parthenon of

Athens, the Colosseum of Rome, the Taj Mahal of Agea, Lincoln Memorial of
Washington, Parliament Building of Ottawa, Houses of Parliament in London.
Cathedral of Cologne, the Learning Tower of Pisa, the Tower of London, etc.

5. What is known as eutrophication ?
Ans. (i) Eutrophication is the process of depletion of oxygen from water bodies

occuring either naturally or due to human activities.
(ii) The process of eutrophication takes place due to introduction of

nutrients and chemicals through discharge of domestic sewage,
industrial effluents and fertilizers from agricultural fields.

6. What was the cause of the following ?
(i) The Bhopal Tragedy.
(ii) The Minamata Disease.
(iii) The Chernobyl Disaster.

Ans. (i) Methyl Isocynate gas
(ii) Methyl mercury
(iii) Nuclear radiation

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7. “The waste accumulation damages the aesthetic of the area.” Justify
by giving two reasons.

Ans. (i) When the waste is dumped in an improper way, the landscape of the
area gives unpleasant look.

(ii) The uncontrolled dumping of urban waste damages the beauty of the
countryside.

8. What is acid rain ? Mention two of its effects.
Ans. Burning of coal, fuel wood of petroleum produce sulphur and nitrogen which

react with oxygen and are converted into their respective oxides - sulphur
oxide and nitrogen dioxide. These oxides react with water vapour present
in the atmosphere to form acids like sulphuric acid and nirtic acid. These
acids precipitate with rain to form acid rain.
Effects :
(i) Acid rain severely damages the various ecosystems in many parts if

the world. Many forests and lakes have been damaged by it.
(ii) When acid rain pours on soil, it destroys the nutrients of the soil and

reduce its fertility.

9. What is biomagnification ?
Ans. (i) The term Biomagnification means increasing the concentration of

various toxic substances along the food chain.
(ii) Toxic substances at the level of primary producers get concentrated at

each trophic level as they move up the food chain.

10. Name the gas produced by the decomposition of accumulated waste.
Why is this gas harmful ?

Ans. (i) Methane gas is produced by decomposition of the waste, which is highly
explosive.

(ii) So it has to be managed properly to avoid the bad results creating
large scale loss and unwanted problems.

11. With the help of a diagram explain the process of biomagnification.
Ans.

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12. What can be the effects of Biomagnification on human beings ?
Ans. (i) ‘Biomagnification’ is the increasing concentration of various toxic

materials in the food chain, which may extremely damage marine life
by checking photosynthesis process.
(ii) Mercury water causes failure of various organs, in the marine
organisms.

Q.III. Long Answer Questions :

1. What is known as the Minamata Disease ?
Ans. (i) Minamata, a coastal town of Japan, had a factory of Vinyl Chloride in

1952. It used to discharge effluents with methyl mercury into the sea.
(ii) Methyl mercury can break the barrier between blood cells and nerve

cells. Thus, it reaches brain to cause progressive irreversible damage.
(iii) In 1953 some fishermen fell ill in Minamata and their illness was

detected to be caused by consuming fishes caught from the Minamata
Bay.
(iv) Fishing in Minamata Bay was banned in 1957, as mercury was identified
to be the reason for toxicity.
(v) The epidemic in Minamata is now known as 'Minamata Disease'.
Mercury in Minamata contaminated and killed different sea bird species
feeding on fishes.

2. How does waste accumulation affect the environment ?
Ans. (i) Accumulated solid wastes when left uncared for starts decomposing

and produce pathogens, viruses and fungi which grow in this waste.
(ii) Flies, insects and rodents live in these waste, carry germs of various

diseases.
(iii) Rain water carries decomposed waste into waterbodies and causes

water pollution.

3. What impact does the decomposition of waste in the open areas have on
human health ? OR

Explain the impact of waste accumulation on human health.
Ans. (i) Accumulated solid wastes when left uncared, start decomposing. A

number of pathogenic (disease-producing) bacteria, virus and fungi
grow from these wastes.
(ii) Files, insects, rodents etc., live in the accumulated waste heaps and
carry germs of various diseases to human habitation.
(iii) Decomposition of wastes produces harmful gases that pollute the air
around us.

