189 _____________ is the lowest inference descriptor of all because it uses the
participant’s own words.
a. Participant feedback b. A verbatim
c. Data triangulation d. Investigator triangulation
190 ___________ refers to physical or mental changes that may occur within individuals
over time, such as aging, learning, boredom, hunger, and fatigue.
a. Instrumentation b. History
c. Maturation d. Testing
191 What type of validity refers to the extent to which the results of a study can be
generalized across time?
a. Ecological validity b. External validity
c. Internal validity d. Temporal validity
192 Which of the following best describes interpretive validity?
a. Factual accuracy of an account as reported by the researcher
b. Accurately portraying the meanings given by the participants to what is
being studied
c. Degree to which a theoretical explanation fits the data.
d. Ability to generalize the study results across settings
193 Which of the following terms is a strategy where the researcher actively engages in
critical self-reflection about his or her potential biases and predispositions.
a. Experimenter effect b. Reactivity
c. Investigator triangulation d. Reflexivity
194 Which of the following is not considered one of the criteria for inferring causality?
a. Evidence that the independent and dependent variables are related
b. Evidence that the relationship between the variables being investigated is
not due to a confounding extraneous variable
c. Evidence that changes in variable A occur before changes in variable B
d. The temporal ordering of the variables being investigated does not matter
because a relationship is all that is really needed
195 The use of multiple data sources to help understand a phenomenon is one strategy
that is used to promote qualitative research validity. Which of the following terms
describes this strategy?
a. Data matching b. Pattern matching c. Data triangulation d. Data feedback
196 What may happen when different comparison groups experience a different history
event?
a. History effect b. Selection-history effect
c. Selection effect d. Group effect
197 What is another term that refers to a confounding extraneous variable?
a. Last variable b. First variable c. Third variable d. Fourth variable
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198 Which of the following refers to any systematic change that occurs over time in the
way in which the dependent variable is assessed?
a. Instrumentation b. Maturation c. Testing d. Selection
199 Which of the following terms describes the ability to generalize from the sample of
individuals on which a study was conducted to the larger target population of
individuals and across different subpopulations within the larger target population?
a. External validity b. Population validity
c. Ecological validity d. Temporal validity
200 Which of the following is not a strategy used to promote qualitative research validity?
a. Peer review b. Theory triangulation
c. Extended fieldwork d. Random assignment
201 The use of several measures of a construct is called:
a. Multiple operationalism b. Multiple construct measurement
c. Operationalism d. Methods triangulation
202 A physical or mental change that occurs in participants over time that affects their
performance on the dependent variable is called ________.
a. Instrumentation b. Maturation c. Regression d. None of above
203 Attrition generally occurs in research where ____.
a. You do demographic research b. The study fails
c. Some participants do not complete the study d. The study is very brief
204 Differential attrition occurs when the people dropping out from one group are
different from the others in their group or from the people in the comparison group.
a. True b. False
205 Internal validity refers to which of the following?
a. The ability to infer that a causal relationship exists between 2 variables
b. The extent to which study results can be generalized to and across
populations of persons, settings, and times
c. The use of effective measurement instruments in the study
d. The ability to generalize the study results to individuals not included in the
study
206 Which strategy used to promote qualitative research validity uses multiple research
methods to study a phenomenon?
a. Data triangulation b. Methods triangulation
c. Theory triangulation d. Member checking
207 Which type of validity refers to the factual accuracy of an account as reported by the
researcher?
a. Ecological validity b. Temporal validity
c. Descriptive validity d. None of the above
208 Which of the following in not one of the key threats to internal validity?
a. Maturation b. Instrumentation c. Temporal change d. History
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209 This type of validity refers to the ability to generalize the results of a study across
settings.
a. Temporal validity b. Internal validity c. Ecological validity d. External validity
210 Which is not a direct threat to the internal validity of a research design?
a. History b. Testing c. Sampling error d. Differential selection
211 Alteration in performance due to being aware that one is participating in a study is
known as ______.
a. Operationalism b. Reactivity c. Temporal validity d. Mortality
212 The idea that the more times a research finding is shown with different sets of people,
the more confidence we can place in the finding and in generalizing beyond the
original participants is known as ___________.
a. Naturalistic generalization b. Methods generalization
c. Data triangulation d. Replication logic
213 Analysis of covariance is:
a. A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific variables
b. A statistical technique that can be used to control sequencing effects
c. A statistical technique that substitutes for random assignment to groups
d. Adjusts scores on the independent variable to control for extraneous variables
214 To determine whether noise affects the ability to solve math problems, a researcher
has one group solve math problems in a quiet room and another group solve math
problems in a noisy room. The group solving problems in the noisy room completes
15 problems in one hour and the group solving problems in the quiet room completes
22 problems in one hour. In this experiment, the independent variable is
____________ and the dependent variable is _____________.
a. The number of problems solves; the difficulty of the problems
b. The number of problems solved; the noise level in the room
c. The noise level in the room; the number of problems solved
d. The noise level in the room; the difficulty of the problems
215 The post-test-only design with non-equivalent groups is likely to control for which of
the following threats to internal validity:
a. History b. Differential selection
c. Additive and interactive effects d. Differential attrition
216 When all participants receive all treatment conditions, the study is susceptible to:
a. Order effects b. Carryover effects c. Analysis of covariance d. a and b
217 A researcher is interested in the effects of a preschool program on later school
performance. Because she is concerned that socio-economic-status (SES) is a
potential extraneous variable in her study, she picks children to study who are only
from low SES homes. The control technique she used in this study was:
a. Matching
b. Random assignment
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c. Holding the extraneous variable constant
d. Statistically controlling the extraneous variable
218 Which of the following terms best describes an interaction effect?
a. The effect of one independent variable (on a DV) depends on the level of
another independent variable
b. Eliminating any differential influence of extraneous variables
c. Sequencing effect that occurs from the order in which the treatment
conditions are administered
d. The effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable
219 Which of the following terms refers to a statistical method that can be used to
statistically equate groups on a pretest or some other variable?
a. Experimental control
b. Differential influence
c. Matching
d. Analysis of covariance
220 Which of the following is not a way to manipulate an independent variable?
a. Presence technique b. Amount technique
c. Type technique d. Random technique
221 Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pre-test scores to determine
the initial equivalence of groups on the pre-test before the treatment variable is
introduced into the research setting.
a. One-group pre-test - post-test design
b. Pre-test - post-test control group design
c. Post-test-only design with non-equivalent groups
d. Both b and c
222 Counterbalancing is _________.
a. Usually based on random selection of participants
b. Only used when one pre-test variable needs to be controlled
c. Chosen to control for such things as order and carryover effects*
d. All of the above
223 The group that receives the experimental treatment condition is the _____.
a. Experimental group b. Control group
c. Participant group d. Independent group
224 Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls for
both known and unknown variables?
a. Building the extraneous variable into the design b. Matching
c. Random assignment d. Analysis of covariance
225 The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is the
________.
a. Experimental group b. Control group
c. Treatment group d. Independent group
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226 There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables can be
controlled. Which control technique is considered to be the best?
a. Random assignment b. Matching c. Counterbalancing d. None of the above
227 Which of the following could be used for randomly assigning participants to groups
in an experimental study?
