176. Project stakeholder management includes the processes of identifying the people and groups
impacted by the project. Processes help to find the right stakeholders and develop approaches to
involve them based on their needs. Natalie is working on the project as a project manager. She is
working on communicating with stakeholders to meet their needs and tailoring strategies
according to stakeholders and their needs. She is working on all the 4 processes in project
stakeholder management, and she just created stakeholder register and stakeholder engagement
plan. One of the options given below is not a valid process in project stakeholder management.
Identify the invalid process from the given choices.
A. Plan stakeholder engagement.
B. Conduct stakeholder management.
C. Identify stakeholders.
D. Manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement.
177. Helen is the project manager in a company that is manufacturing storage tanks. She is
working on the earned monetary value in the current project that she is working on. She is
reporting to Bruce who is the PMO for the group of projects. Bruce asked Helen to calculate the
project EMV for the project that she is working on. The current project is to reduce the errors in
the accounting system, and has 70 % chance of saving the company $200,000 over the next year.
It has 30 % chance of costing the company $100,000. What’s the project EMV?
A. $ 140,000
B. $30,000
C. $110,000
D. $170,000
178. Discount Inc. is the market leader in coupon industry. Justin is working on a project which
has multiple iterations. He is involved in the processes required to identify people that could be
impacted by the project. He is also involved in developing the strategies for managing those
affected by the project by involving them in project decisions. What are the main outputs of the
process group Justin is involved in?
A. Stakeholder engagement plan.
B. Work performance information, change requests.
C. Stakeholder register.
D. All of the above.
179. Lori is the key stakeholder as well as the project manager in the project. She reports to
Lawrence. She is working on one of the data representation technique called stakeholder
engagement assessment matrix. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix compares the current
engagement levels of stakeholders and the desired engagement levels for the success of the
project. Stakeholder’s engagement levels are classified into?
A. Supportive, resistant, aware.
B. Unaware, neutral, resistant, supportive, leading.
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C. Internal, external, neutral, resistant.
D. Supportive, aware, neutral.
180. Daniel is working on the data representation techniques for FirstCorp Inc. Daniel is working
on all the processes in project stakeholder management. Some of the Classification models used
in stakeholder analysis are?
A. Power/interest grid, power/influence grid or influence/impact grid.
B. Stakeholder cube.
C. Salience model.
D. All of the above.
181. Gilbert is working on a stakeholder management project. He is working on developing a
matrix that denotes the current engagement level and desired engagement level. The current
engagement level by stakeholders is shown as “C” and the desired engagement levels are shown as
“D”. This matrix is used to find the gaps in engagement levels and actions are taken to close the
gap between the current state and desired future state of engagement. The matrix used to find out
the current engagement level and the desired engagement level of stakeholders for the project is
called?
A. RACI matrix.
B. Responsibility assignment matrix.
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Stakeholder assignment engagement matrix.
182. Randall is the project manager of Excel Technologies Inc. He is involved in all the project
risk management processes. He is working on developing strategies for threats as well as
opportunities. One of the given options is not a valid strategy to deal with the threats in the
project. Identify the strategy which is not valid for a threat.
A. Accept.
B. Exploit.
C. Avoid.
D. Escalate.
183. Debra is working for a leading insurance company in USA. The company is handles new
projects for every quarter. Debra is directly reporting to the financial director of the company. In
one of the projects Debra is handling has the information EV = $130500, PV = 125500, AC =
129000, which of the following statements is true?
A. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates project is ahead of schedule. AC is smaller than
EV that indicates project is under budget.
B. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates project is behind the schedule. AC is smaller
than EV that indicates project is under budget.
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C. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates project is ahead of schedule. AC is smaller than
EV that indicates project is over budget.
D. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates project is behind the schedule. AC is smaller
than EV that indicates project is over budget.
184. Eugene is the key stakeholder as well as the project manager in the project. She is working
on some of processes available in project stakeholder management. Currently she is working on a
classification model in stakeholder analysis based on the power, urgency and their involvement in
the project. This model is known as?
A. Power/interest grid.
B. Power/influence grid.
C. Influence/impact grid.
D. Salience model.
185. Stakeholder register is used to identify all the internal and external stakeholders who have
interest and influence on the project. It is used to identify the stakeholders involved in the project
who can provide information related to the requirements. It also contains key requirements for
the project, stakeholder information, their communication needs and requirements. One of the
given options is used to identify all the internal and external stakeholders who have interest and
influence on the project. Which one is it?
A. RACI matrix.
B. Responsibility assignment matrix.
C. Stakeholder register.
D. SWOT.
186. Sam owns a truck company, which delivers machinery. He has 10 employees in the company.
In the current project work, Sam and his team ar e delivering machineries worth 600,000. In the
past during deliveries no issue or accidents have been reported. This time Sam estimates that
there is a 5 percent probability that the equipment could be damaged or lost. While exploring the
possibility of transferring this risk to an insurance company, you found out the insurance
premium 15000. What will be the best course of action?
A. Replace the damaged products.
B. Buy insurance.
C. Take the risk.
D. Do nothing.
187. Madison is the project lead for a major telecom company. Her project currently has 10 more
people assigned to the team beside you. As her project is getting delayed, management wants her
to add 4 additional team members to the project at the end of the month. How many more
communication channels will she have once the additional team members are added?
A. 70
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B. 60
C. 40
D. 50
188. Paul is the project manager of Xylo Corporation. He is involved in all the project risk
management processes. He is working on developing strategies for threats as well as
opportunities. One of the given options is not a valid strategy to deal with the opportunities in the
project. Identify the strategy.
A. Escalate
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Share
189. Joshua is a Stakeholder who has low power or influence and has low interest in the ongoing
project. She is reporting to Samuel who is the functional manager in the organization. Select the
right option to communicate with the stakeholder.
A. Kept informed.
B. Kept satisfied.
C. Monitored.
D. Managed closely.
190. Amana is the project lead for a leading chain store in North America. She handles all the
processes in the project stakeholder management. Amanda reports to Brian who is the senior
manager in the company. Brian wants her to identify all the inputs related to plan stakeholder
management. One of the given options is not a valid input to plan stakeholder management.
Identify it.
A. Project management plan.
B. Stakeholder engagement plan.
C. Project charter.
D. EEF.
191. Christine is the project manager for a project where scope keeps changing. Due to changes in
scope the code also needs to change and updated. At the last iteration, the requested changes are
more. Every time she used to get approval from the change control board since the scope is
baselined. Change requests may include?
A. Corrective action.
B. Preventive action.
C. Defect repair.
D. All of the above.
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192. Andrea is the project manager in a company that manufactures paper boards. She used to
report to Jerry and consult with him regarding the project constraints. They both used to get
guidance from the PMO in the organization. Some of the Project manager competencies are?
A. Technical project management.
B. Leadership.
C. Strategic and business management.
D. All of the above.
193. Lawrence is working as a project manager. Most of his work is project cost estimation
related. Lawrence reports to Christina. The project would cost $6, 00,000. The expected inflows
will be $30, 000 per quarter for the first 2 years and then $90,000 per quarter thereafter. What is
the payback period for this project?
A. 48 months.
B. 24 months.
C. 36 months.
D. 60 months.
194. Decomposition of the total project work into work packages involves the following activities.
A. Identifying and analyzing the deliverables and related work, Structuring and organizing the wbs.
B. Decomposing the upper wbs levels into lower level detailed components.
C. Developing and assigning identification codes to the wbs components, verifying that the degree of
decomposition of the deliverables is appropriate.
D. All of the above.
195. Dylan is the project manager for the company named Synergy Inc. The finance department
allocated a project a budget of 90,000 to develop a program. Dylan is reporting to Scott who is the
director of the company. Dylan found Actual cost AC = 30,000 and Earned value (EV) = 35,000.
What is his EAC (estimate at completion)?
A. $85,000
B. $90,000
C. $70,000
D. $60,000
196. Walter is working on the program which contains a group of projects. Out of 8 projects,
management has selected 2 projects and later on decided to go for Project X, which would yield
$250,000 in benefits instead of project Y, which would yield $200,000. What is the opportunity
cost for selecting project X over Project Y?
A. $50,000
B. $200,000
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C. $250,000
D. $300,000
197. Jacob is the project manager in a multinational company which has many branches
throughout the world. More than 5000 employees are working for his company. Jacob reports to
Amy regarding any issues in the project. Amy asked Jacob to define the problem solving steps.
Which of the following is a problem solving elements?
A. Define the problem, Identify the root-cause.
B. Generating possible solutions, choosing the best solution.
C. Implementing the solution, verifying solution effectiveness.
D. All of the above.
198. Sylvia is the project manager for a project where requirements keep changing. Due to the
requirement change, the scope baseline also needs to change and updated. In the middle of the
iteration the requested changes are more. Every time she used to get approval from change
control board, since the scope is baselined and approved. Change control tools should support
change management activities such as?
A. Identify changes, Document changes.
B. Decide on changes.
C. Track changes.
D. All of the above.
199. Debra is the project manager in the quality control department. She is working on the cost of
quality, which covers the cost of additional work in the project to accommodate the quality-
related activities. The cost of quality work incurred throughout the project consists one or more
of the following costs.
A. Preventive costs.
B. Appraisal costs.
C. Both A and B.
D. only A
200. Kelly is the project manager for a leading company involved in virtual reality. She reports to
Amber. Amber wants Kelly to find out the source selection criteria used in the organization,
which they are working on. Commonly used source selection methods is?
A. least cost, qualifications only.
B. Quality based/highest technical proposal score.
C. Quality and cost based, sole source, fixed budget.
D. All of the above.
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Answers to Practice Questions:
1. Answer: D. A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product. It has a definite
beginning and an end. It can be a part of a program or portfolio. Project drive changes to the
organization.
2. Answer. B. Market demand is not a valid project constraint. Valid project constraints are risk,
quality, resources, budget, scope and schedule.
3. Answer: Option A is not a valid option for project trigger. Valid options are legal requirements,
market demand, customer request, technology and social needs.
4. Answer: Option B is correct. Operations work is ongoing and repeatable. Other options are related to
the characteristics of the project.