4. How is the 'use and throw' concept responsible for the rease in waste
generation ?

Ans. (i) With the use and throw concept, the generation of wastes has increased
alarmingly, both in quantity and complexity.

(ii) One can see heaps of solid wastes accumulated in street corners,
around hospitals, school backyards and even near water bodies.

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(iii) Dumping of solid wastes not only gives an ugly look and foul smell, but
also causes serious health hazards. Sometimes, the outbreak of
epidemics takes place due to the accumulation of wastes, particularly
near water bodies.

5. Give two consequences of dumping solid wastes on landscape.
Ans. (i) Much of the world's solid waste is simply dumped onto vacant land and

left to decompose.
(ii) Open dumps not ony ruin the natural beauty of the land but also

provide a home to rats and other disease carrying organisms.
(iii) Both open dumps and landfills may contain poisonous substances that

seep into the ground water or flow into steams and lakes.

6. Why is the handling of solid wastes a major problem ?
Ans. (i) Various things in the solid wastes are non-degradable and may cause

serious problems for environment and ecology through large scale
pollution of land, soil water and air.
(ii) These may result in health hazards, animal and plant life.
(iii) If the solid wastes are dumped deep into the ground, it may pollute
the soil and water by seepage through rainfall water and may harm a
large area with infection and unhealthy materials.

7. What is the effect of acid rain on monuments ?
Ans. (i) A chemical reaction occurs between the acids of the acid rain and the

buildings. It exerts pressure on the monument surface leading to
corrosion of its body.
(ii) The gypsum and calcium sulphate are washed away by water causing
damaging marks on statues and monuments.
(iii) Limestone statues are also destroyed naturally because carbonic acid
in rainwater converts limestone into bicarbonate which is water soluble
and is washed away.

8. Explain how eutrophication affects aquatic life.
Ans. (i) It is the process of depletion of oxygen from water bodies occurring

either naturally or due to human activities. The process of
eutrophication takes place due to introduction of nutrients and
chemicals through discharge of domestic sewage, industrial effluents
and fertilizers from agricultural field.
(ii) Algae and phytoplankton use carbon dioxide, inorganic nitrogen and
phosphate from the water as food. They serve as food for microscopic
animals (zooplankton). Small fish feed on these zooplanktons and large
fish in turns consume these small fish.
(iii) When nutrients become abundant due to waste accumulation, the
growth of phytoplankton and algae increases.
(iv) Consequently, the penetration of oxygen, light and heat into the
waterbody is reduced. This causes death of most of the aquatic
organisms, draining water of all its oxygen.

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9. What harm is done by dumping of waste near water bodies?
Ans. (i) Waste dumped near a water source percolates through the soil into

the waterbodies and contaminate the water.
(ii) Direct dumping of untreated waste in rivers, seas and lakes results in

the accumulation of toxic substances in the food chain through plants
and animals that feed on it (biomagnification).
(iii) Choking of drains and gully pits by the solid wastes results in water
logging, especially during the rainy season.The water logging results
in breeding of mosquitoes in the stagnant water which spread diseases
like malaria and chickengunia.

10. Explain the effect of accumulation of solid waste on terrestrial life.
Ans. (i) Scavangers and stray animals like dogs, rats, pigs and cows are directly

affected by waste when they feed on the waste for food. Sometimes
these animals consume toxins or non-degradable substances like
plastic carry bags present in the waste and die.
(ii) The wastes consumed by animals also lead to many diseases and
other problems. For example, according to a study, mice that were fed
on high levels of toxins had difficulty in reproducing and so did their
offspring. These offspring also had higher rates of birth defects and
lower body weights.
(iii) Similarly, birds do get the adverse impact of feeding on waste. Some of
the toxins have been shown to have made birds ill after consuming
such toxins from the wastes. Birds feeding on agricultural waste suffer
from defective egg shells and increased mortality.