a. Split-half (e.g., first half versus second half of a school directory)
b. Even versus odd numbers
c. Use a list of random numbers or a computer randomization program
d. Let the researcher decide which group will be the best
228 Which term is not a related to counterbalancing?
a. Carryover effect b. Order effect
c. Sequencing effects d. Matching
229 A cell is a combination of two or more ____ in a factorial design.
a. Research designs b. Research measurements
c. Dependent variables d. Independent variables
230 Which of the following designs does an excellent job of controlling for rival
hypotheses that threaten the internal validity of an experiment?
a. Post-test-only design with non-equivalent groups
b. Post-test-only control-group design
c. Pre-test - post-test control-group design
d. Both b and c are excellent designs
231 Manipulating the independent variable by varying the type on the independent
variable that is presented to the different comparison groups is known as _____.
a. Amount technique b. Absence technique
c. Type technique d. Presence technique
232 Which of the following terms is a sequencing effect that occurs from the order in
which the treatment conditions are administered?
a. Carry-over effect b. Order effect
c. Sequencing effects d. None of the above
233 When manipulating the independent variable in an educational experiment, which of
the following describes this method?
a. An independent variable is manipulated using the presence or absence technique
b. The researchers varies the amount of the independent variable that is administered
c. The researcher varies the type of the independent variable
d. All of the above are possible
234 Which method of controlling confounding extraneous variables takes precedence
over all other methods?
a. Matching individual participants
b. Holding extraneous variables
c. Building the extraneous variable into the research design
d. Counterbalancing
e. Randomly assign research participants to the groups
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235 In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the
effect produced by the ____.
a. Dependent variable b. Extraneous variable
c. Independent variable d. Confounding variable
236 This type of design is one where all participants participate in all experimental
treatment conditions.
a. Factorial design b. Repeated measures design
c. Replicated design d. Pre-test - post-test control-group design
237 A factorial design is one in which ____.
a. Only one independent variable is studied to determine its effect on the dependent
variable
b. Only two independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their
independent and interactive effects on the dependent variable
c. Two or more independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their
independent and interactive effects on the dependent variable
d. Two dependent variables are studied to determine their interactive effects
238 The design in which one group of research participants is administered a treatment
and is then compared, on the dependent variable, with another group of research
participants who did not receive the experimental treatment is ____.
a. One-group post-test-only design
b. One-group pre-test - post-test design
c. Post-test-only design with non-equivalent groups
d. Time series design
239 _____ refers to the influence of a single independent variable.
a. Interaction effect b. Reactive effect c. Main effect d. Proactive effect
240 A sequencing effect that occurs when performance in one treatment condition is
influenced by participation in a prior treatment condition is known as ____.
a. Counterbalancing effect b. Carryover effect
c. Treatment effect d. Order effect
241 Which of the following is possible in a factorial design with two independent
variables?
a. There is only one main effect present
b. There are two main effects present
c. There are two main effects and an interaction effect present
d. All of the above are possible
242 Which of the following is a factorial design where different participants are
randomly assigned to the levels of one independent variable but participants take all
levels on another independent variable?
a. One-group pre-test - post-test b. Pre-test - post-test control-group design
c. Factorial design d. Factorial design based on a mixed model
106
243 A researcher does a study examining the effects of a preschool program. He uses a
non-equivalent comparison group design. He finds that the cognitive growth of his
experimental group is greater than that of his control. Unfortunately, he later finds
that in general children who live in the area where he drew his experimental group
tend to grow faster cognitively than children who were from the area where he drew
his control group. When he discovered this problem, he discovered what threat to
the internal validity of his study?
a. Selection-maturation effect b. History effect
c. Selection-instrumentation effect d. Testing effect
244 For a treatment to be deemed effective when used in the context of an A-B-A single
case design, what has to occur?
a. Behaviour should change as the treatment is implemented
b. Behaviour should return to baseline levels when the treatment is removed
c. When the treatment is removed, behaviour should stay at the level that was
created by the treatment rather than revert back to the baseline
d. Both a and b
245 In a changing-criterion design, changes in criterion are best done:
a. As soon as the prior criterion is met
b. When the previous criterion is met and the behaviour has stabilized
c. Regardless of the previous criteria
d. After a fixed number of trials
246 The non-equivalent comparison group design is a quasi-experimental design in
which, for reasons of practicality, we cannot insure that the control and experimental
groups are equivalent to each other when the experiment begins. The major
interpretational difficulty imposed by this design is:
a. Measuring whether the two groups are different from each other on the post-test
b. Deciding how much each group has gained
c. Determining when enough data points are collected
d. Being sure that any differences between groups at the end of the experiment are
due to the independent variable’s influence and not due to pre-existing group differences
247 A treatment effect is demonstrated in the regression discontinuity design by:
a. A discontinuity in the regression line
b. A significant difference in the pre-test and post-test scores
c. Analysis of covariance
d. The demonstration of an interaction
248 Which of the following is a primary threat to the interrupted time-series design?
a. History effect b. Selection-history
c. Selection-maturation d. All of the above
249 A design consisting of an experimental and a control group but participants are not
randomly assigned to the groups is which of the following?
a. Interrupted time-series design
b. Non-equivalent comparison-group design
c. Single case design
d. A-B-A-B design
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250 A form of the non-equivalent comparison-group design is recommended when ____.
a. It is not possible to control for a basic history effect
b. It is not possible to randomly assign participants to groups
c. It is not possible to identify two groups
d. All of the above
251 A threat to internal validity in the non-equivalent comparison-group design is the
_____ effect.
a. Selection-maturation effect b. Selection-history effect
c. Selection-regression d. All of the above are threats
252 A threat to internal validity in the non-equivalent comparison-group design is the
_____ effect.
a. Maturation effect b. Selection-history effect
c. Failure to revert to baseline d. All of the above
253 How many variables should be changed at a time when conducting a single-case
design?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1
254 In quasi-experimental research designs, causal interpretations can be made _______.
a. Only when rival explanations have been shown to be plausible
b. Only when rival explanations have been shown to be implausible
c. Only when the participants have been randomly selected
d. Only when there is a single participant in the experiment
255 In single-case research, “baseline” refers to ________.
a. The beginning point of the treatment condition
b. The end point of the treatment condition
c. The rate of response established prior to the experimental intervention
d. The time during which a treatment condition is administered
256 Which type of design can be used when the goal is to create a step-by-step increase
(or decrease) in the amount, accuracy, or frequency of some behaviour over a period
of time?
a. Non-equivalent comparison-group design b. A-B-A-B
c. Changing-criterion design d. A-B design
257 Which of the following occurs in a comparison group design when one of the two
groups of participants grows or naturally develops faster than the other group?
a. Main effect b. Sequencing effect
c. Order effect d. Selection-maturation effect
258 An observation of a dependent variable response prior to any attempt to change this
response is known as the ___________.
a. Flat line b. Baseline c. Variance d. Reverse
259 The most frequently used quasi-experimental design is the _________ design.
a. Non-equivalent comparison-group b. Interrupted time-series
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c. Changing-criterion d. Regression discontinuity
260 A baseline _____________.
a. Is used as the standard against which change induced by the treatment is assessed
b. Is the occurrence of a response in its freely occurring or natural state
c. Is first obtained prior to the administration of a treatment
d. All of the above are true
261 A single-case experimental design in which the response to a treatment is compared
to baseline occurring before and after the treatment is called what?
a. A-B-A design b. Single-case design
c. Multiple-baseline d. Changing-criterion
262 In a single-case design, you hope that the behaviour of the participants prior to the
administration of a treatment condition is ________.