5. Answer: Option C is correct. Program is a collection of related projects which are closely linked,
Project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, and Portfolio is a group of
projects or programs which are linked together by a common objective.
6. Answer: Option A is not an objective of PMO. It is one of the project manager’s tasks. The functions
of PMO are;
Manage shared resources.
Coaching, mentoring, guidance whenever needed.
Identify and develop project management methodology, standards and best practices.
Monitoring compliance with project management processes by audits.
Develop and manage organizational process assets such as procedures, templates,
policies.
Communications between projects.
7. Answer: Option B is correct. The level of control is high in directive PMO Structure. The level of
control is medium in controlling PMO Structure. The level of control is low in supportive PMO
structure.
8. Answer: Option C is not one of the core competencies of a project manager. It is one of the
interpersonal skills of a project manager. Project managers should have the competencies shown below,
Knowledge: How much they know about project management.
Performance: A project manager is able to apply the knowledge to get the results.
Personal: It is the attitude and other personal characteristics, leadership shown when
doing the project.
9. Answer: Option A is correct. Based on the control and influence the PMO structure may be,
Supportive : This type serves as a project repository, and the role in this type is
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consultative. The level of control is low.
Controlling : It has a moderate level of control. Provide supportive roles and requires
compliance.
Directing : Directly involves in projects and programs. The level of control is high.
10. Answer: Option B is correct. Directing PMO structure which appoints project manager and manages
all the projects in the organization.
11. Answer: Option B is not a valid matrix organization. Other options are correct. Matrix organization
is subdivided into 3 categories as weak matrix organization, strong matrix organization and balanced
matrix organization.
12. Answer: Option C is correct. Richard is working in a functional organization. In a Functional
organization:
Project team reports to functional managers.
Organization is grouped by functional areas e.g.: marketing, sales etc.
Project managers have not much influence/power in this type of organization.
Project managers work as an assistant to the functional managers.
Project managers mostly work on administrative tasks in the project.
13. Answer: Option B is correct. Paul is working in a projectized organization.
Projectized organization:
Project teams are grouped based on the projects. Once the project work is done, the
project team is disbanded and the team members continue to work on other projects.
The project manager is responsible for the project's success and has authority.
The project manager can make key decisions related to resources, budget, and schedule.
Project coordinators and expeditors won't exist in projectized organization.
When the work is complete, the team members don't have departments to go back to.
14. Answer: Option D is correct. Sam is working in a weak matrix organization.
Weak matrix organization:
Functional manager has more authority than the project manager.
Major project decisions are taken by the functional manager.
Project manager role in this type of organization is part time.
Power of project manager is similar to expeditor (can't make any decisions in the project)
and project coordinators (can make some decisions).
15. Answer: Option C is correct. During the Initiating phase of the projects project risks and
uncertainties are higher. Risk and uncertainty high at the beginning of the project and decrease during
the course of the project.
16. Answer: Option B is correct. In a projectized organization, Project expeditors and coordinators
don’t exist. In a weak matrix organization the Power of project manager is similar to expeditor (can't
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make any decisions in the project) and project coordinators (can make some decisions).
17. Answer: Option C is correct. Stakeholder register is used to identify the people who are affected by
the project. A stakeholder register is used to identify the stakeholders involved in the project who can
provide information related to the requirements. Also it contains the key requirements for the project.
18. Answer: Option D is not a valid phase-to-phase relationship. Valid phase-to-phase relationship is
sequential relationship and overlapping relationship.
19. Answer: Option B is correct. Sequential phase-to-phase relationship, the next phase starts only if
the previous phase is complete. This step-by-step approach reduces risk, but the overall schedule may
be impacted.
20. Answer: Option B is OPA (organizational process asset). It refers to conditions that are not under
the project team’s control, and it influences the project. Some of the EEF factors are:
Market condition.
Organizational culture, structure and governance.
Human resources.
Personal administration.
Political conditions.
Work authorization system.
PMIS (project management information systems).
Government and industry standards.
Commercial databases.
Stakeholder risk tolerance.
Infrastructure.
Communication channels.
21. Answer: Option C is EEF (Enterprise environmental factor). Some of the OPA are,
Historical records.
Templates.
Plans, processes and procedures.
Lessons learned.
22. Answer: Option A is correct. In a Projectized organization;
Project teams are grouped based on the projects. Once the project work is done, the
project team is disbanded and the team members continue to work on other projects.
Project manager is responsible for the project’s success and has authority.
Project manager can make key decisions related to resources, budget, and schedule.
Project coordinators and expeditors won’t exist in projectized organization.
When the work is complete, the team members don’t have departments to go back.
23. Answer: Option C is correct. In a Matrix organization conflicts are more, and resource allocation is
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difficult also the team members have more than one person to report.
24. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the characteristics of a functional organization are:
Project team reports to functional managers.
Organization is grouped by functional areas e.g.: marketing, sales, etc.
Project managers have no much influence/power in this type of organization.
They work as an assistant to the functional managers.
Project managers mostly work on administrative tasks in the project.
25. Answer: Option B is correct. Predictive life cycle is also called plan-driven lifecycle. In this
lifecycle scope, cost and schedule are determined in the early stage of the project, before starting the
work. Projects go through series of sequential or overlapping phases. Project is initiated and the team
define the scope of the project, then creates the plan to develop the product, and execute the work. Any
changes to the scope are managed through the change control process and it requires re-planning and
formal acceptance.
When the scope is well known then the project work is done by the predictive lifecycle.
26. Answer: Option C is correct. Initiating process is to define and authorization to start the project.
Initiate the project and decide what is going to be built for the project. It is using the identify
stakeholder and develop project charter. The main outputs in this process group are project charter,
identified stakeholders and stakeholder register. Project manager is assigned during this process. Once
the project charter is approved, the project starts officially.
27. Answer: Option C is correct. It formally authorizes a project. Project charter authorizes the PM to
apply resources to complete the work on the project. It is the first thing done on a project. An approved
project charter initiates the project.
It is in the Initiating process group. Since project is sponsored by sponsors, charter needs to be approved
by sponsors. PM should be allocated while developing the project charter for the purpose of
understanding the requirements. Charter identifies the business needs and stakeholders' expectations.
28. Answer: Option D is correct. Executing process, executes the defined plan, to complete the work
defined in project management plan. Actual project work is done in the executing process group.
Project costs are usually high in this process group since it is utilizing all the resources to complete the
project. As per the project management plan execution process group perform the activities to complete
the work defined. It involves managing stakeholders and their expectations, manage resources, and
perform the activities as per the project management plan.
During execution of project the plan may change, and the baselines must be updated to reflect the
changes. As a result change requests are created to bring back the project as per the plan. Change
request approvals are done for preventive, corrective actions and defect repairs.
29. Answer: Option B is correct. Monitor and control measures and monitors the progress and
performance of the project, and identify if there are any variances and take corrective actions if needed.
30. Answer: Option B is correct. The knowledge area integrates with all parts of the project is called
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project integration management.
31. Answer: Option D is correct. Project enters into the closing process group when the project phase is
completed or the project is completed. The closing process group formally completes all the activities
across all project management groups in a project phase or a project or contractual obligations.
Premature closure of the project is also formally done in this process group. During project closure, the
following may happen.
Obtain formal sign-off from customer for the project or phase.
Conduct post-project review.
Measure customer satisfaction.
Archive project records and documents.
Document lessons learned.
Update organizational project assets.
Transfer products to operations.
Release the team.
Close the contract.
32. Answer: Option C is correct. Planning is an iterative process, and it must be done throughout the
project as more information is available is called progressive elaboration. Work to be done in the near
(next) iteration is planned in detail, and the work in the future is planned at a higher level. It is called
progressive elaboration.
33. Answer: Option C is correct.
Laissez-faire: Allows the team to make their own decisions and establish their own goals.
Charismatic: The leader has a high energy level and enthusiastic and self-confident. Able to inspire the
team by their activities.
Servant leader: This type of leader committed to serve and put others first. They focus on other people’s
growth, learning, development, autonomy and well-being.
Interactional: This type of leader has the combination of transactional, transformational and charismatic
leadership styles.
Transactional: This type of a leader focuses on goals, feedback and accomplishment to determine
rewards.
Transformational: They empower the followers through encouragement for innovation and creativity
and individual consideration.
34. Answer: Option D is correct. An effective project manager has the following characteristics.
Courteous
Creative
Authentic
Intellectual
Managerial
Political
Social
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Service-oriented
cultural
35. Answer: Option C is correct. The activities in the monitor and control process group are measure
progress and performance, find out the variance, and recommend preventive and corrective actions
through change control, updates to the project management plan.
Monitoring and control process group track, measure and review the progress and performance of the
project, to ensure the project is on track and identify areas in which changes to the plan are required and
initiate the changes. Performance is measured at regular intervals to verify the variance from the project
management plan.
36. Answer: Option C is correct. James is working on the process to direct and manage project work.
The key outputs of the process are:
Deliverables,
change requests,
issue log,
work performance data,
project management plan updates,
project document updates,
OPA updates.
37. Answer: Option C is correct. The process group which Obtains formal sign-off from the customer
for the project or phase, Measure customer satisfaction, Archive project records and documents,
Document lessons learned, Release the team is called closing.
Project enters into the closing process group when the project phase is completed or the project is
completed. The closing process group formally completes all the activities across all project
management groups in a project phase or a project or contractual obligations. Premature closure of the
project is also formally done in this process group. During project closure, the following may happen.
Obtain formal sign-off from customer for the project or phase.
Conduct post-project review.
Measure customer satisfaction.
Archive project records and documents.
Document lessons learned.
Update organizational project assets.
Transfer products to operations.
Release the team.
Close the contract.
38. Answer: Option D is correct. This log keeps recording all the issues occurred during execution of
the project, and it needs to be shared with the stakeholders. This log is kept updated throughout the
project, whenever new issues are identified. An issue log is the project document, where all the issues
are recorded and tracked, data on issue log includes;
Issue type, who raised the issue and when, description, priority, who is assigned to the
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issue, target resolution date, status and final solution.