EFFECTS OF TOXIC PARTICULARS MATERIALS

1. Lead : Affects blood system, causes behavioural disorders and can also
cause death.

2. Cadmium : Causes cardiovascular diseases and hypertension, kidney
damage

3. Nickel : Causes respiratory problems, lung cancer.
4. Mercury : Causes nerve and brain damage, kidny damage.
5. Beryllium : Causes berylliosis. Affecting mucus membrane of eyes and

lungs. Causes shortness of breath, weight loss, lung cancer and affects
heart.
6. Asbestos : Causes asbestosis, shortness of breath and lung cancer

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Chapter 18

NEED FOR MANAGEMENT
OF WASTE

Q.I. Very Short Answer Questions :
1. Name three diseases which occur because of waste accumulation on land.
Ans. Waste accumulation leads to breeding of flies insects rodents etc. which

give rise to diseases such as cholera, typhiod, plague etc.

2. Name two diseases which are spread through pet animals.
Ans. (i) Dog : Rabies, hydrated diseases.

(ii) Cat : Dermatophytosis, anthrax.

3. Name three water-borne diseases.
Ans. Jaundice, typhoid, cholera.

4. Name two common diseases caused as a result of gaseous pollution.
Ans. Bronchitis, asthama.

5. Name three greenhouse gases.
Ans. Carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, CFC etc.

6. Where is the Ozone layer found in the atmosphere ?
Ans. Ozone layer is found in the lower portion of the straposphere from

approximately 20 to 30 kilometres above the earth.

Q.II. Short Answer Questions :

1. What is acid rain ? Mention two of its effects.
Ans. Acid rain means the presence of excessive acids in rain water.

The effects of acid rains ?
(i) Acid rain increases acidity in the soil and destroys forests and crops.
(ii) It corrodes buildings, monuments, statues, bridges, fences and railings.
(iii) It poses a serious threat to human health, since it contaminates air

and water.

2. What role does the Ozone layer play to protect life on earth ?
Ans. Due to the presence of Ozone layer, ultraviolet rays from the sun cannot

reach the earth surface directly. Ozone layer absorbs the harmful
ultraviolet rays from the sun and protects the life on the Earth from their
harmful effects.

3. What are the causes of depletion of the Ozone layer ?
Ans. (i) Ozone layer has been revealed from different researches that when

the Oxides of Nitrogen (NO and NO2) come in contect with Ozone (O3),
their chemical reaction destroys Ozone layer.
(ii) Besides this supersonic aeroplanes move through the stratosphere
and emit huge amount of Nitrogen gas which depletes the Ozone layer.

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(iii) Another important causation factor of Ozone layer depletion is
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), which have strong power to damage the
ozone layer.

4. Explain the need for management of waste.
Ans. (i) The problem with waste is that it remains in our environment. We

move waste from one place to another but never get rid of it completely.
(ii) Nature has recycled waste materials for millions of years. However,

human population has increased so rapidly during the last century
that the environment is now threatened by our activities and the wastes
they produce.
(iii) Much damage is done to the environment by the pollution of air,
degradation of soils and contamination of water sources such as rivers,
lakes, etc.

5. What is Acid Rain ? How is it caused ?
Ans. (i) Acid Rain means the presence of excessive acids in rainwater.

(ii) Burning of coal, wood or petroleum produced sulphur and nitrogen. These
two react with oxygen and are converted into their respective oxides -
sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide, which are soluble in water.

(iii) During rain, these oxides react with large quantities of water vapour
in the atmosphere to form acids like sulphuric acid, sulphurous acid,
nitric acid and nitrous acid.

(iv) These acids, when they precipitate together with rain or snow leads
to acid rain.

Q.III. Long Answer Questions :

1. What is Greenhouse Effect ? How is it related to Global Warming ?
Ans. (i) The rate of absorption of solar radiation by earth and its emission back

into space as infrared waves balances the heat on the earth. This
phenomenon plays a very important role in maintaining surface
temperature of the earth.
(ii) The carbon dioxide and other gases form a blanket around the globe which
prevents the passage of infrared waves from the earth back into space.
(iii) Concentration of solar radiation produces much heat, making the earth
a very warm place. This phenomenon is similar to that of a greenhouse
in which the glass enclosed area gets heated up due to the insulation
from the rest of the environment.
(iv) The warming up of the atmosphere is due to the greenhouse effect.
Hence, Global Warming is also known as Greenhouse Effect.