a. Not highly variable b. Highly variable
c. Moving at a steep rate of change d. None of the above
263 The ________________ design rules out history by demonstrating that the dependent
variable response reverts back to the baseline when the treatment is withdrawn.
a. Changing-criterion design b. A-B
c. A-B-A design d. Interrupted time-series design
264 Which design would use analysis of covariance during data analysis?
a. Non-equivalent comparison-group design b. Interrupted time-series design
c. Changing criterion design d. A-B-A-B design
265 The interrupted time-series design can also be viewed as a(n):
a. A-B design b. A-B-A design
c. A-B-A-B design d. Control-group design
266 Why is it important to change one variable at a time in single case designs?
a. Changing one variable allows isolation of the cause of the change
b. Changing more than one variable at a time confounds those independent variables
c. Both a and b are true
d. None of the above
267 What is the difference between A-B-A design and A-B-A-B design?
a. Both designs end on the treatment condition
b. Neither design ends on a treatment condition
c. Baseline conditions are only established in the A-B-A-B design
d. A-B-A-B allows the reintroduction of the treatment condition during the last phase
268 Which of the following is not a phase in the A-B-A design?
a. Baseline measurement b. Introduction of treatment
c. Introduction of a second treatment d. Removal of treatment
269 Researchers can attempt to eliminate the threat of bias from the selection-
maturation effect in the non-equivalent comparison-group design by matching
experimental and control participants on important variables.
109
a. True b. False
270 Group comparison designs are always superior to single-case designs.
a. True b. False
271 The number of police officers and the number of crimes are positively related. This
relationship is:
a. A causal relationship b. A direct relationship
c. A probabilistic causal relation d. A spurious relationship
272 A research studies the relation between early reading and later school achievement.
She decides that a potentially extraneous variable in the relationship is IQ. In
developing her groups for her study, she pairs each child who was an early reader
with a child of the same IQ level who was not an early reader. The control technique
she used was:
a. Holding the extraneous variable constant b. Statistical control
c. Matching d. Random assignment
273 Partial correlation analysis involves:
a. Examining the relationship between two or more variables controlling for
additional variables statistically
b. Including only one group in a correlational analysis
c. Matching participants on potential confounding variables
d. Limiting the sample to individuals at a constant level of an extraneous variable
274 The directors of a graduate program in educational research wish to see what types
of jobs their graduates take after they finish their program. They randomly sample
students from the program and have them fill out questionnaires with items asking
about the types of jobs they have had. They also are asked to describe the roles they
play in their current positions. This project is best described as having what kind of
objective:
a. Descriptive b. Predictive c. Explanatory
275 When research is done to test hypotheses and theories about how and why
phenomena operate as they do, then the primary purpose of such research is:
a. Descriptive b. Predictive c. Explanatory
276 The variable the researcher matches to eliminate it as an alternative explanation is
called a(n) _________ variable.
a. Matching b. Independent c. Dependent d. Partial
277 Which of the following is not a longitudinal design?
a. Panel b. Cross-sectional c. Trend d. Both a and c are longitudinal designs
278 The positive correlation between teachers’ salaries and the price of liquor is
_________.
a. Spurious b. Due to a third-variable c. Nonspurious d. Both a and b
279 Which of the following is considered a special case of the general linear model?
110
a. A variable b. Partial correlation c. Analysis of covariance d. Both b and c
280 When a researcher starts with the dependent variable and moves backwards, it is
called ________.
a. Predictive research b. Retrospective research
c. Exploratory research d. Descriptive research
281 The method of working multiple hypotheses refers to a technique for identifying rival
explanations.
a. True b. False
282 GLM refers to which of the following?
a. General Logit Model b. General Limited Model
c. General Lab Model d. General Linear Model
283 The post hoc fallacy is ____.
a. Making the argument that because A preceded B, A must have caused B
b. Making the argument that because A preceded B, A and B must be correlated
c. Making the argument that because A preceded B, they cannot be correlated.
d. None of the above
284 Which one of the following is not a step in nonexperimental research?
a. a. Determine research problem and hypotheses b. Analyse data
c. Interpret results d. All are steps
285 If a research finding is statistically significant, then ____.
a. The observed result is probably not due to chance
b. The observed result cannot possibly be due to chance
c. The observed result is probably a chance result
d. The null hypothesis of “no relationship” is probably true
286 Which of the following is/are necessary condition(s) for causation?
a. The relationship condition
b. The temporal antecedence condition
c. The lack of alternative explanation condition
d. All of the above
287 Which of the following independent variables cannot be manipulated in a research
study?
a. Gender
b. Ethnicity
c. Intelligence and other traits
d. None of the above can be manipulated in a research study
288 __________ is a form of explanatory research in which the researcher develops a
theoretical model and empirically tests the model to determine how well the model
fits the data.
a. Causal modelling
b. Predictive research
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c. Descriptive research
d. Exploratory research
289 Nonexperimental research in which the primary independent variable of interest is
categorical is sometimes called_____________.
a. Causal-comparative research b. Correlational research
290 Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal?
a. Causal-comparative b. Correlational
c. Experimental d. Historical
291 Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal?
a. Causal-comparative
b. Correlational
c. One CANNOT say without additional information (i.e., it could be either
depending on how well the researcher established the three necessary conditions for cause
and effect)
292 _______ is the most commonly used technique for controlling for extraneous
variables in nonexperimental research.
a. Matching b. Holding extraneous variables constant
c. Statistical control d. Static control
293 It is best to use the method of working multiple hypotheses when _____.
a. You are finished with your research
b. You are planning your research study
c. You are hoping to publish your already obtained research results
d. None of the above
294 Matching can be done when your independent variable is categorical or quantitative.
a. True b. False
295 If a correlation coefficient is .96, we would probably be able to say that the
relationship is ____.
a. Weak b. Strong
c. Statistically significant d. b is true and c is probably true
296 What happens in a completely spurious relationship once the researcher controls for
a confounding third-variable?
a The relationship between the original variables will get stronger
b. The relationship between the original variables will remain unchanged
c. The correlation coefficient will get closer to 1.0
d. The relationship between the original variables will get weaker or, if the original
relationship is fully spurious, it will disappear (i.e., the original relationship will
become zero as measured by a correlation coefficient)
297 Which of the three necessary conditions for cause and effect is almost always
problematic in nonexperimental research?
a. Condition 1: Variable A and Variable B must be related (the relationship
condition).
