QUICK REFERENCE GUIDE FOR PMP® EXAM PMP® FAST TRACK - 300 Questions with Detalied Answers by Thiyagarajan Perumal (z-lib.org)

Answer:
1. G, 2. F, 3.A, 4.J, 5.B, 6.I, 7.H, 8. E, 9.C, 10.D.

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PROJECT SCOPE MANAGEMENT:

1 In this technique develop as many options A Used to get formal acceptance from
possible and identify the different customers.
approached to do the work.
The features and functionality of the
2 Decomposition technique involves, B product
At the end of every phase
3 WBS Dictionary contains C Alternative generation.
4 Verify scope D Affinity diagram
5 Requirements documentation contains E Requirements documentation,
6 Product scope F requirements traceability matrix.
Analyze the deliverables
7 The diagram which is used to handle G Organize the WBS
Decompose the WBS into more
Ideas generated from any other requirement manageable components
Assign the identification codes to the
collection technique grouped together decomposed components
Nominal group technique.
based on similarities is called as Business requirements
Stakeholder requirements
8 Validate scope is done H Solution requirements, Transition
9 Outputs of collect requirements I requirements, Any assumptions, risks,
constraints, Quality requirements
10 The technique which is used to vote and J Business rules, Acceptance criteria
prioritize the ides generated during a unique identifier called code of account
brainstorming session is called as identifier, assumptions and constraints
acceptance criteria, schedule, cost
estimates,
description about the work needs to be
done,
team responsible to do the work
quality requirements

Answer:
1. D, 2. G, 3.J, 4. A, 5.I, 6.B, 7.E, 8.C, 9.F, 10.H.

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PROJECT SCHEDULE MANAGEMENT

1 This activity occurs before the dependent A Early Start, Early finish
activity & the dependent activity that
comes after another activity is called as

2 The amount time that the project team B Resources are available only at certain

gives to a successor task to get started duration,

before the predecessor task is finished. Resources are available in limited

quantity,

To keep utilization of resource at constant

level.

3 It is the earliest time an activity can start, C Fast tracking adds risk to the project,

It is the earliest time an activity can finish crashing adds cost to the project because

called as adding resources to do the work fast.

4 Control schedule mainly used D Predecessor activity, Successor activity
5 Usage of network diagrams E Analogous estimation
6 Resource leveling is used when F Parametric estimation
7 Except control schedule process all the G Lead time.

process in the time management are done H To define the logical relationship between
in, and control schedule is done in the activities,
8 Difference between fast tracking and shows the project progress at any point of
crashing time,
Used to compress the schedule and
calculate the critical path and near critical
path.

9 It uses the parameters from previous I Planning process, monitor and control
process group.
project such as cost, duration, complexity,
To find out the current status of project
size of the project as a basis of estimate the schedule,
Influencing factors that create schedule
activity durations, this estimation technique changes,

is called as

10 The level of accuracy is better in this J

method, and it use mathematical model,

formulas are used for cost and time

estimates

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Manage the changes as they occur.

Answer:
1. D, 2. G, 3. A, 4. J, 5. H, 6. B, 7.I, 8.C, 9.E, 10.F

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PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT

1 Analytical techniques like return on A Cost aggregation.
investment, payback period, and internal
rate of return, net present value, and B Schedule variance: EV – PV, negative
discounted cash flow are used to develop means behind schedule, positive means
ahead of schedule,
2 Cost management plan includes Cost variance :EV –AC , negative means
over budget, positive is under budget,
Schedule performance Index: EV/PV,
Greater than one is good, less than one is
not
Cost performance Index: EV/AC, Greater
than one is good, less than one is not

3 Factors considered for estimation are C The cost of work spent to the project to

accommodate the quality efforts

4 To create budget, activity costs are rolled D Rent, utility bills – fixed cost

up into work package costs. Then work Wages, cost of material, supplies –

package costs are rolled up into control variable cost

account costs, and then final project costs. Salary for the team, training the team –

It is called as direct cost

Taxes - indirect cost

5 Cost of quality E Sunk cost – is the money already spent on

the project

Opportunity cost – value of the project

which is not chosen, so that the money can

be spent on the other project.

6 Schedule variance, cost variance, schedule F Lifecycle costing

performance index, cost performance index

can be calculated from,

7 Examples of fixed cost, variable cost, G Funding limit reconciliation

direct cost, and indirect cost are

8 Sunk cost and opportunity cost can be H cost management plan

defined as

9 reconcile the funding limits according to I Levels of accuracy needs for the estimates

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the funds allocated for the project called as Level of precision
Unit of measure
10 Total cost of the product from development J Control thresholds
to support the product after it is in market Units of measure
Reporting format used
Answer: Rules for measuring the performance
1. H, 2. I, 3.J, 4.A, 5.C, 6.B, 7.D, 8. E, 9.G, 10.F
Buy vs lease ,Make vs buy ,Resource
sharing,
Cost trade-offs, Risks

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PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT

1 The quality theories, A Design of experiments

The product to build need to be fits on

customer needs,

The built product needs to satisfy the stated

and implied requirements,

It is based on the concept of continuous

improvement are

2 Example of Cost of conformance to B failure rate, availability, reliability, failure

requirements and Cost of non-conformance rate, number of defects

to requirements are

3 Examples of quality metrics are C flowcharts

4 The output of manage quality process are, D Fitness for use: The product to build need

to be fits on customer needs,

Conformance to requirements: The built

product needs to satisfy the stated and

implied requirements,

PDCA (plan-do-check-act):It is based on

the concept of continuous improvement

5 The technique which is to identify which E Affinity diagram

factors may have the influence on the

product or process outcome called as

6 This technique weighs the cost of the F Process analysis

quality activities against the gain due to the

efforts called as

7 The chart display the sequence of steps, G Training cost, testing are examples of cost

branching in the process that transforms of conformance,

one or more inputs into one or more output Rework, repairs, complaints are examples

& shows activities, decision points, loops, of cost of non-conformance.