2. Explain briefly the need to check the depletion of Ozone layer.
Ans. (i) A hole has been observed in the Ozone layer in the Stratosphere near

Antarctica.
(ii) This hole allows the ultraviolet rays of the sun to reach the earth

directly without any obstacle of filtration. These ultraviolet rays cause
many disease like skin cancer and cataract.

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(iii) The ultraviolet rays cause genetic disorders which ultimately affect
heredity.

(iv) Increased concentration of ultraviolet rays disturb ecological balance
in marine ecosystem.

(v) Green algae, fish and other animals on continental shelves get affected
by ultraviolet rays. Young cells and larvae of organisms living in aquatic
ecosystems get destroyed.

(vi) Vegetables are very sensitive to the ultraviolet rays. Ultraviolet rays
can damage physical and chemical properties of any complex chemical
substance.

(v) Plastic becomes brittle when they come in contact ultraviolet rays.

3. What are the consequences of Acid Rain ?
Ans. (i) Acid rain increases acidity in the soil and destroys forests and crops.

(ii) It corrodes buildings, monuments, statues, bridges, fences and railings.
For example, acid rain produced by the pollutants from the Mathura
oil refinery has been turning the white marble surface of the Taj Mahal
into yellow.

(iii) It poses a serious threat to human health, since it contaminates air
and water.

(iv) It affects the human nervous system by causing neurological diseases.
(v) Aquatic species are affected due to aid rain.
(vi) Acid rain affects the plant growth. Plant leaves get burnt and dry.

4. What is the effect of pollution on soil ?
Ans. (i) Soil is the foundation for a healthy biosphere. Precipitation from air

as acid rain and dry deposition of pollutants on land surface contribute
to soil pollution.
(ii) Chemicals and minerals in the soil react with chemical pollutants.
These pollutants combine with plant nutrients and the plants are
consumed by animals. Polluted soils cause reduction in mineralisation
and decomposition processes.
(iii) Transformation of sulphur, nitrogen, availability of phosphorus, biological
nitrogen fixation in soil are affected by acid rain.
(iv) Soil fertility and aeration are also reduced. Earthworms, nematodes,
etc., are destroyed by toxic chemicals.

5. Explain the dangers which pose a serious threat to the ecosystem because
of waste accumulation.

Ans. The following dangers, posed by global pollution due to accumulation of
wastes, threaten the survival of the ecosystem and call for the need to
manage waste.
Transmission of Diseases :
(i) Waste on Land : Various diseases spread on epidemic scale due to
waste accumulation on land and water bodies. Vectors like flies,
mosquitoes, rodents and pet animals transmit these diseases. The waste

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is a breeding ground for such vectors. Hence, there is an urgent need to
manage waste disposal in an effective manner. Here is a list of common
diseases spread by mosquitoes, flies, rodents and pet animals.
(a) Housefly : Typhoid, diarrhoea, dysentery, cholera, gastro-enteritis,

etc.
(b) Sand fly : Kala-azar, sandfly fever, etc.
(c) Tsetse fly : Sleeping sickness.
(d) Mosquitoes : Malaria, yellow fever, dengue, chickengunia,

encephalitis, etc.
(e) Rodents : Plague, salmonellosis, etc.
(f) Pet animals : 1. Dog- Rabies, hydrated diseases, etc.

2. Cat - Dermatophytosis, anthrax, etc.
(ii) Waste in Water : Water without human interference is in its pure

form. Industrialisation and urbanisation pollute water in the following
manner :
(a) Sewage contains organic matter that cannot be decomposed.

Besides, the sewage has pathogenic agents.
(ii) Industrial and commercial waste has toxic agents including metal

salts and complex synthetic organic chemicals.
(iii) Fertilizers and pesticides produce pollutants.
(iv) There are also other pollutants like radioactive substances. Human

beings are affected by pollution :
1. by drinking contaminated water,
2. by using contaminated water for purposes of personal hygiene

and recreation.