112
b. Condition 2: Proper time order must be established (the temporal antecedence
condition).
c. Condition 3: The relationship between variable A and Variable B must not be
due to some confounding extraneous variable"
d. Nonexperimental research is always weak on all three of the conditions
298 Which of the following is NOT a form of longitudinal research?
a. Trend study b. Panel study c. Cross-sectional study
299 Observing a relationship between two variables is NOT sufficient grounds for
concluding that the relationship is a causal relationship.
a. True b. False
300 This type of longitudinal research studies the same individuals over an extended
period of time.
a. Trend study b. Panel study c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b
301 This type of research tests hypotheses and theories in order to explain how and why
a phenomenon operates as it does.
a. Descriptive research b. Predictive research
c. Explanatory research d. None of the above
302 The Pearson product moment correlation measures the degree of _________
relationship present between two variables.
a. Curvilinear b. Non-linear c. Linear and quadratic d. Linear
303 Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
a. Generalization to the population b. Random sampling
c. Unique case orientation d. Standardized tests and measures
304 Phenomenology has its disciplinary origins in:
a. Philosophy b. Anthropology c. Sociology d. Many disciplines
305 The primary data analysis approach in ethnography is:
a. Open, axial, and selective coding
b. Holistic description and search for cultural themes
c. Cross-case analysis
d. Identifying essences of a phenomenon
306 The term used to describe suspending preconceptions and learned feelings about a
phenomenon is called:
a. Axial coding b. Design flexibility c. Bracketing d. Ethnography
307 A researcher studies how students who flunk out of high school experienced high
school. She found that it was common for such students to report that they felt like
they had little control of their destiny. Her report that this lack of control was an
invariant part of the students’ experiences suggests that lack of control is _______
of the “flunking out” experience.
a. A narrative b. A grounded theory
c. An essence d. A probabilistic cause
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308 The specific cultural conventions or statements that people who share a culture hold
to be true or false are called ______.
a. Shared attitudes b. Shared beliefs c. Shared values d. Norms
309 The written and unwritten rules that specify appropriate group behaviour are called
_____.
a. Shared attitudes b. Shared beliefs c. Shared values d. Norms
310 Which of the following is not an advantage of studying multiple cases?
a. Multiple cases can be compared for similarities and differences
b. Multiple cases can more effectively test a theory than a single case
c. Generalizations about population are usually better when based on multiple cases.
d. Cost is lower and depth of analysis is easier when you study multiple cases in a
single research study
311 _____ are the standards of a culture about what is good or bad or desirable or
undesirable.
a. Shared attitudes b. Shared beliefs c. Shared values d. Norms
312 _______ is the study of human consciousness and individuals’ experience of some
phenomenon.
a. Phenomenology b. Ethnography
c. Grounded theory d. Case study research
313 Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?
a. Design flexibility b. Inductive analysis c. Context sensitivity d. All of the above
314 ________ is a general methodology for developing theory that is based on data
systematically gathered and analysed.
a. Theory confirmation b. Grounded theory
c. Theory deduction d. All of the above
315 The final stage in grounded theory data analysis is called ___________.
a. Axial coding b. Theoretical saturation
c. Constant comparative method d. Selective coding
316 Which major characteristic of qualitative research refers to studying real world
situations as they unfold naturally?
a. Holistic perspective b. Naturalistic inquiry
c. Dynamic systems d. Inductive analysis
317 In which qualitative research approach is the primary goal to gain access to
individuals’ inner worlds of experience?
a. Phenomenology b. Ethnography c. Grounded theory d. Case study
318 The type of qualitative research that describes the culture of a group of people is
called ____.
a. Phenomenology b. Grounded theory c. Ethnography d. Case study
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319 The grounded theorist is finished analysing data when theoretical saturation occurs.
a. True b. False
320 In which of the following case study designs does the researcher focus her primary
interest on understanding something more general than the particular case?
a. Intrinsic case study b. Instrumental case study
c. Collective case study d. It could be b or c
321 Which of the following phrases best describes "ethnocentrism"?
a. Special words or terms used by the people in a group
b. An external, social scientific view of reality
c. The study of the cultural past of a group of people
d. Judging people from a different culture according to the standards of your own
culture
322 Which of the following is usually not a characteristic of qualitative research?
a. Design flexibility b. Dynamic systems
c. Naturalistic inquiry d. Deductive design
323 Which of the following involves the studying of multiple cases in one research study?
a. Intrinsic case study b. Single case study
c. Instrumental case study d. Collective case study
324 Which of the following does not apply to qualitative research?
a. Data are often words and pictures
b. Uses the inductive scientific method
c. Ends with a statistical report
d. Involves direct and personal contact with participants
325 The difference between ethnographic research and other types of qualitative
research is that ethnographers specifically use the concept of “culture” to help
understand the results.
a. True b. False
326 What term refers to the insider's perspective?
a. Ethnocentrism b. Emic perspective c. Etic perspective d. Holism
327 In data analysis of the grounded theory approach, the step which focuses on the main
idea, developing the story line, and finalizing the theory is called ________.
a. Open coding b. Axial coding
c. Selective coding d. Theoretical saturation
328 Which of the following is not one of the 4 major approaches to qualitative research.
a. Ethnography b. Phenomenology
c. Case study d. Grounded theory e. Nonexperimental
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329 In "phenomenology," a well written report will be highly descriptive of the
participants’ experiences and will often elicit in the reader a feeling that they feel as
though they are experiencing the phenomenon themselves. This experience is called
_____.
a. A phenomenal experience b. A vicarious experience
c. A significant experience d. A dream
330 You want to study a Native American group in New Mexico for a six month period
to learn all you can about them so you can write a book about that particular tribe.
You want the book to be accurate and authentic as well as informative and inspiring.
What type of research will you likely be conducting when you get to New Mexico?
a. Ethnography b. Phenomenology
c. Grounded theory d. Collective case study
331 The emic perspective refers to an external, social scientific view of reality.
a. True b. False
332 _________ is used to describe cultural scenes or the cultural characteristics of a
group of people.
a. Phenomenology b. Ethnography
c. Grounded theory d. Instrumental case study
333 Terms such as “geeks,” “book worms,” “preps,” are known as _____ terms.
a. Emic b. Etic
334 When a researcher identifies so completely with the group being studied that he or
she can no longer remain objective you have what is called _________.
a. Culture shock b. Going native c. Regression d. Cultural relativism
335 A researcher was interested in studying why the “new math” of the 1960s failed. She
interviews several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers
are considered:
a. Primary sources b. Secondary Sources
c. External critics d. Internal critics
336 The process of dealing with concerns over the authenticity of a source is referred to
as:
a. Sourcing b. Internal criticism c. Secondary criticism d. External criticism
337 A researcher studying the history of medical education finds a manuscript that
purports to be from the 14th century. Before he uses the source, he goes to three other
experts who help him identify whether the manuscript is authentic or not. His
authentification of the object is referred to as:
a. Positive criticism b. Internal criticism
c. Secondary criticism d. External criticism
338 A historical researcher studying the implementation of the “new math” during the
1960s uses as a source a text written on the subject by a critic who was a mathematics
teacher during that time period. As she examines the document, she discovers that
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the data that the individual based his or her conclusions on was falsified. Hence, the
conclusions drawn were erroneous. Her analysis of the document to check its
accuracy is referred to as:
a. Positive criticism b. Internal criticism
c. External criticism d. Secondary criticism
339 A researcher is interested in studying approaches to teaching writing in schools
during the 1800s. She discovers a grammar book, but there is no author or copyright
date in the book. She examines the typeface in the book as well as the writing style.