39. Answer: Option B is correct. Initiating, planning, executing, monitor and control, closing process
groups must be included in all the projects.
40. Answer: Option C is correct. The projects within a program may impact a project due to.
Priorities of funding.
Demand for the same resource.
Alignment of project goals and objectives with the organization.
Distribution of deliverables.
41. Answer: Option C is not correct. It is related to business case.
Project charter formally authorizes a project. Project charter authorizes the PM to apply resources to
complete the work on the project. It is the first thing done in a project. An approved project charter
initiates the project.
It is in the Initiating process group. Since project is sponsored by sponsors, charter needs to be approved
by sponsors. PM should be allocated while developing the project charter for the purpose of
understanding the requirements. Charter identifies the business needs and stakeholders' expectations.
Key Contents of Project Charter:
Project Title and description.
Stakeholders.
Business case.
Project constraints and assumptions.
Sponsor for the project.
Stakeholder influence/authority level.
Product description.
Budget for the project.
PM & their roles, authority etc.
Project Risks.
Project justification.
42. Answer: Option B is not a process in project integration management. Valid processes in project
integration management are:
Develop project charter.
Develop project management plan.
Direct and manage project work.
Manage project knowledge.
Monitor and control project work.
Perform integrated change control.
Close project or phase.
43. Answer: Option D is not a valid output. Valid outputs from project integration management are:
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Project charter.
Project management plan.
Assumption log, issue log.
Deliverables, work performance data.
Change requests, lessons learned register, work performance reports.
Approved change requests, final product.
Project document updates, OPA updates.
44. Answer: Option C is correct. Project statement of work describes the business need, the product
scope description and how the project supports the strategic plan. It describes the product that is
delivered by the project.
45. Answer: Option D is correct. The activities related to configuration management performed in
perform integration management are configuration identification, configuration status accounting,
configuration verification and audit.
46. Answer: Option D is correct. Business case is created as a result of:
Market demand.
Customer request.
Organizational needs.
Legal requirement.
Technological advance.
Social needs.
Ecological impact.
47. Answer: Option D is correct. Information management tools and techniques are used to create and
connect people to information. Some of the tools and techniques involved in information management
are:
Lessons learned register.
Library services.
PMIS.
Information gathering.
48. Answer: Option B is correct. Perform integrated change control process reviewing the change
requests by the board based on the merits and demerits approve or reject them, manage the changes.
49. Answer: Option C is correct. Work authorization system is used to manage when and what
sequence the project work will be done. Scheduling tool, configuration management system, work
authorization system all are part of PMIS.
50. Answer: Option B is not a valid input. Valid inputs to direct and manage work are:
Project management plan.
Project documents.
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Approved change requests.
EEF.
OPA.
51. Answer: Option B is correct. An action taken to reduce the possibility of risks in the project is
called preventive action.
Corrective action: Actions taken to bring the project back in line with the project management plan
Preventive action: Actions taken to reduce the risk in the project.
Defect repair: Actions taken to modify the product.
Updates: Changes to the formal project related documents.
52. Answer: Option D is correct. Activities that take place during closure of the project or phase are:
Close the contract.
Release the team.
Update OPA.
Document lessons learned.
Obtain sign-off from customer.
53. Answer: Option C is correct. Monitor and control project work compares the actual performance
against the planned one in the project management plan and if there is any variation from the plan, the
variation is corrected through corrective action by the change control process.
Constant monitoring of performance through taking readings against the cost, schedule and
performance baselines. In general, this process is concerned with:
Comparing actual performances against the baseline.
If the actual performance varies from baseline corrective action is taken to maintain the
baselines specified in the plan.
Provides information for status reports.
Monitor the risks.
Monitor the approved changes.
Forecast on schedule, costs, etc.
Provide reports to the stakeholders involved in the project.
54. Answer: Option A is correct. Performing the task, as defined in the project management plan and
the process is called direct and manage project work.
It is the process, where the project team works together to produce the deliverables.
Some of the tasks are:
-accomplish project objectives.
-produce deliverables.
-manage stakeholder expectations.
-risk management.
-change control management.
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-manages the communication.
-document lessons learnt.
-work performance data is constantly collected and action is taken through change
control, if there is any variation from the planned.
55. Answer: Option B is not a valid option. Valid input to the monitor and control project work process
are:
Project management plan.
Project documents.
Work performance information.
EEF.
OPA.
56. Answer: Option B is not a valid process. Both project schedule and schedule management plan are
the key outputs in project scope management.
Valid processes available in project scope management are:
Plan scope management.
Collect requirements.
Define scope.
Create WBS.
Validate scope.
Control scope.
57. Answer: Option B is not correct. Valid group decision making techniques are:
Unanimity: This decision is taken by everyone in the group and also accepted by everyone.
Majority: In this decision making more than half of the members of the group support the decision.
Plurality: Decision is based on the largest block in the group, even if the majority of the vote is not
reached.
Dictatorship: In this method one individual decides for the entire group.
58. Answer: Option C is not a valid type of requirement. Requirements can be classified into different
types as follows:
Business requirements: It describes the needs of the organization.
Stakeholder requirements: It describes the needs of the stakeholders.
Solution requirements: It describes the features, characteristics of the project. It is further classified
into functional and non-functional requirements.
Functional requirements: It describes the behavior of the product.
Non-functional requirements : It describes the environmental conditions or qualities required for the
project. E.g.: performance, security, etc.
Transition requirements: It is needed during the transition from current state to future state.
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Quality requirements: It describes condition or capability that needs to be met by the project or
product.
59. Answer: Option C is correct. Details of all the work packages in the work breakdown structure are
stored in WBS Dictionary. It contains:
A unique identifier called code of account identifier.
Assumptions and constraints.
Acceptance criteria.
Schedule, cost estimates.
Description about the work that needs to be done.
The team responsible to do the work.
Quality requirements.
60. Answer: Option D is correct. Examples of product analysis technique are:
Requirement analysis.
Product breakdown.
System analysis.
System engineering.
Value analysis.
Value engineering.
61. Answer: Option C is not a valid option regarding the WBS. WBS shows how the deliverables are
broken down into work packages.
62. Answer: Option D is correct. The techniques used for decision making in collect requirement
process are:
Voting (Unanimity, majority, plurality).
Autocratic decision making -- one individual takes responsibility for deciding for the
group.
Multicriteria decision making - It uses the decision matrix to establish criteria such as
risk level, uncertainty, valuation to evaluate and rank the ideas.
63. Answer: Option B is correct. Uncontrolled changes and will affect the project cost, schedule,
quality and also it will increase the risk for the project is called scope creep. It will increase the risk of
the project.
64. Answer: Option D is correct. Available group creativity techniques are:
Brainstorming, Nominal group technique.
Idea/mind mapping, Affinity diagram.
Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Affinity diagram.
Questionnaire and surveys.
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65. Answer: Option D is correct. Change requests are made for the purpose of :
Corrective action: Actions taken to bring the project back in line with the project
management plan.
Preventive action: Actions taken to reduce the risk in the project.
Defect repair: Actions taken to modify the product.
Updates: Changes to the formal project related documents.
66. Answer: Option B is correct. Scope baseline contains project scope statement, WBS and Work
package and planning package. Once the scope is finalized and approved scope baseline is created. For
future updates to the scope baseline must be approved by change control board, through the change
control process.
67. Answer: Option A is correct. The main difference between the validate scope and control scope is:
Validate scope is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer,
whereas control scope mainly deals with the changes related to the scope baseline.
Validate Scope:
It is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer. Verified product
from the quality control process is reviewed by customer for acceptance. There are some differences
between the quality control process and validate scope process.
The differences are, quality control considers mainly the correctness of the product
generally done by the quality control department and validate scope considers completion
of the project done by the customer.
Both can be done in parallel, perform control quality is done before validate scope.
Control Scope:
Control scope mainly deals with the changes related to the scope baseline. Through the control scope,
the scope baseline is maintained throughout the project. Change is inevitable in a project. When a
change is requested, it needs to go through the change control process for approval. Whenever a change
is requested, it is compared against the baseline, and planning is done for the new request. It will result
in updated baseline.
68. Answer: Option D is correct. It is a grid which links requirements of the products from their origin
to deliverables. Attributes used in requirement traceability matrix are:
Unique id.
Description of requirement.
Source of requirement.
Owner of requirement.
Current status.
Priority.
69. Answer: Option D is correct.
WBS Dictionary contains the details of work packages listed in the WBS. WBS dictionary contains
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details about the work done for each work package in the WBS. It contains:
A unique identifier called code of account identifier.
Assumptions and constraints.
Acceptance criteria.
Schedule, cost estimates.
Description about the work that needs to be done.
Team responsible to do the work.
Quality requirements.
70. Answer: Option C is correct. Context diagram visually shows a business system and how people
and other business systems are interacting with it. It shows the input, and shows who provide the input,
and output from the business system, and who receives the output.
Affinity diagrams: Ideas generated from any other requirement collection technique grouped together
based on similarities. Each group can be given a title, to find out additional ideas.
Idea/mind mapping: Ideas collected from different individual brainstorming sessions are discussed and
drawn into a graphical format. It helps to visualize the ideas related to each other ideas generated.
Delphi technique: This technique is used to get the opinions of experts. In this technique, instead of
everybody in the same room, the questionnaire is sent to risk experts and asking about the risks in the
project. Once the questionnaire is collected, it was recirculated again to reach the consensus in opinion.
It will take a few rounds to reach the consensus. In this technique, nobody knows about who else is
involved in this process.
71. Answer: Option C is not a valid option. Valid processes in project schedule management are:
Plan schedule management.
Define activities.
Sequence activities.
Estimate activity durations.
Develop schedule.
Control schedule.
72. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the considerations for tailoring are:
Resource availability – considering the relation between resource availability and
productivity.
Life cycle approach – finding out the correct life cycle approach for a detailed schedule.
Project dimensions - considering different aspects of project like complexity,
technological uncertainty etc. for the impact of the project.
Technology Support - Technology used to develop, record, transmit, receive, store the
project schedule is accessible.
73. Answer: Option D is correct. Main outputs of plan schedule management are:
Schedule management plan.