parallel paths, order of processing,

interrelationship between elements in the

process is called as

8 analyze the non-value added activities, H PDPC (Process decision program charts)

identify the underlying cause of the issue,

and develop preventive actions, and it is

called as

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9 The diagram which is used to structure and I Quality reports, change requests, project
group the results of root-cause analysis in management plan updates, project
the quality assurance process, and based on document updates, test and evaluate
that we can decide if there is need to documents.
change the policies, procedures to address
the issue Cost-benefit analysis

10 The chart used to create contingency plans J
in a project and also helps the project team
in anticipating the contingency plan to
mitigate the risk

Answer: 1. D, 2.G, 3.B, 4. I, 5.A, 6.J, 7.C, 8.F, 9.E, 10. H

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PROJECT RESOURCE MANAGEMENT

1 In this technique members of the project A Virtual team to do the work.
team are selected in advance before the
project start and they are guaranteed for the Plan human resource management-
project due to their experience, skills and planning
the project is dependent on their expertise. Acquire resources – executing
Develop team – executing
2 Types of hierarchical charts are B Manage team - executing
Motivation to resolve conflict on a short or
3 In this technique considering couple of C long-term basis,
factors and decide who should be on the Position of those involved in the conflict
project team. resolution,
This technique is called as Time restriction to resolve the conflict,
Important and intensity of conflict
4 When team members are located in D Pre-assignment

different locations, the project manager can Coaching, consensus, delegating,
influencing, consultative, autocratic and
use facilitating
Collaborate/problem solving and
5 The number and type of resources needed E withdraw/avoid

can be find using the vertical bar chart in resource management plan, team
performance assessments, change
the staffing management plan is called, requests, team charter
Resource histogram
6 The 6 processes in the plan human resource F
RBS,OBS and WBS
management and their corresponding
Multicriteria decision analysis
process groups are

7 Some of the management/leadership styles G

available in organization are

8 Win/win and lose/lose situation happens to H

both the parties in this type of conflict

resolution technique

9 Factors influencing conflict resolution I

methods are

10 The main outputs of resource management J

processes are

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Answer:
1. D, 2.I, 3.J, 4.A, 5.H, 6.B, 7.E, 8.F, 9. C, 10.G

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PROJECT COMMUNICATIONS MANAGEMENT

1 Examples of A Active listening.
Formal written,
Formal verbal, Interactive communications
Informal written, progress reports
Informal verbal,
Hard copy documents,
2 Improper communication results in B Electronic communications,
Electronic tools for project management
3 Every message communicated has been go C Delay in the message reaching the
audience,
through the process Misunderstanding of the message
communicated
4 Information management systems D Push communication

5 The listener uses both verbal and nonverbal E complex issues, and technical details,
clues like nodding or repeating the words contract, updates to the project
to communicate that the message has been management plan,
received by the receiver is called as presentations, conferences and speeches,
email, text messaging, notes,
6 Plan communication management has 3 F
conversation, discussions
process namely plan communication Encode – Transmit message – Decode –
Acknowledge – Feedback/Response.
management, manage communications and Provides a set of tools to capture, store and
distribute information related to the cost of
monitor communications, and all the 3 the project, schedule update and
performance.
process groups are Planning, executing, monitor and control

7 2 or more parties involved in this type of G

communication and it is very efficient to

ensure common understanding of messages

by all the participants

8 The report shows what has been achieved H
in the project until now, I

9 In this communication method sender J
sends the information to the corresponding
parties, but didn’t expect feedback or it is
understood by them

10 Tools used in information management
system are

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Answer:
1. G, 2.E, 3.H, 4.I, 5.A, 6.J, 7.B, 8.C, 9. F 10.D

112

PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT

1 All the risk management process are in the A Workaround

planning process group except

2 Risk register contains B Risk owner

3 Perform qualitative risk analysis and C Analysis helps to find the difference

perform quantitative risk analysis the between what was planned and what is

difference is happening.

Analysis identifies the trends in the
performance. Deviation from the baseline
indicates the potential impact of threat or
opportunities.

4 Unplanned risk responses developed to D Monitor risks process. It is in the monitor

deal with the unexpected risks are called and control process group.

5 Example of diagramming techniques and E Influence diagram

information gathering techniques are

6 The person responsible for implementing F List of risks

the actions defined in mitigation and List of potential response to the risks

contingency plan in risk management Root cause of risks

Risk by category

Risk owner, secondary risk,

7 Warning signs that the project risk is about G Reserve analysis

to happen in the project is called as

8 Variance and trend analysis H Risk triggers

9 This technique used to find the contingency I Perform qualitative risk analysis is the

reserves allocated are sufficient at any process to prioritized the risks for further

point in the project. It compares the risk analysis by assessing their probability and

remaining vs the amount of contingency impact.

reserve fund available to deal the risks. Perform quantitative risk analysis is the

process of numerically analyzing the

effect of identified risks on overall project

objective.

10 It is a graphical representation of J Cause & effect diagram, process flow

influencers that may influence others that charts, influence diagram and

will affect the project. brainstorming, Delphi technique,

interviews, root cause analysis.

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Answer:
1. D, 2.F, 3.I, 4.A, 5.J, 6.B, 7.H, 8.C, 9.G, 10.E

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PROJECT PROCUREMENT MANAGEMENT

1 Activities done during the plan A Control procurements
procurement process

2 The factors to be considered during the B Conduct bidder conference,
make or buy analysis Clear the doubts that sellers have,
Select the seller by using the evaluation
criteria,
Negotiate with the seller,
Award the contract

3 Procurement management plan includes, C Plan procurement management – planning
Conduct procurements – executing
Control procurements – monitor and
control
Close procurements - closing

4 Ensures both the buyer and sellers D Independent estimates
performance meets procurement
requirements and both meets contractual
obligations.