After investigating further, she finds a reference to the book from a teacher’s diary
from the 1800s. The diary also mentions an author’s name. After further searching
around she is able to identify the author of the book. The investigator was engaged
in what process?
a. Sourcing b. Positive criticism
c. Presentism d. Axial coding
340 Historical research is conducted for which of the following reasons?
a. To identify the relationship that the past has to the present
b. To evaluate and record accomplishments of individuals or entities
c. To enhance understanding of the culture in which we live
d. To uncover the unknown
e. All of the above
341 Historical research is interpretative.
a. True b. False
342 The following is a step in the process of historical research?
a. Preparing a report or narrative exposition
b. Identifying a research topic and formulation of the research problem or question
c. Data synthesis
d. Data collection and/or literature review
e. All of the above
343 Oral histories can be based on ______.
a. Interviews with people b. Stories and tales c. Songs d. All of the above
344 In historical research, a primary source _________.
a. Consists of first-hand accounts by witnesses to events
b. Can consist of sources that include original maps, diaries, transcripts of the minutes
of a meeting, and photographs
c. Both a and b
345 In historical research secondary sources are _________.
a. Generally considered more useful that primary sources
b. Generally considered less useful than primary sources
346 In evaluating historical research sources, external criticism ________.
a. Can involve the use of carbon dating and handwriting experts
b. Helps determine the validity, trustworthiness or authenticity of a source
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c. Can involve use of historical linguists’ knowledgeable with the writing style of the
period
d. All of the above
347 Contextualization refers to the process of identifying when and where an event took
place.
a. True b. False
348 The process of determining the reliability or accuracy of the information contained
in the sources collected is known as ______.
a. External criticism b. Internal criticism c. Vagueness d. Presentism
349 Presentism in historical sources ________.
a. Is the presence of the author in a historical source
b. Is a first-hand accounts of events
c. Is the assumption that the present-day connotations of terms also existed in the past
d. Is the assumption that the past influences the present
350 “Comparing document to each other to determine whether they provide the same
information or reach the same conclusion” is known as ________.
a. Contextualization b. Sourcing c. Corroboration d. Negative criticism
351 The “identification of when and where an event took place” is known as _____.
a. Contextualization b. Sourcing c. Corroboration d. Negative criticism
352 Three heuristics suggested by Wine burg (1991) for evaluating documents are:
a. Corroboration, sourcing, and contextualization
b. Sourcing, internal criticism, and external criticism
c. Corroboration, internal criticism and external criticism
d. Contextualization, corroboration and presentism
353 In historical research, data synthesis usually does not include ______.
a. Defining and interpreting key words, phrases and terms
b. Chronologically ordering events
c. Differentiating between how people should behave and how they did behave
d. Inferring causation based on simple correlation
e. Maintaining a distinction between intent and consequences
354 When writing their narratives, many historical researchers prefer to use _____.
a. The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association (1994)
b. The Chicago Manual of Style
c. The Historical Manual of Style
d. The Historian’s Manual of Style
355 According to the typology used in your text, research in which quantitative and
qualitative techniques are mixed in a single study is specifically called:
a. Mixed research b. Mixed method research
c. Mixed model research d. Multimethod research
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356 According to the typology used in your text, research in which quantitative
and qualitative approaches are mixed within or across the stages of the
research process is specifically called:
a. Mixed research b. Mixed method research
c. Mixed model research d. Multimethod research
357 According to the typology used in your text, research in which a quantitative phase
and a qualitative phase are included in the overall research study is specifically
called:
a. Mixed research b. Mixed method research
c. Mixed model research d. Multimethod research
358 The use of a qualitative research objective, collection of qualitative data, and
performance of quantitative analysis is an example of:
a. Mixed method research b. Within-stage mixed model research
c. Across-stage mixed model research d. Mono-method research
359 The use of a quantitative research objective, collection of quantitative data, and the
use of quantitative data analysis is known as:
a. Mixed method research b. Within-stage mixed model research
c. Across-stage mixed model research d. Mono-method research
360 Mixed researchers typically use the pragmatist philosophy.
a. True b. False
361 The pragmatist philosophy is most closely associated with which of the following
positions?
a. The incompatibility thesis b. The compatibility thesis
362 Which of the following is a weakness of quantitative research?
a. Provides precise, numerical data
b. The researcher’s categories that are used might not reflect local constituencies’
understandings
c. Testing hypotheses that are constructed before the data are collected
d. Can study a large number of people
363 Which of the following is a weakness of qualitative research?
a. The results are more easily influenced by the researcher’s personal
idiosyncrasies
b. Data are based on the participant’s own categories of meaning
c. Can determine idiographic causation
d. Useful for describing complex phenomena
364 Which of the following is a weakness of mixed research?
a. Words, pictures, and narrative can be used to add meaning to numbers
b. Researchers can generate and test a grounded theory
c. Numbers can be used to add precision to words, pictures, and narrative
d. It is more time consuming and expensive
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365 If you develop and use a questionnaire that includes closed-ended and open-ended
items then you have done which type of research?
a. Within-stage mixed model research
b. Across-stage mixed model research
366 Here is a mixed design using notation: “QUAL-->QUAN” What type of mixed
research is this?
a. Mixed model b. Mixed method
367 Here is a mixed design using notation: QUAL + QUAN. What does this mean?
a. Qualitative has the dominant status and it is followed by a quantitative phase
b. Quantitative has the dominant status and it is followed by a qualitative phase
c. Qualitative and quantitative are given equal status but the qualitative phase
occurs before the quantitative phase
d. Qualitative and quantitative are given equal status and they are done
concurrently
368 What would this mixed method design be called: QUAL-->QUAN
a. Dominant-status sequential design b. Equal-status sequential design
c. Dominant-status concurrent design d. Equal-status concurrent design
369 What would this mixed method design be called: QUAL-->QUAN
a. Dominant-status sequential design b. Equal-status sequential design
c. Dominant-status concurrent design d. Equal-status concurrent design
370 What would this mixed method design be called: QUAL + QUAN
a. Dominant-status sequential design b. Equal-status sequential design
c. Dominant-status concurrent design d. Equal-status concurrent design
371 What would this mixed method design be called: QUAL + QUAN
a. Dominant-status sequential design b. Equal-status sequential design
c. Dominant-status concurrent design d. Equal-status concurrent design
372 Which of the following cannot be a purpose or rationale for a mixed research design?
a. Triangulation b. Complementarity c. Development
d. Initiation e. Expansion f. All of the above can be purposes
373 Which of the following mixed research rationales seeks elaboration, enhancement,
illustration, clarification of the results from one method with the results from the
other method?
a. Triangulation b. Complementarity
c. Development d. All of the above
374 What two questions must be answered in order to select one of the specific mixed
method designs provided in the textbook?
a. Is the qualitative or quantitative paradigm going to be given priority, or will they
be given equal status in your study?
b. Should the qualitative and quantitative components be carried out concurrently or
sequentially
c. Should the study be theory driven or data driven?
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d. a and c
e. a and b
375 A researcher wants to understand why people are willing to handle snakes as a part
of their church activities in several rural churches in Tennessee, Alabama, and
Georgia. He makes qualitative observations at several churches but also hands out
fairly lengthy instruments that quantitatively measure several constructs (IQ,
religiosity, self-esteem, and a political attitudes). He keeps the qualitative and
quantitative data separate during analysis. He does some mixing during the
discussion of his report about the qualitative and quantitative insights are related.