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Activity list.
Activity attributes.
Milestone list.
Change requests.
Project schedule network diagram.
Duration estimates.
Basis of estimates.
Schedule baseline.
Project schedule.
Schedule data.
Project calendars.
Project management plan updates, project documents updates.
Work performance information.
Schedule forecasts.
74. Answer: Option C is not a valid option. Valid relationship is Start-to-Start, Start-to-Finish, Finish-
to-Start, and Finish-to-Finish.
Start-to-Start : Successor activity cannot be started until a predecessor activity has started.
Start-to-Finish : Successor activity cannot be finished until a predecessor activity has started
Finish-to-Start : Predecessor activity must be completed before the successor activity can be initiated.
Finish-to-Finish : Successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity is finished.
75. Answer: Option D is correct. Resource leveling is used to produce the resource limited schedule.
Sometimes key resources to finish a task are limited in the organization. If the resource is busy with
other activities on the critical path, then the critical path needs to add the dependency. It can change the
critical path. Resource leveling is used when:
The necessary resources to do the task are available only at certain times.
Resources are in limited quantity.
Resources are over-allocated.
Resource usage at a constant level.
76. Answer: Option B is correct. Crashing is done to meet the project dates additional resources added
to the critical path whereas in fast-tracking activities on the critical path are done in sequence.
Crashing: To meet the project dates, additional resources added to the critical path. This is called
Crashing. It always costs more due to additional resources. If the budget is fixed for the project, we
can’t use this technique.
Fast Tracking: In this technique 2 activities on the critical path doing in sequence. It is risky and ends
up in redoing again from the beginning. It can be used when activities are overlapped to shorten the
duration.
77. Answer: Option B is correct. Developing schedule is a process of analyzing activity sequence,
dependency, resource requirements, duration, and logical relationships to develop the schedule model.
Developing schedule is an iterative process. It is a process of analyzing activity sequence, dependency,
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resource requirements, duration, and logical relationships to develop the schedule model. Schedule tool
is used mostly to develop the schedule. We need to enter the durations, schedule activities, resources,
resource availability, and duration into the scheduling tool, to generate the schedule.
Based on the schedule model used, we can determine the planned start and finish dates for the project
activities. Approved project schedule can be used as a baseline and it is helpful to track the project
progress.
78. Answer: Option A is correct. In the PDM diagram (Precedence diagramming method). This
diagram displays the logical and sequential activities in the project. Activities are shown in rectangle
and the relationships are shown in arrows.
Most commonly used relationship: Finish-to-Start.
Rarely used relationship: and Start-to-Finish.
79. Answer: Option B is correct. Adjusting leads and lags is done in schedule development.
80. Answer: Option B is not a valid dependency. Finish-to-Start is not a valid dependency in
sequencing activities. 4 types of dependencies attributes in the project are:
Internal,
External.
Mandatory.
Discretionary dependencies.
Mandatory dependencies: They are required by the nature of work.eg: contract. All the
terms in the contract must be satisfied to fulfill the contract. It is called as hard logic.
Discretionary dependencies: It is the preferred way that the organization wants the
work to be done. It is called preferred logic or soft logic. These type of dependencies are
easy to change when needed. E.g. fast tracking. During fast-tracking, these discretionary
dependencies can be modified or removed.
External dependencies: In some situations, the project work depends on the external
factors which are outside of the project work. It is not in the control of the project team.
E.g. project approval by environmental regulations.
Internal dependencies: These are the dependencies within the project team’s control. It
depends on the project's needs. Project management team decides which dependencies
are internal or external.
81. Answer: Option C is the right answer. Work to be done in the near (next) iteration is planned in
detail, and the work in the future is planned at a higher level and it is called rolling wave planning.
Progressive elaboration is also a correct answer.
Rolling wave planning:
It uses iterative planning. Work to be done in the near (next) iteration is planned in detail, and the work
in the future is planned at a higher level. It is called progressive elaboration. Agile methodologies using
rolling wave planning. Only plan in detail for the current iteration and complete the work. After user
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reviewed the work, and updates are done in the product, the next iteration is planned in detail.
Progressive elaboration:
Planning is an iterative process, and it must be done throughout the project as more information is
available. It is called progressive elaboration.
82. Answer: Option B is correct. Mandatory and Discretionary dependencies also called, Hard logic and
Soft logic respectively.
Discretionary dependency:
It is the preferred way that the organization wants the work to be done. It is known as preferred logic or
soft logic. These type of dependencies are easy to change when needed. E.g. fast tracking. During fast-
tracking, these discretionary dependencies can be modified or removed.
Mandatory dependency:
They are required by the nature of work.eg: contract. All the terms in the contract must be satisfied to
fulfill the contract. It is called as hard logic.
83. Answer: Option B is not a valid float. Valid Float Types are;
Total Float: The float for an activity is the amount of time that can be delayed without
impacting the project schedule. The float for the activities on the critical path is zero.
Free Float: The amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the early
start of its successor.
Project Float : The amount of time a project can be delayed without delaying the
externally imposed project completion date.
84. Answer: Option B is correct. Coding should be done before the testing starts. This is a type of
dependency called mandatory dependency. Dependency has 4 attributes, mandatory dependencies,
discretionary dependencies, external dependencies and internal dependencies.
Mandatory dependencies: They are required by the nature of work.eg contract. All the terms in the
contract must be satisfied to fulfill the contract. It is known as hard logic.
Discretionary dependencies: It is the preferred way that the organization wants the work to be done. It
is known as preferred logic or soft logic. This type of dependencies are easy to change when needed.
Eg.fast tracking. During fast-tracking, these discretionary dependencies can be modified or removed.
External dependencies: In some situations, the project work depends on the external factors which are
outside of the project work. It is not in the control of the project team. E.g. project approval by
environmental regulations.
Internal dependencies: These are the dependencies within the project team’s control. It depends on the
project's needs. Project management team decides which dependencies are internal or external.
85. Answer: Option D is correct. Analogous estimation is the correct answer.
This estimate uses the information from similar projects which is done before, with the same size,
complexity, scope and budget, schedule and it uses the estimate for the current project. One drawback
in this estimation is, it is less accurate. This estimation is used during the earlier stages of the project
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when limited information is available. It uses historical information and expert judgment for estimation.
It is also known as a top-down approach.
86. Answer: Option B is not a valid process. Valid processes available in project cost management are:
Plan cost management.
Estimate costs.
Determine budget.
Control costs.
87. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the considerations for tailoring project cost management are:
Knowledge management – Organization has formal knowledge management.
Estimating and budgeting.
Earned value management.
Use of agile approach.
Governance.
88. Answer: Option D is correct. To address the known-unknown and to address the unknown-unknown
the reserves allocated are contingency reserve and management reserve.
Contingency reserve:
It is the reserve allocated within the cost baseline for identified risks. It is used for known risks that are
identified. The budget is to address the known-unknown. It can be a percentage of estimated cost, a
fixed number.
Management reserve:
Additional reserves allocated to manage the unforeseen risks. It is not included in the schedule baseline.
It is associated with unknown-unknowns.
Cost baseline: project cost + contingency reserve
Cost budget: cost baseline + management reserve
89. Answer: Option D is correct. Main outputs of project cost management are:
Cost management plan.
Cost estimates.
Basis of estimates.
Cost baseline.
Project funding requirements.
Work performance information, cost forecasts.
Change requests.
Project management plan updates, project document updates.
90. Answer: Option B is correct. Management reserve is not part of cost baseline but it is included in
the project budget.
Additional reserves allocated to manage the unforeseen risks. It is not included in the schedule baseline.
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It is associated with unknown-unknowns.
Cost baseline: project cost + contingency reserve
Cost budget: cost baseline + management reserve
91. Answer: Option A is correct. Analogous estimating can be called as top-down estimation.
Analogous estimating:
It is known as top-down estimation. In this type of estimation a similar project which was done before is
used as a reference. This estimation will work if the team and the activities in the previous project are
the same. This technique is used to estimate the schedule or budget from the previously done project. It
is used when very little information is available for estimation for the current project. It uses the
parameters from previous projects such as cost, duration, complexity, size of the project as a basis of
estimating the activity durations. Since it takes data from previous projects it is less costly and less time
consuming, but also less accurate.
92. Answer: Option B is correct. Rolling up costs from the work package level to the control account
level is known as cost aggregation.
Cost aggregation:
To create budget, activity costs are rolled up into work package costs. Then work package costs are
rolled up into control account costs, and then final project costs. It is known as cost aggregation.
93. Answer: Option A is correct. ROM (rough order of estimate) is done during the initiating process
group. Initial phase the project has ROM (rough order of magnitude) as -25 % to + 75 %. As the project
goes the estimates can range from -5 % to +10 %. Some organizations have specific guidelines for the
estimation process.
94. Answer: Option B is correct. The difference between cost baseline and cost budget is management
reserve. Cost budget = cost baseline + management reserve.
95. Answer: Option C is correct. Monthly salary to employees working in an organization is an
example of direct cost.
Rent, utility bills – fixed cost
Wages, cost of material, supplies – variable cost
Salary for the team, training the team – direct cost
Taxes - indirect cost
96. Answer: Option D is correct. The cost to support the product from creation of product to day-to-day
operations is called lifecycle cost.
97. Answer: Option B is correct. Estimated value of the work actually completed is known as earned
value. Other options are not correct.
98. Answer: Option D is correct. During estimation the project team identifies alternatives and selects
from the available options. The below factors are considered for estimation.
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Buy vs lease.
Make vs buy.
Resource sharing.
Cost trade-offs.
Risks.
99. Answer: Option B is correct. Parametric estimation is the correct answer.
Parametric estimating:
In this estimating mathematical model, formulas are used for cost and time estimates. The level of
accuracy is better in this method. To calculate the estimate duration’s data similar to number of lines of
code per hour, number of defects per cycle may be used. It can be applied to the entire project or
specific parts of the project.
Analogous estimation:
This estimate uses the information from similar projects which is done before, with the same size,
complexity, scope and budget, schedule and it uses the estimate for the current project. One drawback
of this estimation is, it is less accurate. This estimation is used during the earlier stages of the project
when limited information is available. It uses historical information and expert judgment for estimation.