5 Close procurement process involves E Buyer evaluates the potential sellers and
select one,
Finalize the make or buy decision,
Review the contract types and select the
contract type which is appropriate for the
project,
Create the procurement statement of work,
Source selection criteria,
Procurement management plan creation

6 Conduct procurement involves F how much it will cost to build compared
to buy it,
How the decision which we choose will
impact other constraints scope, schedule
etc.,
Contract types available,
Availability of resources,
If a purchase decision is made, then
consider whether to lease or purchase,
Consider both direct and indirect costs

7 The document which informs sellers to G Bidder conference

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submit the proposals,

Document sent to sellers to request

information about their capacity to do the

work

Give the seller an opportunity to examine

the procurement documents and prepare the

proposal

8 The 3 processes in the procurement H the verification of the product and work
and confirm that are acceptable,
management processes are done in the finalize the open claims,
update records,
process groups Archiving all the information for future
reference.
9 In this technique all the bidders can I IFB,RFI,RFP,

compete in unbiased manner, and it Different contract types used,
Metrics to measure the vendor
provides all the vendors the information performance,
How the seller selection will be handled,
about requirements, and answers all their Planned delivery date,
List of pre-qualified vendors,
questions Any assumptions and constraints related to
the procurements,
10 Sometimes the buyer won’t have expertise J Handling leading times,
Handling make/buy decisions
to evaluate the price quoted by the seller. In

this type of situation buyer approaches the
3 rd party to do the evaluation and the 3 rd

party will come with the estimates of how
much the project costs and this technique is

called as

Answer:
1. E, 2.F, 3. J, 4.A, 5.H, 6.B, 7.I, 8.C, 9. G, 10.D

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PROJECT STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT

1 Stakeholder management plan provides A Stakeholder register, stakeholder
engagement plan, work performance
2 The activities in manage stakeholder information, change requests
management process are
B Name, title, classification, expectation,
3 Information management system information needs, roles,

C Based on grouping stakeholders based on
their involvement in the project and their
ability to effect changes to the project’s
planning or execution.

Based on the power, urgency and their
involvement in the project.

4 The 4 stakeholders management processes D Stakeholder communication requirements,

are identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder Required engagement levels of the

management, manage stakeholder stakeholders by different stages of the

engagement, monitor stakeholder project,

engagement are done in the process groups Information needs of stakeholders.

called Time and frequency of distribution of

information to stakeholders.

5 The main outputs of stakeholder E Based on the level of authority and their
management are level of interest on the project outcome.
Based on the level of authority or power
and their active involvement in the project.

6 Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix F Stakeholder engagement assessment

is the technique used in matrix

7 Stakeholder register has the information G Manage stakeholder expectation through

such as negotiation and communication,
Engage stakeholders throughout the

project life cycle to get commitment from
them,

Resolve issues and concerns proactively

8 Used to find the gaps in engagement levels H Plan stakeholder management

and actions and communications are taken

to close the gap between the current state

and desired future state of engagement

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9 Power/interest grid classification model I It provides the tools to capture, store and

based on, and power/influence grid distribute information to stakeholders

classification model is based on, related to project performance, scope,

cost, and schedule and also consolidates

information from various systems and

send reports to stakeholders

10 Influence/impact grid and Salience model J Initiating, planning, executing, monitor

based on and control

Answer:
1. D, 2.G, 3.I, 4.J, 5.A, 6.H, 7.B, 8.F, 9.E, 10.C

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Formulas used in Calculations:

Project X, which would yield $250,000 in benefits instead of project Y, which would yield $200,000.
What is the opportunity cost for selecting project X over Project Y?

The opportunity cost for Project X is the value of project Y or 200,000.

SPI 1.2 means the project is ahead of schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is
over budget.

Earned value is greater than the PV (Planned value) which indicates the project is ahead of schedule.
AC (Actual cost) is smaller than EV (Earned value) that indicates the project is under budget.

Number of years and cost are not relevant as they are accounted for the in calculation of net present
value. Select the project with the highest NPV (Net Present value).

Rough order of magnitude (-25 percent to 75 percent).

EMV (estimated monitor value) can be calculated by multiplying the probability and impact.
EMV = Probability * Impact

Schedule Variance SV = EV - PV

Cost Variance CV = EV - AC

Positive CV indicates, the project is under budget, and a positive SV indicates the project is ahead of
schedule.

Cost Performance Index CPI = EV / AC (EV – earned value, AC – Actual cost)

Payback Period = Initial Investment / Periodic Cash flow

PV = FV/ (1+r) n
PV - present value, FV - future value, r - rate of interest n - number of years
FV/ (1+r) n = PV, so FV = PV* (1+r) n

Estimate To Complete (ETC) = EAC - AC

Earned value (EV) = % complete * Budget at Completion (BAC)

SPI 1.2 means the project is ahead of schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is
over budget.

Select the project with the highest NPV (Net Present Value)

PERT Formula: (P + 4M + O) / 6

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P – Pessimistic estimate, O – optimistic estimate, M – Most Likely estimate
Standard Deviation = (Pessimistic estimation – Optimistic estimation) / 6
Number of channels in communication: n (n-1)/2
EAC = AC + (BAC- EV)
EAC = BAC/ CPI
Variance at Completion (VAC) = BAC - EAC
TCPI (To Complete Performance Index) = (BAC – EV)/ (EAC – AC)
Return of Investment ROI = (Net profit/ cost of investment)/ 100

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PMI-ACP® (AGILE CERTIFIED PRACTITIONER) PRACTICE EXAMS:

1. Which of the below choice is correct about continuous integration?
A. The code changes are checked into version control after every iteration.
B. The code changes are checked in for every release.
C. The code changes are checked in and tested every day.
D. The code changes are checked in once the project is complete.
1. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the correct answer. One risk mitigation technique used in an
agile environment that developers need to continuously integrate their code to verify recent changes
haven't broken the base code, which is already developed. Continuous Integration helps to find code
issues as soon as possible.

2. Wireframe models used to help the agile teams with
A. It helps to elicit requirements that regular personas might miss.
B. A fictional user of the system under development
C. Confirm the created design.
D. None of the above.
2. Answer: C Explanation: Wireframes are simplified block diagrams that show the placement of
elements in a user interface and demonstrate the intended layout and functionality of a solution. Option
C is the correct answer. Option A is for Extreme persona. Option B is defined for Persona.