Which design is this?
a. Dominant-status sequential design b. Equal-status sequential design
c. Dominant-status concurrent design d. Equal-status concurrent design
376 What is the median of the following set of scores? 18, 6, 12, 10, 14?
a. 10 b. 14 c. 18 d. 12
377 Approximately what percentage of scores fall within one standard deviation of the
mean in a normal distribution?
a. 34% b. 95% c. 99% d. 68%
378 The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula is
a. The standard deviation b. The difference between a score and the mean
c. The range d. The mean
379 Let's suppose we are predicting score on a training post-test from number of years
of education and the score on an aptitude test given before training. Here is the
regression equation Y = 25 + .5X1 +10X2, where X1 = years of education and X2 =
aptitude test score. What is the predicted score for someone with 10 years of
education and an aptitude test score of 5?
a. 25 b. 50 c. 35 d. 80
380 The standard deviation is:
a. The square root of the variance
b. A measure of variability
c. An approximate indicator of how numbers vary from the mean
d. All of the above
381 Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics.
a. True b. False
382 A set of data organized in a participants (rows)-by-variables (columns) format is
known as a “data set.”
a. True b. False
383 A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ____.
a. Line graph b. Bar graph c. Scatterplot d. Vertical graph
384 The goal of ___________ is to focus on summarizing and explaining a specific set of
data.
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a. Inferential statistics b. Descriptive statistics
c. None of the above d. All of the above
385 The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called the ____.
a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range
386 As a general rule, the _______ is the best measure of central tendency because it is
more precise.
a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range
387 Focusing on describing or explaining data versus going beyond immediate data and
making inferences is the difference between _______.
a. Central tendency and common tendency
b. Mutually exclusive and mutually exhaustive properties
c. Descriptive and inferential
d. Positive skew and negative skew
388 Why are variance and standard deviation the most popular measures of
variability?
a. They are the most stable and are foundations for more advanced statistical
analysis
b. They are the most simple to calculate with large data sets
c. They provide nominally scaled data
d. None of the above
389 ____________ is the set of procedures used to explain or predict the values of a
dependent variable based on the values of one or more independent variables.
a. Regression analysis b. Regression coefficient
c. Regression equation d. Regression line
390 The ______ is the value you calculate when you want the arithmetic average.
a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. All of the above
391 ___________ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between
two quantitative variables.
a. Bar graphs b. Pie graphs c. Line graphs d. Scatterplots
392 The _______ is often the preferred measure of central tendency if the data are
severely skewed.
a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range
393 Which of the following is the formula for range?
a. H + L b. L x H c. L - H d. H – L
394 Which is a raw score that has been transformed into standard deviation units?
a. z score b. SDU score c. t score d. e score
395 Which of the following is NOT a measure of variability?
a. Median b. Variance c. Standard deviation d. Range
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396 Which of the following is NOT a common measure of central tendency?
a. Mode b. Range c. Median d. Mean
397 What is the median of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9 and 2000000?
a. 7.5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 4
398 What is the mean of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9 and 2000000?
a. 7.5 b. 400,005.2 c. 7 d. 4
399 Which of the following is interpreted as the percentage of scores in a reference group
that falls below a particular raw score?
a. Standard scores b. Percentile rank
c. Reference group d. None of the above
400 The median is ______.
a. The middle point b. The highest number
c. The average d. Affected by extreme scores
401 Which measure of central tendency takes into account the magnitude of scores?
a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range
402 If a test was generally very easy, except for a few students who had very low scores,
then the distribution of scores would be _____.
a. Positively skewed b. Negatively skewed c. Not skewed at all d. Normal
403 How many dependent variables are used in multiple regression?
a. One b. One or more c. Two or more d. Two
404 Which of the following represents the fiftieth percentile, or the middle point in a set
of numbers arranged in order of magnitude?
a. Mode b. Median c. Mean d. Variance
405 If a distribution is skewed to the left, then it is __________.
a. Negatively skewed b. Positively skewed
c. Symmetrically skewed d. Symmetrical
406 In a grouped frequency distribution, the intervals should be what?
a. Mutually exclusive b. Exhaustive c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B
407 When a set of numbers is heterogeneous, you can place more trust in the measure of
central tendency as representing the typical person or unit.
a. True b. False
408 Non-overlapping categories or intervals are known as ______.
a. Inclusive b. Exhaustive
c. Mutually exclusive d. Mutually exclusive and exhaustive
409 To interpret the relationship between two categorical variables, a contingency table
should be constructed with either column or row percentages, and ----.
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a. If the percentages are calculated down the columns, then comparisons should be
made across the rows
b. If the percentages are calculated across the rows, comparisons should be made
down the columns
c. Both a and b are correct
d. Neither a nor b is correct
410 Which of the following symbols represents a population parameter?
a. SD b. σ c. r d. 0
411 If you drew all possible samples from some population, calculated the mean for each
of the samples, and constructed a line graph (showing the shape of the distribution)
based on all of those means, what would you have?
a. A population distribution b. A sample distribution
c. A sampling distribution d. A parameter distribution
412 What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval?
a. The process you used will capture the true parameter 95% of the time in the long
run
b. You can be “95% confident” that your interval will include the population parameter
c. You can be “5% confident” that your interval will not include the population parameter
d. All of the above statements are true
413 What would happen (other things equal) to a confidence interval if you calculated a
99 percent confidence interval rather than a 95 percent confidence interval?
a. It will be narrower b. It will not change
c. The sample size will increase d. It will become wider
414 Which of the following statements sounds like a null hypothesis?
a. The coin is not fair
b. There is a correlation in the population
c. There is no difference between male and female incomes in the population
d. The defendant is guilty
415 The analysis of variance is a statistical test that is used to compare how many group
means?
a. Three or more b. Two or more
416 What is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution called?
a. Sampling error b. Sample error c. Standard error d. Simple error
417 Hypothesis testing and estimation are the two key branches of the field of inferential
statistics?
a. True b. False
418 A ______ is a subset of a _________.
a. Sample, population b. Population, sample
c. Statistic, parameter d. Parameter, statistic
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419 A _______ is a numerical characteristic of a sample and a ______ is a numerical
characteristic of a population.
a. Sample, population b. Population, sample
c. Statistic, parameter d. Parameter, statistic
420 A sampling distribution might be based on which of the following?
a. Sample means b. Sample correlations
c. Sample proportions d. All of the above
421 As a general rule, researchers tend to use ____ percent confidence intervals.
a. 99% b. 95% c. 50% d. none of the above
422 Which of the following is the researcher usually interested in supporting when he or
she is engaging in hypothesis testing?
a. The alternative hypothesis
b. The null hypothesis
c. Both the alternative and null hypothesis
d. Neither the alternative or null hypothesis
423 When p<.05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed
relationship, it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that
the author is using a significance or alpha level of .05).
a. True b. False
424 When p>05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed
relationship, it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that
the author is using a significance or alpha level of .05).
a. True b. False
425 _________ are the values that mark the boundaries of the confidence interval.
a. Confidence intervals b. Confidence limits
c. Levels of confidence d. Margin of error
426 _____ results if you fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is
actually false.
a. Type I error b. Type II error
c. Type III error d. Type IV error
427 A good way to get a small standard error is to use a ________.
a. Repeated sampling b. Small sample
c. Large sample d. Large population
428 The car will probably cost about 16,000 dollars; this number sounds more like a(n):
a. Point estimate b. Interval estimate
429 Identify which of the following steps would not be included in hypothesis testing.
a. State the null and alternative hypotheses
b. Set the significance level before the research study
c. Eliminate all outliers
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d. Obtain the probability value using a computer program such as SPSS
e. Compare the probability value to the significance level and make the statistical
decision
430 A ________ is a range of numbers inferred from the sample that has a certain
probability of including the population parameter over the long run.
a. Hypothesis b. Lower limit
c. Confidence interval d. Probability limit
431 ________ is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution.