It is known as top-down approach.
Bottom-up estimating:
This method is used to estimate the project schedule, project cost by summing up all the resources from
the bottom of WBS. Breaking the activities into smaller pieces, and then adding the resources from the
bottom.
3 point estimating:
This estimating method considers the project uncertainty and risks while estimating. It uses most likely,
optimistic and pessimistic ranges.
Most likely: This estimate may happen.
Optimistic: This estimate activity duration represents the best-case scenario for the activity.
Pessimistic: This estimate duration represents the worst-case case scenario for the activity.
100. Answer: Option C is correct. Trend analysis is the correct answer.
Trend analysis:
Trend analysis examines the project performance over time, to find if performance is improving or
deteriorating. Trend analysis identifies the trends in the performance. Deviation from the baseline
indicates the potential impact of threats or opportunities.
101. Answer: Option B is not a valid process in project quality management. Valid processes available
in project quality management are:
Plan quality management.
Manage quality.
Control quality.
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102. Answer: Option D is correct. 5 levels of effective quality management are:
Detect and correct the defects before the product is delivered to the customer as part of
quality control process.
Use quality assurance to examine the available processes and correct the processes itself.
Create a culture throughout the organization is aware and committed to quality in the
products and processes available.
Incorporate quality into planning and design of the project and product.
Most expensive quality management approach is to let the customer find the defects,
because it will lead to recalls, rework, increase the costs, loss of reputation, etc.
103. Answer: Option D is correct.
Quality audits are done by auditors either internal or external, to find whether the project activities
comply with organizational policies and procedures. Objectives of quality audit.
Identify the best practices implemented in the organization.
Identify the gaps, nonconformity.
Share the good practices in similar projects in the industry or in the organization.
Proactively assist to improve the implementation of quality processes to help the
productivity of the team.
Update the lessons learnt in each quality audit in the repositories.
As a result of quality audits, the quality is improved and also customer satisfaction and acceptance of
the product is enhanced.
104. Answer: Option D is correct. The benefits of control quality process are:
Validate the deliverables against the requirements given, for the purpose of customer
acceptance.
Identify the methods of quality improvement.
Take corrective and preventive action through the change control process.
105. Answer: Option D is correct. A process is considered as out of control when:
A data point exceeds the control limit.
Seven consecutive points above the mean.
Seven consecutive points below the mean.
Out of control : When a data point falls outside the control limits, the data point is out of control, and
when it happens the entire process is out of control. Every process has variation in the end products.
The range is calculated based on +- 3 sigma. Data points within the range are in control, and the data
points not in the range are known as out of control.
106. Answer: Option C is correct. Cost of quality can be categorized into:
Cost of conformance to requirements.
Cost of non-conformance to requirements.
Cost of quality: It covers the cost of additional work in the project to accommodate the
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quality-related activities. E.g.: training employees, follow the standards to ensure quality
and quality control activities.
Cost of conformance: Includes Prevention costs, Appraisal costs.
Cost of nonconformance: Internal failure costs, External failure costs.
Prevention costs (Build a quality product): Training, equipment, documentation, timings
Appraisal costs: Testing, inspection.
Internal Failure cost: Rework, Scrap (Failures found by the project).
External Failure cost: Warranty work, lost business (Failures found by the customer).
107. Answer: Option D is correct. Quality Assurance is used to ensure project activities are in
compliance with organizational standards, policies, procedures on regular basis.
Perform quality assurance is the process to find the project activities comply with organizational
standards, policies and procedures. It is used to perform continuous improvement in the project to
achieve quality, reduce defects and eliminates activities that do not add value. If changes are needed, it
can be done through the change control procedures.
Identify the inefficiencies in the process.
Perform continuous improvement.
Confirm activities follow the policies and standards in the organization.
Recommend changes through corrective action.
108. Answer: Option C is correct. Scatter diagram plots 2 variables against each other to find out if they
are related it is also called correlation chart. The direction of correlation may be positive or negative or
zero correlation. The trend line in the chart is calculated to show the correlation between the variables,
which is used for estimation and forecast.
109. Answer: Option B is correct. Quality control is used to inspect the deliverables and find out the
defects. It is performed to measure compliance and fitness to use the product before delivering the
product to the customer. Quality control must be performed throughout the project and the aim is to
meet the customer acceptance criteria.
110. Answer: Option D is correct. Pareto diagram is related to the 80/20 rule, i.e. 80 percent of the
problems come from 20 percent of the causes.
It helps to identify the critical issues which need the attention immediately. It is based on the concept of
a larger number of problems are caused by a smaller number of causes. It shows the frequency of errors
and the causes in a histogram. It is based on the concept of 80/20 rule. 80 percent of the problems come
from 20 percent of the causes. Similar to histogram, except the variables are arranged in descending
order (high to low).
111. Answer: option D is correct. The main outputs of project quality management are:
Quality management plan.
Quality report, quality metrics.
Change requests, quality control measurements.
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Verified deliverables, work performance information.
Project management plan updates, project document updates.
112. Answer: option D is correct. Some of the examples of cost of conformance are:
Training cost, testing, inspections, document the processes, time to do it right are examples of cost of
conformance .
113. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the examples of cost of non-conformance
Rework, repairs, complaints, scrap, liabilities, warranty work, lost business are examples of cost of non-
conformance .
Cost of quality is as categorized below:
Cost of conformance to requirements (e.g., investing in prevention of nonconformance
requirements).
Cost of non-conformance to requirements (e.g.: rework due to nonconformance of
requirements).
114. Answer: Option D is correct. Tailoring considerations for the project quality management are:
Policy compliance and auditing.
Continuous improvement.
Stakeholder engagement.
Standards and regulatory compliance.
115. Answer: Option D is correct. Problem solving methods include the following elements.
Define the problem.
Identify the problem.
Generating possible solutions.
Choosing the best solution.
Implementing the solution.
Verifying the solution effectiveness.
116. Answer: Option B is not a valid process in project resource management. The valid processes
available in project resource management are:
Plan resource management.
Estimate activity resources.
Acquire resources.
Develop team.
Manage team.
Control resources.
117. Answer: Option D is correct. Considerations for tailoring the project resource management are:
Diversity.
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Physical location.
Acquisition of team members.
Management of team.
Industry specific resources.
Life cycle approaches.
118. Answer: Option D is correct. A team charter is a document that establishes the team values,
agreements and operating guidelines for the team.
It includes:
Team values,
Communication guidelines,
Decision making criteria and process,
Conflict resolution process,
Meeting guidelines,
Team agreements,
119. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the tailoring considerations for project resource
management are:
Diversity.
Physical location.
Industry specific resources.
Acquisition of team members.
Management of team.
Life cycle approaches.
120. Answer: Option A is correct. Some of the powers available to the project manager working in a
project are:
Positional: It is derived from the position granted in the organization.
Coercive (Punitive): This power enables the project manager to penalize the team
members, if they didn’t meet the targets.
Reward- oriented : This power allows the project manager to give rewards to motivate
the team members.
Expert : This power is derived from the knowledge of the project manager in the specific
domain. It gives creditability to the project manager.
Referent : This power is based on the respect, charismatic personality of the project
manager.
Informational : Control or gathering distribution of information.
Avoiding: Refuse to participate in key decisions, avoid meetings etc.
Personal or charismatic : It is derived from the charm or attraction.
Situational: This type of power is obtained from a unique situation due to a crisis in the
project or organization.
Persuasive: This power is derived from the ability to provide arguments to move people
to a desired course of action.
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Relational: It is derived due to contacts, networking, connections, etc.
Guilt-based: It is derived from the imposition of obligation.
Pressure-based: This type of power is derived from limit freedom of choice or
movement for the purpose of gaining compliance.
Ingratiating: It is derived from in excessive praise or for the other common causes to
win co-operation.
121. Answer: Option B is correct. Collaborate is the correct option.
Techniques to resolve conflict are:
Withdraw/Avoid: This method postpones the decision on the conflict. The outcome of
this technique results in lose/lose situation to the 2 parties.
Force/Direct: Pushing someone’s viewpoint at the expense of others. It is a win-lose
situation for the 2 parties. It is enforced through power.
Smooth/Accommodate: This technique emphasizing the areas of agreement, rather than
the areas of difference.
Collaborate/problem solving: In this method the affected parties openly discuss the
issues and try to incorporate multiple perspectives to reach the consensus. This results in
a win/win situation. It requires a co-operative attitude and commitment to resolve the
issue.
Compromise/reconcile: In this technique both parties reach some level of satisfaction.
Both parties are requested to give up something they want. This creates a lose/lose
situation since no one gets what they want.
122. Answer: Option C is correct. Norming is the correct option.
Tuckman’s theory of development through the 5 stages,
The duration of every stage depends on the team size, leadership and team dynamics.
Forming: Team members are brought together as a team to do the task. In this stage they meet and learn
more about the project and their roles and responsibilities.
Storming : There are some disagreements between the members of the team, as they work together in
the project. The team goes through conflicts in this stage.
Norming: In this stage, team members begin to build an understanding between and relationship
between them. They adjust their work habits and behaviors and start working as a team. Team begin to
trust each other.
Performing: In this stage the team is working effectively. In this stage, teamwork independently and
works through issues smoothly. The role of PM in this stage is delegating.
Adjourning : As the project ends, the team members are moved to the next assignment. Team members
are released from the project.
123. Answer: Option C is not a valid chart which describes team member’s roles and responsibilities.
Other options are correct. Some of the valid data representation techniques are:
Hierarchical charts – Work breakdown structure, organizational breakdown structure and
resource breakdown structure.
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Assignment matrix – RAM (Responsibility assignment matrix), RACI chart.
Text-oriented formats.
124. Answer: Option D is the correct answer. High team performance can be achieved by:
Creating team-building opportunities.
Managing conflicts in a constructive manner.
Encouraging collaborative problem solving.
Using open and effective communication.
Developing trust among team members.
Encouraging collaborative decision making.
125. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the personality traits of an effective leader are:
Managerial - this trait is related to the measurement of effective management practices.