3. One of the below is the valid list of emotional intelligence quadrants,
A. None of the below.
B. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing.
C. Self, Others, Recognize, Regulate.
D. Self, Others, Regulate, Recognize.
3. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. Option B is for the team formation stages.
Option C is not correct.

4. One of the choices given below denotes dysfunctions of a team
A. Absence of trust.
B. Inattention to results.
C. Lack of commitment.
D. All of the above.
4. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. The main dysfunctions of the agile team are
the absence of trust, inattention to results, lack of commitment, fear of conflict, and avoidance of

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accountability.

5. List the steps used in the estimating process,
A. Determine the size of the project. `
B. Calculate the work effort to do the work.
C. Convert the work effort into the schedule.
D. All of the above.
5. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. The typical steps used in estimating process
are determining the size of the project, calculate the work effort to do the work in hours, convert the
work effort into the schedule, and calculate the cost.

6. In the current iteration, the agile team committed for 20 story points. But during the last day of
the iteration looks like they have completed only 15 story points. As an agile manager, what is
your reaction?
A. Ignore the situation.
B. Complete the 15 story points and keep the remaining five story points in the backlog.
C. Cancel the current iteration.
D. Extend the iteration duration.
6. Answer: B Explanation: Option B is the correct answer. Iteration is always time-boxed, and duration
should not be extended. In this situation, the team should complete the 15 story points and keep the
remaining 5 points in the backlog.

7. One of the following is correct about progressive elaboration,
A. Detailed planning occurs at the beginning.
B. No planning in progressive elaboration.
C. Detailed plan occurs as more details emerge in the project.
D. None of the above.
7. Answer: C Explanation: progressive elaboration is a process of refining the product vision so that the
highest priority features are developed. In this planning occurs in phases rather than all at the beginning.
Plan at high level in the beginning and detailed planning occurs close to the project.

8. One of the options given below is the common failure modes,
A. Prefer to fail conservatively.
B. Making mistakes.
C. Being inconsistent.
D. All of the above.
8. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. The common failure modes are making

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mistakes, being inconsistent, being creatures of habit, prefer to fail conservatively.

9. A short period of proof-of-concept work is called as,
A. Risk-based-spike.
B. User story.
C. TDD (Test-driven development).
D. None of the above.
9. Answer: A Explanation: Option A is the correct answer. A short period of a proof-of-concept of work
is called risk-based-spike. Option B and Option D are not right.

10. One of the benefits of retrospectives for the agile team,
A. Improved productivity
B. Improved quality.
C. Improved capacity.
D. All of the above.
10. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. The benefits of retrospectives of the agile
team are improved productivity, improved quality, improved capacity, and improved capability.

11. One of the activities to help to set the stage in the retrospective process is,
A. Focus on/Focus off
B. ESVP
C. Check-in
D. All of the above.
11. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. In the Retrospective process the activities,
help to set the stage is Focus on / Focus off, ESVP, working agreements, and check-in.

12. In ESVP (Explorers, Shoppers, Vacationers, Prisoners), the definition of Vacationers is
defined as,

A. They are eager to discover new ideas and insights.
B. They find all the available information & have a new idea based on that.

C. Vacationers are not interested in the retrospective work, to get away from the regular job they
participate in the retrospective session.
D. They feel like they are forced to attend the retrospective session.
12. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the correct answer for vacationers. Option A is for Explorers.
Option B is for shoppers. Option D is for Prisoners.

13. Lessons learnt happens during,

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A. During only the first few iterations.
B. During the product demo.
C. Throughout the project duration.
D. Only after the project failure during the post review session.
13. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the correct answer. Lessons learnt should be captured
throughout the project from the team. If something good or bad happens during the project, the team
remembers when it is fresh, and forget critical details after some time.

14. Agile project teams do the planning at three levels named as,
A. Schedule, cost, quality
B. Release, iteration, retrospective.
C. Release, Iteration, Daily.
D. None of the above.
14. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the correct answer. Three levels of planning are release,
iteration, and daily. Other options A, B, and D are not correct.
15. One of the following is a central repository that helps to track changes and save changes and
provides the history of changes.
A. Release plan.
B. Product vision box.
C. Version control system.
D. None of the above.
15. Answer: C Explanation: The Version control system is a central repository that helps to track
changes and save changes and provides the history of changes. Other options are not correct.

16. The total number of story points planned for a release is called,
A. None of the below.
B. Release baseline.
C. Schedule baseline.
D. Performance measurement baseline
16. Answer: D Explanation: Performance measurement baseline is defined as the total number of story
points planned for a release. Other options are not correct.

17. The main reason for most of the product failures are,
A. Technical risk.
B. Inefficient quality control.
C. Market risk.

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D. None of the above.
17. Answer: C. Explanation: The reason for product failure is market risk. None of the reasons given
insignificant compared to market risk.

18. The Waterfall approach is called as, and agile approach is called as,
A. Active, Reactive.
B. Not flexible, Flexible.
C. Plan driven, Value-driven.
D. All of the above.
18. Answer: C. Explanation: In the waterfall (traditional) approach, everything is planned. It is called a
Plan driven approach. An agile approach to the most valuable requirements to the customer are
delivered; first, it is called value-driven approach. Other given options are not correct.

19. When it is necessary to split a user story
A. Whenever the project manager thinks to split the story.
B. Not necessary to split the user story.
C. The user story is large to fit within a single iteration.
D. All of the above.
19. Answer: C Explanation: Sometimes, the user story is too large to fit into a single iteration. At those
times, we need to split the user story.

20. The agile triangle constraints are,
A. Time, Cost, Scope
B. Value, Quality, Constraint
C. Both of the above.
D. Both A and B are wrong
20. Answer: B Explanation: Agile triangle relates to value, quality, and constraint. Time, Cost, Scope is
related to traditional management.
21. The process to minimize the work-in-process and maximize the business value is called,
A. XP
B. ITIL
C. None of the above.
D. Lean
21. Answer: D. Explanation: Value stream mapping is a lean tool used to analyze the value stream by
means of eliminating waste, and minimize the work-in-process and maximize the value.