a. Standard error b. Sample standard deviation
c. Replication error d. Meta error
432 An effect size indicator is a statistical measure of the strength of a relationship.
a. True b. False
435. A post hoc test is ___.
a. A test to compare two or more means in one overall test
b. A test to determine regression to the mean
c. A follow-up test to the analysis of variance when there are three or more
groups
d. A follow-up test to the independent t-test
436. The use of the laws of probability to make inferences and draw statistical
conclusions about populations based on sample data is referred to as
___________.
a. Descriptive statistics b. Inferential statistics
c. Sample statistics d. Population statistics
437. A statistical test used to compare 2 or more group means is known as _____.
a. One-way analysis of variance b. Post hoc test
c. t-test for correlation coefficients d. Simple regression
438. A statistical test used to determine whether a correlation coefficient is
statistically significant is called the ___________.
a. One-way analysis of variance b. T-test for independent samples
c. Chi-square test for contingency tables d. T-test for correlation coefficients
439. The cut-off the researcher uses to decide whether to reject the null hypothesis
is called the:
a. Significance level b. Alpha level
c. Probability value d. Both a and b are correct
440. Which ____ percent confidence interval will be the widest (i.e., the least
precise) for a particular data set that includes exactly 500 cases?
a. 99% b. 95% c. 90% d. None of the above
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441. As sample size goes up, what tends to happen to 95% confidence intervals?
a. They become more precise b. They become narrower
c. They become wider d. Both a and b
442. __________ is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis.
a. Type I error b. Type II error
c. Type A error d. Type B error
443. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the logic of
hypothesis testing?
a. When the null hypothesis is true, it should be rejected
b. When the null hypothesis is true, it should not be rejected
c. When the null hypothesis is false, it should be rejected
d. When the null hypothesis is false, it should not be rejected
e. Both b and c are true
444. What is the key question in the field of statistical estimation?
a. Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of the population
parameter?
b. Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of normal distribution?
c. Is the value of my sample statistic unlikely enough for me to reject the null
hypothesis?
d. There is no key question in statistical estimation
445. Assuming innocence until “proven” guilty, a Type I error occurs when an
innocent person is found guilty.
a. True b. False
446. This is the difference between a sample statistic and the corresponding
population parameter.
a. Standard error b. Sampling error
c. Difference error d. None of the above
447. The “equals” sign (=) is included in which hypothesis when conducting
hypothesis testing?
a. Null b. Alternative
c. It can appear in both the null and the alternative hypothesis
448. A Type I error is also known as a ______.
a. False positive b. False negative c. Double negative d. Positive
negative
449. A Type II error is also known as a ______.
a. False positive b. False negative c. Double negative d. Positive
negative
450. If a finding is statistically significant one must also interpret the data, calculate
an effect size indicator, and make an assessment of practical significance.
a. True b. False
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451. The p-value used in statistical significance testing should be used to assess how
strong a relationship is. For example, if relationship A has a p=.04 and
relationship B has a p=.03 then you can conclude that relationship B is stronger
than relationship A.
a. True b. False
452. A researcher does a study of students' phenomenological feelings about
problem solving. One of her categories of codes involves positive affect. Two
subcategories of that category of positive affect are smiles when solves the
problem, and shouts hooray when finished. The relation between these
subcategories and the overall category of positive affect is:
a. Spatial b. Sequence c. Strict inclusion d. Function
453. In looking at the relationships between coding categories, the relation, "X is a
place in Y; X is part of Y" in Spradley's taxonomy of semantic relations is
labelled:
a. Spatial b. Rationale c. Means-end d. Strict inclusion
454. In looking at the relationships between coding categories, the relation X is a
kind of Y in Spradley's taxonomy of semantic relations is labelled:
a. Spatial b. Rationale c. Means-end d. Strict inclusion
455. A researcher is doing a study of peer groups in middle school. She interviews 5
girls and 5 boys. She is doing a grounded theory study; hence, she decides to
generate her codes as she scans through her transcriptions of her data. These
codes are labelled:
a. A priori codes b. Post hoc codes c. Inductive codes d. Master list
codes
456. Raja is a qualitative researcher studying how children and parents interact in
Head Start Centres. As he examines his data (videotapes and transcripts), he
jots down notes concerning the interactions, generating hypotheses, suggesting
relationships among categories of information he is examining and so on. This
process of jotting notes as he examines the data is called:
a. Memoing b. Transcription c. Face sheet coding d. Drawing diagrams
457. Qualitative data analysis is still a relatively new and rapidly developing branch
of research methodology.
a. True b. False
458. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words, or
category names is known as _______.
a. Concurring b. Coding c. Coloring d. Segmenting
459. What is the cyclical process of collecting and analysing data during a single
research study called?
a. Interim analysis b. Inter analysis c. Inter-item analysis d. Constant analysis
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460. What is the recording of reflective notes about what you are learning from your
data during data analysis called?
a. Coding b. Segmenting c. Memoing d. Reflecting
461. Which of the following is one of Spradley’s types of relationships?
a. Strict inclusion b. Sequence c. Cause-effect d. All of the above
462. Which of the following is not one of Spradley’s types of relationships?
a. Strict inclusion b. Sequence c. Cause-effect d. Correlational
463. Codes that apply to a complete document or case are called ________.
a. Cover codes b. False sheet codes
c. Factual codes d. Face sheet codes
464. A classification system generally used in the social sciences that breaks
something down into different types or levels is called a ________.
a. Diagram b. Flow chart c. Hierarchical category system d.
Category
465. When you have high consistency among different coders about the appropriate
codes for a set of data, you have ____.
a. High intercoder reliability b. High intracoder reliability
466. Codes developed before examining the current data being coded are called
______.
a. Co-occurring codes b. Inductive codes
c. A priori codes d. Face sheet codes
467. The process of quantifying data is referred to as _________.
a. Typology b. Diagramming c. Enumeration d. Coding
468. Which of the following refers to the cyclical process of collecting and analysing
data during a single research study?
a. Memoing b. Segmenting c. Coding d. Interim analysis
469. An advantage of using computer programs for qualitative data is that they
_______.
a. Can reduce time required to analyze data (i.e., after the data are transcribed)
b. Help in storing and organizing data
c. Make many procedures available that are rarely done by hand due to time
constraints
d. All of the above
470. _________ are codes that are developed during the process of coding.
a. Inductive codes b. A priori codes c. Co-occurring codes d. Face sheet
codes
471. Boolean operators are words that are used to create logical combinations.
a. True b. False
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472. __________ are the basic building blocks of qualitative data.
a. Categories b. Units c. Individuals d. None of the above
473. When a segment of textual data has overlapping codes, this is called a (n)
__________.
a. Inductive code b. Co-occurring codes c. Priori code d. Face sheet code
474. This is the process of transforming qualitative research data from written
interviews or field notes into typed text.
a. Segmenting b. Coding c. Transcription d. Memoing
475. Network diagrams show only direct links between variables or events over
time.
a. True b. False
476. A challenge of qualitative data analysis is that it often includes data that are
unwieldy and complex; it is a major challenge to make sense of the large pool
of data.
a. True b. False
477. When a citation includes more than ____ authors, only the surname of the first
author is cited followed by et al.