6. State the consequences of Global Warming..
Ans. (i) Global temperature is likely rise by 2 to 5ºC during the next century.

Due to rise in temperature by 2ºC to 5ºC, there is a chance of melting
of ice caps on Earth's poles. This melting of ice will result in the rise of
the sea level. Large stretches of low lying areas will submerge and
many island countries will face deep encroachment by sea water. Some
may disappear altogether.
(ii) As the increase in temperature will be uniform all over the surface of
the world, there will be serious climatic changes. This will bring various
changes in wind and rain patterns.
(iii) Higher temperature will cause rise in transpiration, which in turn,
will affect the groundwater table.
(iv) As the climatic belts shift from equator towards pole, the vegetation
would also shift away from the equator.
(v) Insects and pests will increase in the warmer climatic conditions.
Thus, pathogenic diseases will multiply.

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190 ICSE X

Chapter 19

SAFE DISPOSAL OF WASTE

Q.I. Very Short Answer Questions :

1. Name two useful products which can be made from biodegradable
domestic waste.

Ans. Compost and gobar gas.

2. How is compost made ?
Ans. The organic wastes from households are made to undergo decomposition

in such a way that bacteria and other micro-organisms break them down
and produce a safe, clean and soil - like material called compost.

3. What chemicals are used to make water totally free from micro-organisms ?
Ans. In order to get rid of micro-organisms chlorine and bleaching powder is

added to the water.

4. What do you mean by segregation of waste ?
Ans. Sorting out of the re-usable materials from heaps of waste is called

segregation of waste.

5. How is the water polluted by open dumping of waste ?
Ans. At a open dumping site rainwater could carry the harmful substances to

the nearby streams, ponds or lakes and if the water seeps down it could
pollute the groundwater.

Q.II. Short Answer Questions :

1. What is open dumping of wastes ?
Ans. (i) In this method, waste materials are dumped in open low lands far

away from the city.
(ii) It is the cheapest method of waste disposal and does not need much

planning.

2. What is a sanitary landfill ?
Ans. (i) In this method, the waste is packed and dumped daily at the site and

is covered with earth to prevent insects or rodents from entering into
the landfill.
(ii) The waste then is subjected to bacterial decomposition.
(iii) Physical, chemical and biological reactions take place generating
different gases like carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and hydrogen
sulphide.

3. Give two advantages of dumping waste in sanitary landfill. OR

What are the advantages of sanitary landfill as opposed to open dumping ?
Ans. The advantages of sanitary landfill are:

(i) It is free from the pollution from burning.
(ii) The health problems are minimised since flies, rats and other pests

cannot breed in the landfill because of the covered wastes.
(iii) It is mostly free from fire hazards.

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4. What is composting ?
Ans. (i) Composting is nature’s process of recycling decomposed organic

materials into a rich soil known as compost.
(ii) It is a good fertilizer for plants.

5. What service is indirectly done by the rag-pickers for the disposal of
waste ?

Ans. (i) In a country like India, the poor garbage collectors make a living from
discarded solids. In this way they do a good job by removing much of
the waste form the garbage dumps.

(ii) Pieces of metal, glass, rubber, plastics etc., are removed to be recycled
to get finished products.

6. Explain the role of segregation of waste in the safe disposal of waste.
Ans. (i) Sorting out of the reusable material form heaps of waste may often

involve much manual labour.
(ii) Pieces of metal, glass, rubber, plastics etc., are removed to be recycled

to get finished products.

7. Why is open dumping not considered as an environment friendly method?
Ans. (i) In this method, waste materials are dumped in open low lands far

away from the city environment friendly.
(ii) The open pits spoil the sight of the area and become a breeding ground

for mosquitoes, flies, insects etc., that are the carriers of harmful
diseases.
8. Explain Bengaluru method of composting.
Ans. (i) In the mechanical process, used in Bengaluru and adopted by other
cities in the country, the waste material is placed in layers about one
meter deep.
(ii) The material is not turned at all but it decomposes completely in about
five months. This method of composting is known as the Bengaluru
Method.