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22. The list of capabilities, stories, features that the product team identified is called,
A. Backlog.
B. User stories.
C. Capacity.
D. All of the above.
22. Answer: A. Explanation: The list of capabilities, stories, features that the product team identified is
called a backlog. It used to be maintained by the team, led/prioritized by the product owner.

23. The usage of story cards in agile,
A. provides info about who is working in the team.
B. Both C and D.
C. It provides estimates about the stories.
D. It provides basic information about stories.
23. Answer: D. Explanation: Story cards are used to provide necessary information about user stories
like requirements, acceptance criteria, etc. Acceptance criteria are written on the back of the story card.
24. The least preferred contract type of agile project is,
A. Time & Materials Contract
B. Phased contract.
C. Agile iteration contract.
D. Firm Fixed Price Contract.
24. Answer: D. Explanation: Firm fixed-price contract is the least preferred contract type of agile
projects. In this contract, the price is fixed, but agile welcome changes even at the last minute also. So it
is difficult to accommodate changes in this type of contract.

25. Remove obstacles for the team is the responsibility of scrum master. By removing obstacles,
we are eliminating
A. Roadblocks.
B. Impediments.
C. Project Risk.
D. None of the above.
25. Answer: C Explanation: By the way, removing obstacles/impediments, we are eliminating the risk
of the agile project.

26. Risk mitigation technique that happens due to continuously integrate the code changes and
confirm the changes to the code has not broken the base code is called,
A. None of the below.

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B. Pair programming.
C. Continuous migration.
D. Continuous integration.
26. Answer: D Explanation: Continuous integration is one of the risk mitigation techniques used in an
agile environment that developers need to continuously integrate their code to verify recent changes
haven't broken the base code, which is already developed.

27. The diagram which reduces risk due to workload imbalance by spreading it more evenly is
called as,
A. Pareto chart.
B. Burn up chart.
C. Cumulative Flow diagram.
D. Burn down chart.
27. Answer: C Explanation: CFD, reduces risk due to workload imbalance by spreading it more evenly.
This chart gives a quick overview of what is going in the project. We can find how much work is done,
ongoing work, unfinished work, etc. It is used where the bottlenecks are there in the workflow. Through
CFD, we can track how long it will take to deliver the desired results, the total size of the backlog is
reduced or constant or increasing.

28. A meeting which is for the team and by the team, in which the team choose the topic to discuss
is called as,
A. Iteration planning meeting.
B. Open space meeting.
C. Retrospective meeting.
D. Daily standup meeting.
28. Answer: B Explanation: The meeting, which is for the team and by the team, in which the team
chooses the topic to discuss, is called an open space meeting.

29. A typical, regular workday is called,
A. All of the below.
B. Ideal Day.
C. Normal Day.
D. Actual Day.
29. Answer: D Explanation: A regular workday is called actual day, which starts at either 9 am or 8 am,
and contains eight work hours and 1-hour break.

30. The day which is defined as the time required to complete an activity, assuming there are no

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interruptions so that work can be completed 100% efficiently,
A. Ideal days.
B. A & D
C. Actual Days.
D. Normal working day.
30. Answer: A. Explanation: Time required to complete an activity, assuming there are no interruptions
so that work can be completed 100% efficiently is called ideal days.

31. The time-boxed plan is what?
A. The product scope is committed, but the release date is not confirmed.
B. Both the product scope and release date approved in advance.
C. The release date is committed, but the features to be developed for the release is not defined.
D. None of the above.
31. Answer: C Explanation: In a time boxed plan, the release date is committed, but the features to be
developed for the release are not defined.

32. When the agile team considers the factors that will support or oppose a change in the
organization process is called,
A. Force field analysis.
B. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
C. Deming PDCA cycle.
D. SWOT analysis.
32. Answer: A Explanation: Force field analysis is a tool used to examine organizational factors that
are supporting or opposing the change. It considers the organization’s driving and restraining forces.

33. The terminology in agile, which look forward in the future and learn the unknown and reduce
the uncertainty is called,
A. Estimating.
B. Predicting.
C. Planning
D. Scanning.
33. Answer: D. Explanation: The terminology, which looks forward in the future and learns the
unknown and reduce the uncertainty, is called scanning. Other options are not correct.

34. Decisions are made at the time of last responsible moment is called
A. Project Commitment.

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B. Deferring commitment.
C. Soft commitment.
D. Hard commitment.
34. Answer: B Explanation: Decisions are made at the time of the last responsible moment is called
Deferring commitment. Other options are not correct.

35. To deliver the most valuable requirements to the customer first, makes the customer happy
because they start realizing the benefits. This kind of product delivery is called
A. Rapid delivery.
B. Fast delivery.
C. None of the options A, B, D.
D. Incremental delivery.
35. Answer: D. Explanation: Build the smallest thing possible to get value as soon as possible to the
customer. E.g.: Release the software in incremental by releasing the key features in the first iteration.

36. If the defects are found very late in the agile software project, it causes
A. Less expensive.
B. More expensive.
C. It is not making any difference in cost.
D. cost savings.
36. Answer: B. Explanation: If we find the defects very late in the project, it is more expensive to fix it.
If we find the errors very early in the project phase, it is less costly to fix.

37. Sam is working on the agile project and involved in developing software. The team is behind
schedule. The software developed is not done thoroughly,
A. If it has bugs.
B. the software can’t ship.
C. If the testing is not done.
D. the software can ship to the vendor.
37. Answer: B. Explanation: The developed software is not done completely, if the developed software
cannot be shipped.
38. In Agile EVM (Earned Value Measurement) the progress is usually measured at the end of
A. All of the below.
B. Project level.
C. Release level.
D. Iteration level.

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38. Answer: D Explanation: In Agile EVM, the progress is usually measured at the end of every
iteration.

39. Restructuring the code, without changing the external behavior of the code is called,
A. Working in pairs.
B. Validating the code.
C. Refactoring
D. bug fixing
39. Answer: C Explanation: Restructuring the code, without changing the external behavior is called
refactoring.