Authentic - It is related to accepting people the way they are.
Service-oriented – Show interest in assisting others and the team.
Systemic – ability to understand and build systems.
Creative - ability to think and see things creatively and differently.
Intellectual - measurement of human intelligence.
Political - it is the measurement of the skill using influence to make things happen.
Social - able to understand people or resources.
Courteous - apply correct etiquette.
Emotional - it is the ability to perceive the emotions.
Cultural – measurement of diversity.
126. Answer: Option C is not valid. Valid outputs in project resource management are:
Resource management plan.
Team charter, resource requirements.
Basis of estimates.
Resource breakdown structure.
Physical resource assignments, project team assignments.
Resource calendars, change requests.
Project management plan updates, project documents updates.
EEF updates, OPA updates.
Team performance assessments.
Work performance information.
127. Answer: Option A is correct. Conflict resolution techniques and their outcomes related to the
concerned parties are:
Withdraw (lose/lose).
Forcing (win/lose).
Smoothing (win/lose).
Compromise (lose/lose).
Collaborate (win/win).
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128. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the factors that influence conflict resolution methods are:
Time pressure to resolve the conflict.
Importance of conflict.
Motivation to resolve conflict on a short-term or long-term basis.
Relative power of people involved in the conflict.
Importance of maintaining the relationship.
129. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the factors related to control resources in project resource
management are:
Identify the resource surplus/shortage before it happens.
Ensure the resources are used and released according to the project plan.
Monitor the expenditure of the resources used in the project.
Inform the related stakeholders when issue arises due to the resources.
Manage the changes as they occur.
130. Answer: Option D is correct. Pre-assignment is the correct answer.
In this technique members of the project team are selected in advance before the project start. Resources
are guaranteed for the project due to their experience and skills. The project is dependent on their
expertise.
131. Answer: Option B is not a valid response. The valid process in project communications
management is:
Plan communications management.
Manage communication.
Monitor communication.
132. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the tailoring considerations for project communications
management are:
Communications technology - identify the cost effective technology that can be used to
communicate with stakeholders.
Physical location - considers the team members location, i.e. collocated or distributed, or
multiple time zones they are working in.
Language - consider the possibilities of one language can be used for communication
activities or multiple languages can be used.
Stakeholders - identify the stakeholders internal or external to the organization.
Knowledge management - considers the organization's available repositories used.
133. Answer: Option B is not a hierarchical chart. It is a matrix-based chart. Types of hierarchical chart
are:
RBS - resource breakdown structure.
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OBS - organizational breakdown structure.
WBS - work breakdown structure.
134. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the dimensions of effective communication are:
Internal, External.
Formal, Informal.
Hierarchical focus: upward, downward, horizontal.
Official, unofficial.
Written and oral communication.
135. Answer: Option D is correct. The main outputs of project communication management are:
Communication management plan.
Project communications.
Work performance information.
Change requests.
Project management plan updates, project documents updates.
OPA updates.
136. Answer: Option C is correct. 5C’s of written communication are:
Controlling the flow of words and ideas.
Correct grammar and spelling.
Coherent logical flow of ideas.
Clear purpose of communication, and expression directed to the needs of the reader.
Concise expression and elimination of excess words.
137. Answer: Option C is not correct. Some of the techniques and considerations used for effective
communication are:
Presentation and Facilitation.
Choice of media.
Active listening.
Sender-receiver model.
Writing style.
Meeting management.
138. Answer: Option C is correct. Project team getting the information from website is an example of
pull communication.
This is used to send a large volume of documents to a large number of people. In this method the
information is placed in the central location for communication to the audiences. Recipients receive the
message from the central location by pulling the information. E.g.: intranet sites, e-learning, knowledge
repositories, etc. The method of communication is decided by considering the stakeholder's opinion.
Interactive communication:
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2 or more parties are involved in this type of interactive communication. This method is very efficient
to ensure a common understanding of messages by all the participants. E.g. Meetings, phone calls,
video conferencing and messaging.
Push communication :
In this method sender sends the information to the corresponding parties, whoever needed but didn’t
expect feedback or it is understood by them. E.g.: letters, status reports, memos, etc.
139. Answer: Option B is correct. Sequence of steps in a basic communication model are:
Encode - message coded as symbols as text or sound.
Transmit message – message sent through the communication channel.
Decode - data received is translated by the receiver, in a form which is helpful to the
receiver.
Sample interactive communication model steps are:
Encode, transmit message, decode, and acknowledge, feedback/response.
140. Answer: Option B is correct. Email to the project team, memo, sending fax are examples of push
communication.
Push communication :
In this method, sender sends the information to the corresponding parties, whoever needed but didn’t
expect feedback or it is understood by them. E.g.: letters, status reports, memos, etc.
141. Answer: Option B is not correct. It is the output of monitoring communications process. Some of
the tools and techniques used in project communications management are:
Expert judgment.
Communications technology.
Communications methods, communication models.
Project management information systems.
Data representation.
Interpersonal and team skills, meetings.
Data representation, project reporting.
142. Answer: Option C is correct. Factors that can affect the choice of communication technology are:
Urgency of the need for information.
Availability and reliability of technology,
Ease of use.
Project environment.
Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information.
143. Answer: Option B is correct. Project Information management system provides a set of tools to
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capture, store and distribute information related to the cost of the project, schedule update and
performance to the corresponding stakeholders. Other options are not correct.
144. Answer: Option D is correct. Complexity in the project is due to the nature of:
System behavior -due to interdependencies of multiple systems involved in the project.
Human behavior – due to diverse individuals and groups.
Ambiguity - lack of understanding in the project team.
145. Answer: Option D is correct. All the given options are correct.
The main outputs of direct and manage project work in project integration management are:
Deliverables.
Work performance data.
Issue log.
Change requests.
Project management plan updates, project document updates. OPA updates.
146. Answer: Option D is not a valid process. Valid processes in project risk management are:
Plan risk management.
Identify risks.
Perform qualitative risk analysis.
Perform quantitative risk analysis.
Plan risk response.
Implement risk response.
Monitor risks.
147. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the tailoring considerations in the processes available in
project risk management are:
Project size.
Project complexity.
Development approach.
Project importance.
148. Answer: Option D is correct. The main outputs of project risk management are:
Risk management plan.
Risk register.
Risk report.
Change requests.
Work performance information.
Project document updates, project management plan updates, OPA updates.
149. Answer: Option B is correct. Risk identification is done at regular intervals throughout the project.
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Risk Identification process is used to identify all the risks which affect the project and document their
characteristics. Risk identification is an iterative process, new risks evolve as the project progresses, and
it will continue throughout the project. Participants in the risk identification process are project
manager, project team, SME, customers, stakeholders, end users and other risk management experts.
The project team is involved in this process of risk identification for the purpose of ownership of risks
as well as the responsibility of risk response actions. Major risk identification occurs during the
planning process.
150. Answer: Option B is correct. Perform qualitative risk analysis helps to prioritize risks and find its
probability and impact.
To perform qualitative risk analysis, prioritize the risk for further analysis by assessing their probability
and impact to the project. This helps to allocate enough time and proper resources to deal with the risks
if they occur and also the project team's focus of high-priority risks. It assesses the probability of
identified risks and its impact, and also the risk response timeframe and organizations risk tolerance
levels related to scope, cost, quality and schedule.
It involves a shortlist of previously identified risks and it is further analyzed to perform quantitative risk
analysis. Performing qualitative risk analysis is a subjective analysis of risks identified in the risk
register. It is a cost effective method to prioritize plan risk response and foundation for the performance
of quantitative risk analysis. It will be performed throughout the project.
151. Answer: Option C is correct. Risks that are caused by implementing a risk response is known as
secondary risk.
Secondary risk:
Secondary risks always need to be considered when developing response strategies. Secondary risk is
the one, which occurs as a result of implementing a risk response. It is a direct outcome of
implementing a risk response.
Residual risks: These are the risks that remain after implementing the risk responses. It is known as
residual risks.
152. Answer: Option D is not a valid strategy. Valid strategies to deal with negative risks are;
Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, And Accept.
Avoid: This is a suitable strategy for critical risks with high impact. Eliminate the root cause of risk in
this strategy. This can be done by changing the project management plan to eliminate the threat. E.g.:
removing a work package from the project, which is considered risky, reduce the scope or extend the
schedule.
Transfer: This is a suitable strategy for less critical risks with less impact. This strategy makes someone
responsible for the risks and the responses. Transfer does not eliminate the risks completely. Contracts
can be used to transfer liability of risks to the 3 rd party. e.g.: by purchasing insurance, warranty for the
product.
Mitigate: This is a suitable strategy for critical risks with high impact. This strategy reduces the
probability of occurrence or impact of the threat. This strategy helps to maintain the risks within the
threshold levels defined. E.g.: more testing, avoid complex processes, etc.
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Accept: This is a suitable strategy for less critical risks with less impact. Sometimes it is not possible to
eliminate all the risks in the project. Also the cost to avoid or mitigate or transfer the risk to the 3 rd
party is very high. In such scenarios, acceptance is the best option, and the project management plan is
not changed in this strategy. This can be used for both threats as well as opportunities. Acceptance can
be active or passive. Active acceptance is to establish a contingency reserve to deal with the threats.
Passive acceptance requires no action.
153. Answer: Option C is correct. Most of the risks are identified during risk management process. The
main objective is to identify risks and monitor risks.
Identifying risk process is used to identify all the risks which affect the project and document their
characteristics. Risk identification is an iterative process, new risks evolve as the project progresses, and
it will continue throughout the project. Participants in the risk identification process are project
manager, project team, SME, customers, stakeholders, end users and other risk management experts.
Project team is involved in this process of risk identification for the purpose of ownership of risks as
well as the responsibility of risk response actions. Major risk identification occurs during the planning
process.
154. Answer: Option B is correct. The level of risk individual or group is willing to accept is known as
risk appetite.
Risk appetite:
Acceptable level of risk an organization is willing to take in anticipation of the benefit arising from
them. In general the risk attitude of organizations is classified into 3 themes which are risk appetite, risk
tolerance and risk threshold.