Q.III. Long Answer Questions :

1. How is waste disposed of in a sanitary landfill ?
Ans. The waste undergoes the following five phases :

(i) During the first phase of the operation, aerobic bacteria deplete the
available oxygen and as a result the temperature increases.

(ii) In the second phase, anaerobic conditions become established and
hydrogen and carbon dioxide are evolved.

(iii) Phase three establishes population of bacteria and the beginning of
methanogenic activity, i.e., production of methane from the
decomposition of organic matter.

(iv) In the fourth phase the methanogenic activity becomes stabilized.
(v) The fifth phase depletes the organic matter and the system returns to

aerobic state.

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2. What steps should be taken by the municipal authorities for the safe
disposal of solid waste ?

Ans. To prohibit littering, the following steps should be taken by the municipal
authorities:
(i) Organising house-to-house collection of municipal solid wastes.
(ii) Arranging collection of waste from slums and squatter areas or localities
including hotels, restaurants, office complexes and commercial areas.
(iii) Bio - medical wastes and industrial wastes should not be mixed with
municipal solid wastes.
(iv) Horticultural and construction wastes should be separately collected
and disposed off.
(v) The waste should be segregated into biodegradable and non-
biodegradable.
(vi) Waste (garbage, dry leaves) should not be burnt.
(vii) Stray animals should be allowed to move around waste storage facilities.

3. Give three advantages of using compost.
Ans. The major benefits of composting are: (Write any three)

(i) It enhances soil nutrients and water retention capacity of soils.
(ii) It suppresses plant diseases.
(iii) It rejuvenates poor soils by adding humus
(iv) It absorbs odours and degrading volatile organic compounds.
(v) It prevents pollution by preventing pollutants in storm water run - off

from draining into ware resources.
(vi) It checks soil erosion and silting on embankments
(vii) It reduces cost as there is no need for excess water, fertilisers and

pesticides.
4. Explain Indore method of composting.
Ans. (i) In India, both the manual as well as mechanical methods of composting

are used.
(ii) In the rural areas composing refuse and night soil mixtures are dumped

together which produce manure for the fields.
(iii) Layers of vegetable waste and night soils are alternated in a shallow

hole hug in the ground.
(iv) The mixture is turned regularly for about three months to provide air

to the mixture.
(v) Then the compost is left for another month without turning for the

process to take effect. This method of composting is known as the
Indore method.

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ICSE X 193

Chapter 20

REDUCE - REUSE - RECYCLE

Q.I. Short Answer Questions :

1. What are the three R’s of waste management ?
Ans. The three R’s are Reuse, Reduce amd Recycle of waste.

(i) Reuse : This includes the practise of using the things instead of
throwing.

(ii) Reduce : This includes the practise of buying fewer things and using
them for a longer period to avoid waste.

(iii) Recycle : It is using of waste materials and remaking some other
article for use.

2. Name the processes involved in reducing the waste.
Ans. (i) Change of Process – By changing a modern method to make the best

use of raw materials.
(ii) Waste Concentration – By using scientific techniques.
(iii) Segregation of Waste – By seperating the waste.

3. Give one example of reusing of waste.
Ans. (i) A beautiful garden (Rock Garden) has been created by Nek Chand in

Chandigarh using waste products like tin cans, bottles, broken pieces
of crockery etc.
(ii) Waste collectors, thus, help in making new production processes. Thus,
they reduce the burden of waste disposal.

4. What do you mean by recycling of waste ?
Ans. Recycling is the process of converting waste materials into reusable objects

to prevent waste of potentially useful materials, reduce the consumption of
fresh new materials.

5. Why are recycled plastic bags considered harmful for the environment ?
Ans. (i) Plastic is non-biodegradable. The bonds of carbon in plastic are

impossible to break down through a physical or chemical process. They
have to be incinerated, recycled or buried in landfills.
(ii) The plastic bags which are extensively used in India are made from
recycled plastic.
(iii) The recycled plastic bags are harmful because the melting of plastic
and plastic products breaks some polymer chains into smaller units
which are harmful.