40. Work in progress limit is defined as 10. The maximum number of things that can be allowed
in the stream is,

A.11
B. 15

C. 10
D. 20
40. Answer: C Explanation: If the WIP limit is defined means, we can’t add more than the limit to the
value stream.

41. In Burn down charts, X and Y axis we track,
A. X-axis track time, and Y-axis track the work remaining
B. X-axis track the work remaining, and Y-axis track the time.
C. Both A & B.
D. None of the above.
41. Answer: A Explanation: In burn down chart plotted against the time vs work remaining. In x axis,
we plot the time and the Y-axis; we plot the work remaining in the project.

42. The different levels of agile project planning are,
A. Project Vision.
B. Product Roadmap.
C. Release Planning.
D. All of the above.
42. Answer: D. Explanation: The different levels of agile project planning are product vision, product
roadmap, release planning, and iteration planning, daily stand-up.

43. The values used in agile modeling are,

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A. Communication.
B. Simplicity.
C. Courage.
D. All of the above.
43. Answer: D. Explanation: The four values used in agile modeling are communication, simplicity,
courage, and feedback.

44. Prototyping is one of the agile,
A. Version control technique.
B. Feedback technique.
C. Code review.
D.code refactor method
44. Answer: B Explanation: Prototype is used to get valuable feedback from the users early in the
project.

45. The process which is performed frequently for the quality of the product is called,
A. Validation.
B. Frequent verification and validation.
C. Verification.
D.Inspection
45. Answer: B. Explanation: The process which is performed frequently for the quality of the product is
called frequent verification and validation.

46. Critical soft skills needed for any type of project,
A. Listening.
B. Negotiation.
C. Facilitation.
D. All of the above.
46. Answer: D Explanation: Critical soft skills are listening, negotiation, conflict resolution,
facilitation.

47. The agile manifesto, which is considered as team empowerment
A. Individuals and interactions over process and tools.
B. Working software over comprehensive documentation.
C. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation.
D. Responding to Change over following a plan.

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47. Answer: A. Explanation: Individuals and interactions over process and tools, this manifesto is
related to team empowerment.

48. An initial node in a large user story is called as
A. Epic
B.iteration log
C. User stories.
D. Task.
48. Answer: A. Explanation: Epic span around many iterations called a capacity. It is the largest part of
the user story. Epic is a larger user story, can be decomposed into smaller user stories.

49. Self-organizing teams can make their own
A. The Product owner decides on a self-organizing team.
B. Scrum master decides on the self-organizing team.
C. Can’t make their own decisions.
D. Decisions.
49. Answer: D Explanation: Self-organizing team can make their own decisions. The best architectures,
requirements, and designs emerge from self-organizing teams.

50. Project charter includes,
A. Milestones.
B. Critical success factors.
C. Vision.
D. All of the above.
50. Answer: D. Explanation: Project charter includes project vision, milestones, and critical success
factors.

51. The undue influence of a single strong-willed member often because of undisclosed agenda
A. Influencing.
B. Anchoring
C. Refactoring.
D. Pair programming.
51. Answer: B. Explanation: Undue influence by a single strong-willed member often because of
undisclosed agenda called anchoring.

52. Artifacts in the agile projects,
A. Product backlog.

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B. Product vision statement.
C. Product roadmap.
D. All of the above.
52. Answer: D. Explanation: Records of project inputs, outputs are called artifacts. E.g. of artifacts in
the agile product backlog, product vision statement, product roadmap.

53. Provides authority to the project manager to apply resources for the project.
A. Elevator Statement.
B. Product vision box.
C. Business case.
D. Product backlog.
53. Answer: C Explanation: The Business case is a written document that explains how the use of
resources aligned with the accomplishment of a goal. It provides authority to the project manager to
apply resources for the project.

54. Advantages of a collocated team in agile,
A. Closer working relationships.
B. Collaboration.
C. Enables the face-to-face communication.
D. All of the above.
54. Answer: D. Explanation: Having co-located teams improve communication, closer working
relationships, collaboration, and enables face-to-face communication.

55. Meaning of done-done means product is,
A. Coded.
B. Tested.
C. Defect-free.
D. All of the above.
55. Answer: D. Explanation: Done-done means the product is coded, tested, defect-free, and accepted
by the product owner.

56. The last step in FDD (Feature-driven development) is
A. Develop the overall model.
B. Build by feature.
C. Plan by feature.
D. Design by feature.

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56. Answer: B. Explanation: Feature Driven Development is an iterative software development
methodology intended for use by large teams working on a project using object-oriented technology.
The steps are, - Develop an overall model - Build a feature list - Plan by feature - Design by feature -
Build by feature

57. The team stops focusing on delivering new features, and instead spends their time on
stabilizing the system and getting it ready to be released is called,
A. Iteration 0.
B. Handoff iteration.
C. Hardening iteration.
D. Buffer iteration
57. Answer: C Explanation: In a hardening iteration, the team stops focusing on delivering new
features, and instead spends their time on stabilizing the system and getting it ready to be released.

58. Name one of the innovation games used in agile,
A. Bang for the buck
B. Speed boat
C. Prune the product tree
D. All of the above.
58. Answer: D Explanation: Bang for the buck, Speed boat, Prune the product tree is some sample
innovation games. Generally, it used to identify customer requirements, improve retrospectives, and
prioritize backlogs.

59. Not one of the Kanban principles,
A. Visualize the flow.
B. Limit the amount of work in progress.
C. Refactoring.
D. Enhance the workflow.
59. Answer: C Explanation: Kanban based on three fundamental principles ➢ Visualize the workflow
➢ Limit the amount of work in progress ➢ Enhance the workflow

60. Not one of the Lean process,
A. Individuals and interactions over process and tools.
B. Empower the team.
C. Optimize the whole.
D. Eliminate waste.
60. Answer: A. Explanation: Lean focus on value stream mapping. Eliminate waste is the core

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principle of lean. Lean Principles ➢ Eliminate waste ➢ Empower the team ➢ Delivers fast ➢ Optimize
the whole ➢ Build quality in ➢ Defer decisions ➢ Amplify learning.