155. Answer: Option C is correct. A risk owner implements the response strategies defined in the risk
mitigation and risk contingency plans.
156. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the tailoring considerations related to project risk
management process are:
Project size – depends on the size of the project in terms of resources, budget, scope need
to customized the processes in risk management.
Project complexity -- new technology, innovation projects needs and detailed risk
approaches.
Project importance -- if it is critical to the organization growth, addresses major issues,
innovation, the processes can be customized.
Development approach - depending on the project approach, waterfall or agile, the
processes can be customized.
157. Answer: Option A is correct.
SV – Schedule Variance.
EV – Earned value.
PV – Planned value.
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AC – Actual cost.
We know SV = EV – PV and CV = EV – AC
So SV = 650 – 600 = 50, and CV = 650 – 500 = 150
Positive CV indicates, the project is under budget, and a positive SV indicates the project is ahead of
schedule.
158. Answer: Option D is correct. The characteristics which are used to prioritize the risks are:
Urgency - when the risk response can be implemented in the project, to be effective.
Proximity - the period before the risk might have the impact on project objectives.
Manageability - where managing the risk is easy to risk owner.
Connectivity - the risk is relevant to other individual project risks.
Detectability - risk occurrence can be detected easily.
Dormancy - the period of time that may elapse after a risk has happened and before its
impact is detected.
Strategic impact - the effect of risk has major impacts on organization's goals.
Controllability - where the outcome of the risk can be easily controlled.
Propinquity - the risk which matters most to one or more stakeholders.
159. Answer: Option B is correct. In Delphi technique, the questionnaire is sent to risk experts and
asking about the risks in the project, once the questionnaire is collected, it was recirculated again to
reach the consensus in opinion.
Delphi technique: This technique is used to get the opinions of experts. In this technique, instead of
everybody in the same room, the questionnaire is sent to risk experts. Asking about the risks in the
project. Once the questionnaire is collected, it is recirculated again to reach the consensus in opinion. It
will take a few rounds to reach the consensus. In this technique, nobody knows about who else is
involved in this process.
160. Answer: Option B is correct. Future value can be calculated from:
PV = FV/(1+r)n
PV – present value, FV – future value, r – rate of interest n – number of years
FV/(1+r)n = PV, so FV = PV* (1+r)n
=350000 * (1+0.8)4
=350000 * (1.08)4
=$4, 76,000
161. Answer: Option B is not a valid process in procurement management. Processes available in
project procurement management are:
Plan procurement management.
Conduct procurements.
Control procurements.
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162. Answer: Option B is correct. As per the below calculations, it is better to make the product.
19,000 per week for 16 weeks = 19,000 * 16 =304,000
In house pay 35,000 for engineer + 15,000 per week for 16 weeks = 35000 + 15,000*16 = 2,75,000.
Make it rather than buy.
163. Answer: Option D is correct. The main outputs of procurement management process are:
Procurement management plan.
Procurement strategy, bid documents.
Procurement statement of work.
Source selection criteria.
Make or buy analysis.
Independent cost estimates.
Change requests.
Selected sellers, agreements.
Closed procurements.
Work performance information.
Project management plan updates, OPA updates, project document updates.
164. Answer: Option D is correct.
SPI – schedule performance index, CPI – cost performance index.
SPI 1.2 means the project is ahead of schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is
over budget.
165. Answer: Option B is correct. Number of years and cost are not relevant as they are accounted for
in the calculation of net present value. Select the project with the highest NPV. In this case project C
has the NPV value of $80,000
166. Answer: Option B is correct. The seller needs to analyze thoroughly the requirements, otherwise
they need to provide more for the same fixed price.
Fixed price contracts are suitable when the type of work is predictable and the requirements are well
defined and not likely to change. It has more risk to the seller. Sometimes unexpected costs occur
during the course of the project. Since the price is fixed on the contract, the seller is responsible for the
unexpected additional expenses. The risk to the buyer in the contract is, if the seller won’t’ deliver the
work.
167. Answer: Option C is correct. Incentive fees is used in cost-plus contracts to encourage the seller to
increase performance of the work.
Cost-plus contracts are suitable when the work is evolving, likely to change or not well defined.
Incentives and awards may be used to align the objectives of the buyer and seller.
168. Answer: Option D is correct. Tom is involved in conduct procurements, Plan procurement
management processes.
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169. Answer: Option B is correct.
Procurement audit:
After closing the contract normally we used to go through it again to find out what happened on the
project for the purpose of finding out what went wrong and updating the lessons learnt documents. It is
a structured review of procurement process from plan procurement until the close procurements.
170. Answer: Option B is correct. The process of evaluating seller responses, selecting the seller and
award the contract is known as conduct procurement.
Conduct procurements process involves obtaining the seller responses for a project, and from the list
selecting a seller. The selected seller has been awarded the contract.
During conduct procurements, the project team will receive proposals from the sellers, and based on the
predefined criteria the sellers are selected for the work. The main activities that happen in conduct
procurement process are:
Buyer finds the seller through advertisement, pre-qualified seller list, internet, and bidder
conferences.
Once the sellers are identified, the buyer sends the procurement document to the sellers.
Buyer arranges meetings to clarify the sellers' questions.
Once the clarifications are done at the seller end, they decide to bid for the work.
Seller sends the proposals to the buyer.
Buyer receives the proposals from seller and reviews the proposals using source selection
criteria and scoring system.
Buyer compares the price and other details submitted by the sellers.
Once the buyer likes the seller proposals, they start negotiating with them.
After the negotiation process, buyer and seller agrees and signs the contract.
171. Answer: Option C is correct. In cost plus fixed fees contract, the buyer is going to pay the seller
costs involved in the project plus an agreeable amount on top of it.
CPFF – cost plus fixed fee contract:
In this type of contract, the buyer is going to pay the seller costs involved in the project plus an
agreeable amount on top of it. This type of contract is risky to both the buyer and the seller. If the costs
involved in the project are more than expected, the buyer needs to pay the additional costs incurred. The
fixed fee on top of the costs incurred, sometimes not worth it for the seller.
E.g.: costs incurred in the project + fixed amount of $20000.
172. Answer: Option D is correct. Independent estimates is the correct answer.
Independent estimates:
Sometimes the buyer won’t have expertise to evaluate the price quoted by the seller. In this type of
situation, buyer approaches the 3 rd party to do the evaluation and the 3 rd party will come with the
estimates of how much the project costs. It is provided by consulting services. The difference between
the 3 rd party estimate and seller estimates, indicates that procurement statement of work is not up to the
standard or the sellers misunderstood the procurement statement of work.
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173. Answer: Option C is correct. In this type of contract seller is reimbursed with all the costs, but the
main fee is earned based on the satisfaction of certain broad subjective performance criteria that is
defined in the contract known as cost plus award fees contract.
174. Answer: Option C is correct. It is a type of procurement document, used to request proposals from
prospective sellers of products or services.
175. Answer: Option B is correct. The procurement management process which involves the
verification of the product and work and confirmation that are acceptable, finalize the open claims,
update records, archiving all the information for future reference is known as conduct procurements.
Conduct procurements process involves obtaining the seller responses for a project, and from the list
selecting a seller. The selected seller is awarded the contract.
During conduct procurements the project team will receive proposals from sellers, and based on the
predefined criteria the sellers are selected for the work. Main activities that happen in conduct
procurement process are: Buyer finds the seller through advertisement, pre-qualified seller list, internet,
and bidder conferences.
Once the sellers are found, the buyer sends the procurement document to the sellers.
Buyer arrange meetings to clarify the sellers' questions.
Once the clarifications are done at the seller end, they decide to bid for the work.
Seller sends the proposals to the buyer.
Buyer receives the proposals from the sellers and reviews the proposals using source
selection criteria and scoring system.
Buyer compares the price and other details submitted by the sellers.
Once the buyer like the seller proposals, they start negotiating with them.
After the negotiation process, buyer and seller agrees and signs the contract.
176. Answer: Option B is not a valid process. Valid processes in stakeholder management are:
Identify stakeholders.
Plan stakeholder engagement.
Manage stakeholder engagement.
Monitor stakeholder engagement.
177. Answer: Option C is correct.
Savings = 70 % * 200,000 = 140,000
Cost = 30 % * - 100,000 = -30,000
Emv = 140,000 – 30,000 = 110,000
178. Answer: Option D is correct. Outputs of stakeholder management process are:
Stakeholder register.
Change requests.
Stakeholder engagement plan.
Work performance information.
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Project management plan updates.
Project documents updates.
179. Answer: Option B is correct. Stakeholder’s engagement levels are classified into:
Unaware : stakeholders are unaware of the project and the impacts.
Resistant : stakeholders are aware of the project and its potential impacts, and opposed to change.
Neutral : stakeholders are aware of the project and its impacts, they are neither supportive nor resistant.
Supportive : stakeholders are aware of the project and its impacts, and supportive to change.
Leading : stakeholders are aware of the project and its impacts, actively engaged in the project to make
it a success.
180. Answer: Option D is correct. Classification models used in stakeholder analysis are:
1. Power/interest grid : This is based on the level of authority and their level of interest
on the project outcome.
2. power/influence grid: This model is based on the level of authority or power and their
active involvement in the project.
3. Influence/impact grid: This model is based on grouping stakeholders based on their
involvement in the project and their ability to effect changes to the project’s planning or
execution.
4. Salience model: This is based on the power, urgency and their involvement in the
project.
181. Answer: Option D is correct. Stakeholder assignment engagement matrix is used to find out the
current engagement level and the desired engagement level of stakeholders for the project.
Stakeholder assignment engagement matrix:
It is used to find out the current engagement level and the desired engagement level of stakeholders for
the project. Current engagement level by stakeholders is shown as “C” and the desired engagement
levels are shown as “D”. This matrix used to find the gaps in engagement levels and actions and
communications are taken to close the gap between the current state and desired future state of
engagement.
182. Answer: Option B is not correct. Valid strategies to deal with threat are:
Accept.
Avoid.
Escalate.
Transfer.
Mitigate.
183. Answer: Option A is correct. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates the project is
ahead of schedule. AC is smaller than EV that indicates the project is under budget.