6. Explain clearly how waste can be reduced by changing the process of
production.

Ans. (i) By changing a modern method to make the best use of raw materials
reduces the waste generation in industries.

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(ii) In zinc electroplating chlorides are used in the process instead of
using the sulphate salt in order to eliminate the production of cyanides.

7. Explain how recycling of waste to produce paper can reduce
deforestation.

Ans. (i) In India, we have tonnes of bagasse from sugarcane during a particular
season.

(ii) Bagasse can be used in the manufacture of paper pulp. This would
save trees which are normally used for making paper pulp.

(iii) In this way recycling of waste to produce paper can reduce deforestation.

8. Name the sugercane waste which can be recycled into useful products.
Ans. Molasses and bagasse are the sugarcane waste which can be recycled in

to useful product.

9. What is meant by Environmental Impact Assessment?
Ans. In order to minimise the adverse impact of a number of developmental

projects on the environment like building large dams, railways, flyovers,
canals and highways, the government ensures that an Environmental Impact
Assessment is carried out before such a project is started.

10. What harm is done to the environment by building big dams ?
Ans. (i) Building of a dam disrupts the ecosystem of the river and destroys the

aquatic as well as terrestrial life around it.
(ii) Some environmentalists argue that dams intensify the effect of natural

disasters like earthquakes.
(ii) For example, if an earthquake takes place, then along with the cracks

in the ground, there would also be a flood and large pieces of the
broken dam have to be coped with.

11. Explain how reusing waste can reduce the burden of waste disposal.
Ans. When we reusing the waste to produce something new out it then it will

reduce the waste disposal. Example flyash can be used for making bricks
and filling roads.

Q.II. Give reasons for each of the following :
1. Plant more trees.

Ans. Plant more trees, as trees can absorb toxic gases and purify the air by
releasing oxygen.

2. Use organic manure instead of chemical fertilisers.
Ans. The excessive use of chemical fertilizers create pollution. The fertilizers

are used to enrich the soil, but they also contaminate the soil with impurities.
On the other hand organic fertilizers enrich the soil without contaminating
the soil with impurities.

3. Use mass transport system.
Ans. If we use mass transport system, it would decrease the use of private

vehicles on the road. This would reduce pollution.

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Q.III. Long Answer Questions :

1. Explain the role of government in waste management.
Ans. The Government's environmental policy focuses on the following areas:

(i) To check degradation of land and water through Wasteland Management
and Restoration of river water quality programmes;

(ii) To provide for conservation of natural resources by direct action such
as declaration of reserved forests, biosphere reserves, wetlands,
mangroves and protection of endangered species;

(iii) To monitor development through Environmental Impact Assessment
Studies of major project proposals; and

(iv) To make laws and acts for environment protection and to initiate penal
measures against those who violate these laws.

2. Give three examples to show how social initiatives can help minimise
the use of resources.

Ans. (i) They can take provisions for rainwater harvesting in their colonies to
conserve rain water;

(ii) They can provide infrastructure for using solar energy in place of
electricity;

(iii) They can make arrangements for collecting and segregating waste
and turning the biodegradable waste into compost;

(iv) They can impose fines on those households which waste electricity
and water.

3. What can an individual do to reduce waste ?
Ans. (i) Use carry bags made of paper or cloth instead of polythene.

(ii) Help more in pollution prevention than pollution control.
(iii) Use eco-friendly products.
(iv) Cut down the use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) as they destroy the

ozone layer. Do not use Styrofoam cups that have chlorofluorocarbon
(CFC) molecules in them which destroy ozone layer.
(v) Use chemicals derived from peaches and plums to clean computer
chips and circuit boards instead of CFCs.
(vi) Use CFC-free refrigerators.

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MARKING SYSTEM

Q.No Chapter Name Marks Total Marks
30
SECTION A
(Compulsory) 50

1. Essentials of Maps (Topography) 20

2. Maps 10

SECTION B
(Choose any 5 questions)

3. Climate 10

4. Soil Resources 10

5. Natural Vegetation 10

6. Water Resources 10

Mineral Resources

7. Conventional Sources of Energy 10

Non-Conventional Sources of Energy 10

Agriculture - I

Agriculture - II (Food Crops)
8.