61. The smallest set of functionality, which gives value to the customer called,
A. Marketable feature.
B. Minimum marketable feature.
C. Product features.
D. Desired feature.
61. Answer: B. Explanation: Smallest set of functionality, which gives value to the customer. Build the
smallest thing possible to get value as soon as possible. It has 3 attributes minimum, marketable, and
feature. Other options are not correct.

62. MoSCoW technique used for the prioritization of user stories. W stands for,
A. Would have.
B. Will have.
C. Won’t have.
D. None of the above.
62. Answer: C. Explanation: One of the Prioritization techniques used. (Must have, should have, could
have, and won’t have). Other options are not correct.

63. INVEST acronym used in user story development? The letter “T” stands for
A. Traceable.
B. Testable.
C. Team effort.
D. Taxable.
63. Answer: B. Explanation: Attributes of a user story INVEST (independent, negotiable, valuable,
estimable, small, and testable).

64. In Agile iteration contract,
A. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner, not changing the iteration backlog
priorities.
B. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner can change the iteration backlog
priorities.
C. When the customer doesn't see the value, they stop paying, and the project ends.
D. When the customer sees value, they stop paying, and the project continues.
64. Answer: A. Explanation: In an agile iteration contract, mutually agreed on deliverables by the team
and product owner, not changing the iteration backlog priorities during the iteration. Other options are
not correct.

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65. In Time and materials contract,

A. When the customer sees value, they stop paying, and the project ends.

B. When the customer doesn't see the value, they stop paying, and the project ends.

C. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner can change the iteration backlog
priorities.

D. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner, not changing the iteration backlog
priorities.
65. Answer: B Explanation: In Time and materials contract, when the customer doesn't see the value,
they stop paying, and the project ends. Other options are not correct.

66. In Phased development contract,

A. When the customer doesn't see the value, they stop paying, and the project ends.

B. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner, not changing the iteration backlog
priorities during the iteration.

C. Funded based quarterly, and additional funding approved following each successful release.

D. All of the above.

66. Answer: C Explanation: In Phased development contract funded based every quarter, and
additional funding approved following each successful release. Other options are not correct.

67. Objectives of the kickoff meeting,
A. Communicate project vision to the team.
B. Establish the ground rules for the team and the project.
C. Review the business case.
D. All of the above.
67. Answer: D. Explanation: Objectives of the kickoff meeting are to communicate the project vision to
the team, establish the ground rules for the team and project, review the business case.

68.______________ is used to quantify the work effort and complexity required to develop a user
story related to other stories.

A. A story card.
B. User stories.

C. Story points.

D. Relative sizing

68. Answer: C Explanation: Story points used to quantify the work effort and complexity required to
develop a user story related to other stories. Other options are not correct.

69. A task of a short experiment carried out to gain the knowledge about a specific question
called,

A. Refactoring.

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B. Flexibility matrix.

C. Spike.

D. Pair programming.

69. Answer: C Explanation: Spike is a task of a short experiment carried out to gain knowledge about a
specific question. Knowledge gained by an exploratory spike, do understand the issue is called process-
centric knowledge. Other options are not correct.

70. A process of collecting time-series data points about one or more variables and examines the
data to detect the patterns to predict the future called

A. Variance analysis.

B. Trend analysis.

C. Process analysis.

D. Force field analysis.

70. Answer: B. Explanation: A process of collecting time-series data points about one or more variables
and examines the data to detect the patterns to predict the future is called trend analysis. Other options,
A, C, D, are wrong.

71. Placing stories on the wall greatest to the least called
A. Absolute sizing.
B. Sizing.
C. Relative sizing
D.None of the above
71. Answer: C. Explanation: Placing stories on the wall most significant to the least called relative
sizing. It is one of the estimation technique. Other options are not correct.

72. The coach sees an increase in the number of escaped defects, which traced back to a
developer. What action he needs to do,

A. Address this issue with the developer.

B. Address this issue with the team.

C. Bring this issue in the daily standup meeting.
D. Ignore this issue.

72. Answer: B. Explanation: Since agile is an empowered, self-organizing team, the coach should
address this issue with the team. Other options A, C, D, are not correct.

73. Management asked the agile team for a detailed project plan. The response of the agile coach
should be,

A. Tell the management that plans not needed for an agile project.

B. Request the team to stop the work and prepare the detailed project plan.

C. Prepare the comprehensive project plan.

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D. Take the opportunity to educate the senior management on agile principles
73. Answer: D. Explanation: Management asked the agile team for a detailed project plan. The agile
coach uses this opportunity to educate senior management on agile principles. Other options are not
correct.

74. During iteration H
A. No new functionality has developed during this iteration.
B. New functionality has developed during this iteration.
C. Work to prepare formal documentation and other deliverables that need for the project.
D. Adding an iteration to deal with unexpected changes or risks to avoid project delays and increase the
reliability of the project schedule.
74. Answer: A. Explanation: During iteration H, no new functionality has developed during this
iteration. Other options are not correct.

75. The number of story points completed by the agile team during an iteration called,
A. Burn ratio.
B. Burn rate.
C. Velocity.
D. Team’s burn rate.
75. Answer: C. Explanation: The number of stories that a team can deliver within the iteration is called
velocity. Other options are not correct.

76. Information radiator that shows story points planned and completed during an iteration
called
A. Burn up chart.
B. Burndown chart.
C. Cumulative flow diagram.
D. Product vision box.
76. Answer: A. Explanation: Information radiator that shows story points planned and completed
during an iteration called burn up chart. Other options are not correct.

77. Type of information radiator that uses green, yellow, and red color indicators to show the
status of specific aspects of the project called,
A. Burndown chart.
B. Burn up chart.
C. Dashboard.
D. Product vision box.
77. Answer: C. Explanation: Type of information radiator that uses green, yellow, and red color
indicators to show the status of specific aspects of the project called Dashboard. Other options are not

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correct.

78. One of the reasons to implement agile in the organization,
A. Minimize cycle time.
B. Increase market opportunities for the organization.
C. Reduce threats.
D. All of the above.
78. Answer: D. Explanation: One of the reasons to implement agile in the organization, should
minimize cycle time, and increase the market opportunities for the organization and reduce threats.