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
478. When referencing other works you have cited within the text of the report you
should
a. State the first and last name of the author
b. Use the author, date citation method
c. Use an asterisk and a footnote
d. Insert the complete citation in parenthesis
479. Which of the following abbreviations can be used in a research report?
a. IQ b. sec. for second c. yr. for year d. mo. for
month
480. Editorial style specifies that ______ should be used infrequently or sparingly.
a. Italics b. Abbreviations c. Headings d. Both a and b
481. The factor that should determine whether you decide to prepare a research
report of you study for a conference or for publication is
a. Whether the study is free from flaws
b. Whether the study is important enough to justify presentation or publication
c. Whether others would be interested in the work
d. All of the above
482. Which of the following is not true about the use of language in research
reports?
a. You should choose accurate and clear words that are free from bias.
b. You should avoid labelling people whenever possible
c. You should avoid using the term “subjects” whenever possible
130
d. All of the above are true according to the APA Guidelines
483. Regarding disabilities, writers should “avoid equating people with their
disabilities” such as in mentally retarded people.
a. True b. False
484. You should avoid the use of sexist language in research reports.
a. True b. False
485. Which is more appropriate when referring to someone with a disability?
a. A stroke victim b. A person who has had a stroke
486. You should try to use italics frequently when writing a report.
a. True b. False
487. You should try to use abbreviations sparingly.
a. True b. False
488. Use words for numbers that begin a sentence and for numbers that are below
ten.
a. True b. False
489. You should double space all material in the manuscript.
a. True b. False
490. Which of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research
report?
a. Results b. Abstract c. Method d. Footnotes
491. The Introduction section should not be labelled.
a. True b. False
492. The abstract should be about how many words?
a. 50 b. 75 c. 120 d. 300
493. The Method section should start on a separate page in a manuscript.
a. True b. False
494. It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results.
a. Introduction b. Method c. Results d. Discussion
495. Where do you provide a step-by-step account of what the researcher and
participants did during the research study?
a. Introduction b. Abstract c. Procedure d.
Design
496. References should be single spaced.
a. True b. False
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497. Qualitative research reports do not need a Method section.
a. True b. False
498. When writing the qualitative results section, an overriding concern should be
to provide sufficient and convincing evidence to back up your assertions.
a. True b. False
499. When writing the qualitative results section, you will need to find an
appropriate balance between description and interpretation.
a. True b. False
500. Diagrams, matrices, tables, and figures should never be used in qualitative
research reports.
a. True b. False
501. Your textbook authors argued that in qualitative research it is important to fit
the research findings back into the relevant research literature even if the study
is exploratory.
a. True b. False
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Answers
1. b 49. c 94. d 142. e 190. c
2. a 50. b 95. b 143. a 191. d
3. b 51. d 96. b 144. b 192. b
4. a 52. c 97. b 145. a 193. d
5. b 98. c 146. c 194. d
6. d 53. a 99. b. 147. b 195. c
7. c 54. a 100. b 148. b 196. b
8. d 55. d 101. d 149. d 197. c
9. c 56. d 102. a 150. d 198. a
10. a 57. b 103. a 151. c 199. b
11. a 58. d 104. a 152. b 200. d
12. d 59. d 105. a 153. b 201. a
13. d 60. a 106. c 154. d 202. b
14. d 61. c 107. c 155. e 203. c
15. a 108. b 156. e 204. a
16. b 62. d 109. b 157. c 205. a
17. a 63. d 110. a 158. d 206. b
18. b 64. d 111. c 159. a 207. c
19. a 65. e 112. a 160. c 208. c
20. b 66. a 113. b 161. d 209. c
21. d 67. d 114. c 162. b 210. c
22. c 68. b 115. a 163. d 211. b
23. b 69. d 116. c 164. d 212. d
24. b 117. c 165. a 213. a
25. b 70. b 118. b 166. b 214. c
26. c 71. d 119. a 167. c 215. a
27. d 72. e 120. c 168. c 216. d
28. a 73. d 121. d 169. b 217. c
29. b 74. e 122. d 170. a 218. a
30. d 75. a 123. a 171. b 219. d
31. d 76. b 124. c 172. d 220. d
32. b 77. d 125. d 173. a 221. b
33. b 78. e 126. c 174. b 222. c
34. d 79. d 127. a 175. d 223. a
35. e 80. a 128. d 176. d 224. c
36. b 81. a 129. d 177. a 225. b
37. b 82. b 130. c 178. c 226. a
38. d 83. b 131. d 179. c 227. c
39. a 84. b 132. d 180. b 228. d
40. a 85. b 133. b 181. c 229. d
41. d 86. a 134. c 182. b 230. d
42. c 87. c 135. b 183. c 231. c
43. b 88. a 136. c 184. c 232. b
44. d 89. c 137. b 185. a 233. d
45. a 90. c 138. a 186. d 234. e
46. d 91. b 139. c 187. d 235. c
47. a 92. a 140. d 188. d 236. b
48. b 93. c 141. a 189. b 237. c
133
238. c 288. a 338. b 388. a 439. d
239. c 289. a 339. a 389. a 440. a
240. b 290. c 340. e 390. a 441. d
241. d 291. c 341. a 391. d 442. b
242. d 292. c 342. e 392. b 443. e
243. a 293. b 343. d 393. d 444. a
244. d 294. a 344. c 394. a 445. a
245. b 295. d 345. b 395. a 446. b
246. d 296. d 346. d 396. b 447. a
247. a 297. c 347. a 397. c 448. a
248. a 298. c 348. b 398. b 449. b
249. b 3 299. a 349. c 399. b 450. a
250. b 300. b 350. c 400. a 451. b
251. d 301. c 351. a 401. a 452. c
252. b 302. d 352. a 402. b 453. a
253. d 303. c 353. d 403. a 454. d
254. b 304. a 354. b 404. b 455. c
255. c 305. b 355. a 405. a 456. a
256. c 306. c 356. c 406. c 457. a
b
458.
407.
b
257. d 307. c 357. b 408. c 459. a
258. b 308. b 358. c 409. c 460. c
259. a 309. d 359. d 410. b 461. d
260. d 310. d 360. a 411. c 462. d
261. a 311. c 361. b 412. d 463. d
262. a 312. a 362. b 413. d 464. c
263. c 313. d 363. a 414. c 465. a
264. a 314. b 364. d 415. b 466. c
265. a 315. d 365. a 416. c 467. c
266. c 316. b 366. b 417. a 468. d
267. d 317. a 367. d 418. a 469. d
268. c 318. c 368. a 419. c 470. a
269. a 319. a 369. b 420. d 471. a
270. b 320. d 370. c 421. b 472. a
271. d 321. d 371. d 422. a 473. b
272. c 322. d 372. f 423. a 474. c
273. a 323. d 373. b 424. b 475. b
274. a 324. c 374. e 425. b 476. a
275. c 325. a 375. d 426. b 477. d
276. a 326. b 376. d 427. c 478. b
277. d 327. c 377. d 428. a 479. a
278. d 328. e 378. a 429. c 480. d
279. d 329. b 379. d 430. c 481. d
280. b 330. a 380. d 431. a 482. d
281. a 331. b 381. b 432. a 483. a
282. d 332. b 382. a 433. e 484. a
283. a 333. a 383. b 434. a 485. b
284. d 334. b 384. b 435. c 486. b
285. a 335. a 385. c 436. b 487. a
286. d 336. d 386. a 437. a 488. a
287. d 337. d 387. c 438. d 489. a
134
490. d
491. a
492. c
493. b
494. d
495. c
496. b
497. b
498. a
499. a
500. b
501. a
135
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