Agriculture - III (Cash Crops) (1)

Agriculture - IV : Cash Crops (2)

Agro-Based Industries 10
9.

Mineral Based Industriy

10. Transport 10

Impact of Waste Accumulation

Need for Management of Waste 10

11.
Safe Disposal of Waste

Reduce-Reuse-Recycle

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BOARD PAPER - 2018

GEOGRAPHY
H.C.G. - PAPER - 2

(Two hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

You will not be allowed to write during the first l5 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.

The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. 

Attempt seven questions in all.
Part I is compulsory. All questions from Part I are to be attempted.

A tolal of five questions are to attempted from Part II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

To be supplied with his Paper : Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7
and 20 cm of twine.

Note :
(i) In all Map Work, make wise use of arrows to avoid overcrowding of the map.
(ii) The extract of Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7 must not be taken out of
the examination hall. It must be handed over to the Supervising Examiner on
completion of the paper.
(iii) The Map given at the end of this question paper must be detached and after marking,
must be fastened to your answer booklet.
(iv) All sub-sections of the questions attempted must be answered in the
correct serial order.
(v) All working including rough work should be done on the same answer sheet which
is used to answer the rest of the paper.

This Paper consists of 6 printed pages and 1 outline map.

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PART I (30 Marks)

Attempt all questions from this Part

Question 1

Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45 D/7 and

answer the following questions :

(a) Give the six figure grid reference for : [2]

(i)  268

(ii) Temple south east of Khara

(b) Name the following : [2]

(i) The drainage pattern seen in 9185.

(ii) The pattern of settlement seen in 9787.

(c) What do the following symbols mean ? [2]

(i) 3r in 9089.

(ii) 200 in 9383.

(d) Name two types of vegetation found in the region east of easting 93. [2]

(e) Give two evidences which suggest that the rainfall received in the [2]

region shown on the map extract is seasonal.

(f) Calculate the area of the region between 85 – 90 northing and 90 – 95 [2]

easthlg. Give your answer in kilometer.

(g) Mention any two manmade features and two natural features in grid [2]

square 9080.

(h) What is the direct distance in kilometers between the surveyed tree [2]

most of Rampura (9580) to the chhatri in Juvol (9282)?

(i) Mention : [2]

(i) The most commonly used means of transport in the area shown

on the map extract.

(ii) The main occupation of the people of the region in the south

eastern part of the map extract.

(j) (i) What is the compass direction of Rampura (9580) from Karja [2]

(9781)?

(ii) Identify the landform marked by contours in 9782.

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Question 2 [1]
On the outline map of India provided: [1]
[1]
(a) Shade and label Thar desert. [1]
(b) Label the river Narmada. [1]
(c) Shade and name the Wular lake. [1]
(d) Shade and label Kanara coast. [1]
(e) Mark and name Mount Kanchenjunga. [1]
(f) Shade and label a densely-populated region in India. [1]
(g) Shade and label a region with Red soil in India. [1]
(h) Mark with a dot and name Chennai.
(i) Mark and label the Arabian Sea branch of S.W. Monsoon.
(j) Mark with a dot and name Singhbhum.

PART II (50 Marks)
Attempt any five questions from this Part

Question 3

(a) How is the winter rainfall of the northwest part of India different from [2]

the winter rainfall of the southeast part of India?

(b) (i) Name a state that is the first to experience the onset of the [2]

monsoon.

(ii) How does the "Mango shower" influence the state of Karnataka?

(c) Give a reason for each of the following: [3]

(i) Kanyakumari experiences equable climate.

(ii) Central Maharashtra gets less rainfall than the coastal area of

Maharashtra.

(iii) Jaipur has a higher annual range of temperature than Mumbai.

(d) Write three differences between summer monsoon season and [3]

retreating monsoon season.

Question 4 [2]
(a) (i) Why does alluvial soil differ in texture ? [2]
(ii) State two cash crops that grow well in alluvial soil.
(b) With reference to black soil answer the following :
(i) Name one important crop which grows in this soil.
(ii) Give one chemical property of this soil.

200 ICSE X


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