184. Answer: Option D is correct. Classification model in stakeholder analysis is based on the power,
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urgency and their involvement in the project known as salience model.
Classification models used in stakeholder analysis are:
1. Power/interest grid : This is based on the level of authority and their level of interest
on the project outcome.
2. power/influence grid: This model is based on the level of authority or power and their
active involvement in the project.
3. Influence/impact grid: This model is based on grouping stakeholders based on their
involvement in the project and their ability to effect changes to the project’s planning or
execution.
4. Salience model: This is based on the power, urgency and their involvement in the
project.
185. Answer: Option C is correct. Stakeholder register is used to identify all the internal and external
stakeholders who have interest and influence on the project.
It is used to identify the stakeholders involved in the project who can provide information related to the
requirements. Also it contains the key requirements for the project. It contains the stakeholder
information and their communication needs and requirements.
186. Answer: Option B is correct. Sam can purchase the insurance, since the cost of damage is more
than the cost of insurance.
Cost of damage is 5 % of 600,000 = 30,000.
Cost of insurance = 15,000. Better purchase the insurance.
187. Answer: Option D is correct.
Currently has 11 members including her.
Number of channels, n(n-1)/2 = 11(11-1)/2 = 11*10/2 = 55
If you add 4 members then, 11+4 = 15 members
15 (15-1)/2 = 15*14/2 =105
So she will have 105 -55 = 50 more channels after adding new members.
188. Answer: Option C is not correct. Strategies for opportunities are:
Escalate.
Exploit.
Share.
Enhance.
Accept.
189. Answer: Option C is correct. Stakeholder who has low power or influence and has low interest in
the ongoing project should be monitored.
190. Answer: Option B is not a valid option. Valid inputs to plan stakeholder management are:
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Project charter.
Project management plan.
Project documents.
Agreements.
EEF.
OPA.
191. Answer: Option D is correct.
Change requests can be made for the purpose of:
Corrective action: Actions taken to bring the project back in line with the project management plan.
Preventive action: Actions taken to reduce the risk in the project.
Defect repair: actions taken to modify the product.
Updates: Changes to the formal project related documents.
192. Answer: Option D is correct. Project manager competencies are:
Technical project management.
Leadership.
Strategic and business management.
193. Answer: Option C is correct.
2 years ➔ total 8 quarters → each quarter inflow $30,000 → for 2 years 8 * 30,000 = 2, 40,000
Remaining investment = 600000 – 240000 = 360,000.
After 2 years the payback is $90,000 per quarter, so for the amount 360,000 will be 4 quarters (12
months).
Total payback time is 36 months or 3 years.
194. Answer: Option D is correct.
Decomposition:
This technique subdivides the project deliverables into more manageable pieces. The work package is
the lowest level in the WBS. Project cost and project duration is estimated at the work package level.
Dividing the deliverables into work packages depends on the complexity of the project. Decomposition
involves:
Analyze the deliverables.
Organize the WBS.
Decompose the WBS into more manageable components.
Assign the identification codes to the decomposed components.
195. Answer: Option A is correct.
EAC = AC + (BAC- EV)
BAC = 90,000
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EAC = 30,000 + (90000 – 35000) = 85000
196. Answer: Option B is correct.
Opportunity cost for Project X is the value of project Y or 200,000.
197. Answer: Option D is correct.
Problem solving involves the following elements.
Define the problem.
Identify the root-cause.
Generating possible solutions.
Choosing the best solution.
Implementing the solution.
Verifying solution effectiveness.
198. Answer: Option D is correct. Change control tools should support the following change
management activities.
Identify changes, Document changes.
Decide on changes.
Track changes.
199. Answer: Option C is correct. It covers the cost of additional work in the project to accommodate
quality related activities. E.g.: training employees, follow the standards to ensure quality and quality
control activities.
Cost of quality consists of one or more of the following costs:
Preventive costs.
Appraisal costs.
Failure costs.
200. Answer: Option D is correct. Commonly used source selection methods are:
Least cost.
Qualifications only.
Quality based/highest technical proposal score.
Quality and cost based.
Sole source.
Fixed budget.
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Match the Following: 130 Questions with answers:
1 PMO’s functionality A Projects has definite start and end,
operations are ongoing, and does the
2 Characteristics of project charter are repeatable job.
3 Examples of work performance data
B Directive structure
4 Projects and operations the difference is
5 The project manager C manages the methodologies, strategies,
risks and opportunities, interdependencies
6 The PMO structure in which the level of for the entire organization
control over the projects is high
D From support functions to the complete
responsibility for the project.
E Project manager controls the resources in
the project to achieve the goals. In the
PMO optimizes the shared resources
between the projects.
F Number of defects in the cycle.
Number of change requests in the iteration
Actual costs, Duration of the cycle
Key performance indicators
7 The role of PMO G Organizational strategy
8 The PMO structure in which the level of H Supportive structure.
control over the projects is low
9 Regarding the resources the difference I Manages the constraints like schedule,
between the project manager and PMO cost, quality, scope, quality and risk in the
project.
10 provides guidance and direction to project J High level requirements, Business needs
management in an organization Assumptions and constraints, Budget
Project justification, Milestones
Stakeholder information, Sponsor
PM assignment & their authority level,
Risks
Answer:
1. D, 2. J, 3.F, 4. A, 5. I, 6.B, 7.C, 8.H, 9.E, 10.G.
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1 Key elements of project governance A Once the project work is done, the project
framework are, team is disbanded,
When the work is complete, the team
2 Benefits management plan describes key B members don’t have departments to go
elements of the benefits includes back.
Weak matrix organization.
3 The advantages of functional organization C
are Provides comprehensive, consistent
method of controlling the project and
4 Expeditor and project coordinators won’t D helps project success by documenting,
exist in this type of organization E communicating reliable and repeatable
project practices.
5 Power of project manager is similar to High at the beginning of the project and
expeditor and project coordinators in decrease during the course of the project.
Conflict may happens between functional
6 disadvantages of projectized organization F manager and project manager over the
are priority,
2 bosses are difficult to report for the
7 Project governance G team,
Resource allocation is difficult.
8 Risk and uncertainty H Decision making processes,
Relationship between the stakeholders,
9 This relationship increase the risk and need I Project lifecycle approach,
Process to identify, resolve and escalate
more resources to do the work done in issues, Acceptance criteria,
Overlapping relationship
parallel. Projectized
Career path is well defined,
10 Disadvantages of matrix organization J One manager to report,
Resources are grouped by specialty
Target benefits, strategic alignment,
metrics, assumptions, risks, timeframe for
realizing benefits, benefits owner
Answer:
1. F, 2. J, 3. I, 4. H, 5.B, 6.A, 7. C, 8.D, 9. G, 10. E.
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1 Business case can present the 3 options A Actual work is done as per the project
regarding the project addressing the management plan,
problem or opportunity Determine performance, implement
change control request for preventive,
corrective action and defect repair, select
the seller,
Determine the needs for training
2 Activities happens during planning process B Obtain formal sign-off from customer for
the project or phase,
Conduct post-project review,
Measure customer satisfaction,
Archive project records and documents,
Document lessons learned,
Update organizational project assets,
Transfer products to operations,
Release the team, close the contract.
3 Activities happens during execution C input
process
4 Activities happens during monitor & D Project management plan, scope
control process management plan, schedule management
plan, cost management plan, quality
management plan, resource management
plan, communication management plan,
risk management plan, procurement
management plan, and stakeholder
management plan.
5 Activities happens during closing process E Executing process group.
6 Item either internal or external that needs to F measure progress and performance,
complete the work required by the process find out the variance, and recommend
preventive and corrective actions through
change control,
project management plan updates
manage schedule and cost,
progress report and status report to
stakeholders,
document and analyze and monitor the
risks
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7 The plans developed during the planning G Do nothing
phase are Do the minimum possible to address the
problem or opportunity
8 Implement the changes from change Do more than the minimum to address the
control board, which includes preventive problem or opportunity
action, corrective action and defective
repair happens during H Closing process group.
9 Index and archive the project records I Executing process group.
happens during
J Create project scope statement
10 Team member performance assessment Develop the project management plan
happens during Define the roles and responsibilities for
team,
Develop WBS,WBS dictionary,
Define and sequence activities
Estimate time, cost to complete the
activities
Answer:
1. G, 2.J, 3. A, 4. F, 5. B, 6.C, 7. D, 8. I, 9. H, 10. E
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Project Integration Management:
1 Monitor and control process deals with A Business case
Perform quality assurance
2 Change control board B Brainstorming, problem solving, and
conflict resolution.
3 It contains the information regarding C
Used to confirm the project deliverables
whether or not the project is worth for the meet the quality standards defined.
investment Expert judgment
4 It is the subset of PMIS which contains D Responsible for approving/rejecting the
change,
different versions and characteristics of the Board members include SME, customer,
sponsor, project manager etc.
product is called as
Comparing actual performances against
5 The process that makes sure the project E the baseline,
If the actual performance varies from
team is using the correct processes is called baseline corrective action is taken to
maintain the baselines specified in the
6 Some of the analytical techniques used F plan,
Provides information for status reports,
during monitor and control project work Monitor the risks,
Monitor the approved changes,
are Forecast on schedule, costs etc.
Provide reports to the stakeholders
7 Formal documented procedure to explain G involved in the project.
how to authorize and initiate the work in Work authorization system.
right sequence and at right time is called as
Variance analysis, Trend analysis
8 Project help/guidance provided by outside H Grouping methods, Regression analysis
consultants, SME, PMO, stakeholders, Earned value measurement
professional associations is called as Reserve analysis, Root cause analysis
Failure mode and effect analysis
9 Commonly used facilitation techniques are I Fault tree analysis.
Configuration management system
10 Control quality J
100
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QUICK REFERENCE GUIDE FOR PMP® EXAM PMP® FAST TRACK - 300 Questions with Detalied Answers by Thiyagarajan Perumal (z-lib.org)
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QUICK REFERENCE GUIDE FOR PMP® EXAM PMP® FAST TRACK - 300 Questions with Detalied Answers by Thiyagarajan Perumal (z-lib.org)
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