79. This chart shows the work remaining in story points or ideal days in the project.
A. Burn up chart.
B. Dashboard.
C. Burndown chart.
D. Product vision box.
79. Answer: C Explanation: Burndown chart shows the work remaining in story points or ideal days in
the project. Other options are not correct.

80. The chart shows the work completed, in story points or ideal days in the project,
A. Burndown chart.
B. Burn up chart
C. Cumulative flow diagram.
D. Dashboard.
80. Answer: B Explanation: The chart shows the work completed, in story points or ideal days in the
project called Burn up chart. Other options are not correct.

81. A tool which used mainly to balance workload imbalances by spreading it more evenly called,
A. Burn up chart.
B. Kanban board.
C. Cumulative flow diagram
D. Burndown chart.
81. Answer: C. Explanation: A tool that used mainly to balance workload imbalances by spreading it
more evenly called a cumulative flow diagram. Other options are not correct.

82.____________can be defined as organizations pay, even though no deliverables are produced,
but based on the level of effort.
A. Level of effort.
B. Law of large numbers.

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C. Level of risk.
D. Level of work
82. Answer: A. Explanation: Level of effort can be defined as organizations pay, even though no
deliverables are produced, but based on the level of effort. Other options are not correct.

83. User stories at the top of the backlog are,
A. Not well defined.
B. Well defined.
C. Prioritized.
D. Not-prioritized.
83. Answer: B. Explanation: User stories at the top of the backlog are well defined. Other options are
not correct.

84. A tool used for continuous improvement called,
A. Kanban board.
B. Product vision box.
C. Elevator statement.
D. Information Radiator.
84. Answer: A. Explanation: A tool used for continuous improvement is called Kanban board. Kanban
is a process designed to help teams work together more effectively. Kanban board used for constant
improvement. Other options are not correct.

85. Time taken to shift between activities during meetings called
A. Actual Time.
B. Ideal Time.
C. Shuffle time.
D. Calendar Time.
85. Answer: C. Explanation: Time taken to shift between activities during meetings called Shuffle time.
Other options are not correct.

86. The agile manager collects lessons learned during
A. End of every iteration.
B. End of every release.
C. Throughout the project.
D. End of every retrospective.
86. Answer: C. Explanation: The agile manager collects lessons learned throughout the project. Other
options are not correct.

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87. A chart which used in collecting requirements, when some distractions happen during the
discussion called as

A. Burndown chart.

B. Parking lot chart.

C. Burn up chart.

D. Kanban board.
87. Answer: B. Explanation: A chart which used in collecting requirements, when some distractions
happen during the discussion called a Parking lot chart.

88. Definition of done can be created by,
A. Team.
B. Product owner.
C. Scrum master.
D. All of the above.
88. Answer: D Explanation: Definition of done can jointly be created by the team, product owner, and
the scrum master.

89. Continuous improvement can follow on the below agile practices,
A. Daily stand up meeting.
B. Retrospectives.
C. Demo.
D. All of the above.
89. Answer: D. Explanation: Continuous improvement can be followed on the agile practices Daily
stand up meeting, Pair programming, Demo, Review, Retrospectives.

90. Work in progress, the agile team, prefers to
A. Increase.
B. Reduce.
C. Stop.
D.Pause
90. Answer: B. Explanation: Work in progress, the agile team prefers to reduce because Work in
progress has a cost (investment), but no value (output).

91. One of the below is not an emotional intelligence quadrant

A. Self-awareness

B. Project-awareness.

C. Self-management

D. Social awareness

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91. Answer: B. Explanation: Emotional intelligence quadrants are Self-awareness, Self-management,
Social Awareness, and Social skills.

92. Escaped defects are identified by the,
A. Customer.
B. Agile team.
C. Quality control team.
D. Operations.
92. Answer: A Explanation: The customer identifies escaped defects.

93. Persona has one of the following,
A. Name.
B. Picture.
C. Behavioral traits.
D. All of the above.
93. Answer: D. Explanation: Persona is a fictional user of the system under development. A persona is
a fictional character that represents a subset of the market we want to capture. Persona typically has a
name, a picture, and relevant characteristics such as age or income group, behavioral traits. They
encourage us to follow a user-centric approach.

94. The product backlog should be,
A. Detailed
B. Estimable
C. Prioritized
D. All of the above.
94. Answer: D. Explanation: Product backlog should be detailed, estimable, emergent, prioritized.

95. Sprint 0 focuses on,
A. Developing an initial requirement
B. Initial architecture
C. Setting up the environment
D. All of the above.
95. Answer: D. Explanation: Spring 0 focuses on developing an initial requirement, initial architecture,
and setting up the environment.

96. Standard that an agile team to follow in the work environment called
A. Agile contract.
B. Team agreement.

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C. Working agreement.
D. Agile agreement.
96. Answer: C Explanation: Standard that an agile team to follow in the work environment. It posted in
a familiar place.

97. One of the below is not a core principle of XP,
A. Planning game.
B. Working software is the primary measure of progress.
C. Collective code ownership.
D. Refactoring.
97. Answer: B. Explanation: Working software is the primary measure of progress is the agile principle.

98. One of the below is not an information radiator,
A. Burn up chart.
B. Excel sheet stored on the computer.
C. Burndown chart.
D. Dashboard.
98. Answer: B. Explanation: Excel sheet stored in the computer is not an information radiator.

99. Team space encourages the following,
A. Collaboration
B. Communication.
C. Transparency.
D. All of the above.
99. Answer: D Explanation: Team space should encourage collocation, collaboration, communication,
transparency, and visibility. It should enhance productivity. Agile team space should promote maximum
interaction and communication from the team members.

100. The meetings usually held at the end of the iteration
A. Review meeting (product-based).
B. Retrospective meeting (process-based).
C. A and B.
D. Team happy hour.
100. Answer: C Explanation: 2 meetings usually held at the end of the iteration. Review meeting
(product based) and Retrospective meeting (process-based).

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