640 Objective English
human social systems, such as the digital divide, cybercrime, digital security and privacy concerns, all of which have (4) people’s lives
either directly or indirectly.
It is important that countries come up with the guidelines for action to (5) the incidences of malicious attacks on the confidentially,
integrity and availability of electronic data and systems, computer-related crimes, content-related offences and violations of intellectual
property rights. (6), threats to critical infrastructure and national interests arising from the use of the internet for criminal and terrorist
activities are of growing (7).The harm incurred to businesses, governments and individuals in those countries in which the internet is
used (8) is gaining in (9) and importance, while in other countries, cybercrime threatens the application of information and communica-
tion technology for government service, health care, trade, and banking. As users start losing (10) in online transactions and business,
the opportunity costs may become substantial.
1. (a) Entire (b) Lot (c) Great (d) all (e) Much
2. (a) scarcely (b) Whether (c) and (d) for (e) hardly
3. (a) created (b) bent (c) pressured (d) risen (e) stopped
4. (a) distanced (b) affected (c) exaggerated (d) advanced (e) cropped
5. (a) engage (b) conflict (c) war (d) combat (e) struggle
6. (a) But (b) More (c) Addition (d) Beside (e) Further
7. (a) concern (b) nature (c) pattern (d) important (e) matter
8. (a) really (b) figuratively (c) widely (d) never (e) tandem
9. (a) fear (b) days (c) positivity (d) width (e) scope
10. (a) tracks (b) measure (c) confidence (d) mind (e) grip
Directions (11–15): Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in a proper sequence to form a meaningful para-
graph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) It is no wonder that a majority of these excluded and low-achievers come from the most deprived sections of society.
(2) They are precisely those who are supposed to be empowered through education.
(3) With heightened political consciousness about the plight of these to-be-empowered people, never in the history of india has the
demand for inclusive education been as fervent as today.
(4) They either never enroll or they drop out of schools at different stages during these eight years.
(5) Of the nearly 200 million children in the age group between 6 and 14 years, more than half
(6) Of those who do complete eight years of schooling, the achievement levels of a large percentage, in language and mathematics,
is unacceptably low.
11. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 6
(e) 5
12. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? (e) 2
(e) 5
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 1
13. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
14. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
15. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 2
Directions (16–20): In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression of a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which
best describes its use in the sentence.
16. Facts spoke louder than words at the Company meeting where the director tried to paint a rosy picture of the Company’s financial
health.
(a) Too many facts related to the good financial health of the Company were presented during the meeting.
(b) The Company was not doing well financially despite the Director saying otherwise.
(c) The Director was very loud while presenting the facts about the Company’s financial health during the meeting.
(d) The facts stated in the meeting supported the Director’s claims of good financial health of the Company.
(e) the Company was doing exceptionally well financially, despite the Director saying otherwise.
17. By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, kajal had left her speechless.
(a) Kajal had ruined her chances of success by picking a fight with Sakshi in office.
(b) Kajal had exacted her revenge by picking a fight with sakshi in office.
(c) Kajal had exacted her revenge by picking a fight with sakshi in office.
(d) Kajal had hurt sakshi by picking a fight with her with sakshi in office.
(e) By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, kajal had missed getting the golden egg.
Banking Tests 641
18. I let the chips fall where they may and do not worry too much about what I want do next.
(a) I take calculated risks. (b) I let others do what they want and do not interfere.
(c) I am clumsy. (d) I do not try to control my destiny.
(e) I prefer chaos to calm.
19. After trying hard to convince Narendra to change his ways. Raman realized that a leopard cannot change its spots.
(a) Raman realized that Narendra would never change his ways.
(b) Raman realized that Naredra was helpless.
(c) Raman realized that that he was not good at convincing others.
(d) Raman realized that narendra would change his ways soon.
(e) Raman realized that someone else was forcing Narendra to act in a certain way.
20. Before starting work on our new project, our mentor told us to not count our chickens before they hatched.
(a) our mentor warned against being over-confident about achieving success.
(b) Our mentor asked us to meticulously count the chicken first and then the eggs.
(c) Our mentor warned us against being over-enthusiastic in implementing the project.
(d) Our mentor warned us about all the challenges that lay ahead of us.
(e) Our mentor informed us about the prizes that we would get on succeeding.
Directions (21–35): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any,
will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.)
21. (a) The third season of /(b) the popular television show will ends /(c) on a grad not with /(d) celebrities dancing and having fun. /
(e) No error
22. (a) The websit, which does not /(b) accept advertisements and is funded /(c) entirely by donations, describes itself /(d) as fifth most
popular website on the planet. /(e) No error
23. (a) As sharing crime statistics for /(b) year 2011, the Commissioner admitted that /(c) there had been an undue delay in /(d) the
setting up of an anti-narcotics cell. /
24. (a) The Moon may be the best Place /(b) to look for aliens as their /(c) footprints on their surface would /(d) last far longer than
radio signals. /(e) No error
25. (a) The judge advised the government to /(b) have metered autorikshaws across the state while /(c) recounting his personal experi-
ence where an autorickshaw driver /(d) made him to wait and also demanded Rs.100 /(e) no error
26. (a) The Company aims /(b) to nearly double /(c) its revenues on the back /(d) of collective action. /(e) No error
27. (a) The woman that had /(b) Kidnapped a child has now /(c) been apprehended and is being /(d) held in the city’s jail. /(e)
28. (a) Rose growers in /(b) the city are waking up /(c) to the benefits /(d) of collective action. /(e) No error
29. (a) The minister will have /(b) a tough task on his hands /(c) where three different recommendations /(d) for this year’s rate reach
his desk. /(e) No error
30. (a) In a first-of-its-kind study, /(b) could possibly undo /(c) the growth that followed /(d) the economic liberalization of 1991 /(e)
No error.
31. (a) In a first-of –its-king study, /(b) a team of scientists have tried to /(c) ‘grow’ new stem cells in /(d) due to fatal illnesses. /(e) No error
32. (a) If successful, the research could /(b) Pave the way towards /(c) the prevention In untimely deaths /(d) due to fatal illnesses. /
(e) No error
33. (a) The ministry has directed banks /(b) to do away with their /(c) separate promotion policies, a move /(d) strongly opposed by
the officers’ unions. /(e) No error
34. (a) After a complaint was filed, /(b) The police teams was given the photograph /(c) of the accused from the CCTV footage /(d)
recorded at the hotel. /(e) No error
35. (a) Activists opposing the rail projects said /(b) that the eleven new flyovers to be built /(c) would practically ring /(d) The death
knell for the city. /(e) No error
Directions (36–50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been
printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In India, innovation is emerging as one of the most important in the discourse on how to bring about greater and more consistent economic
and social development. One observes steadily growing investments in R&D across the country. The setting up of national and state
innovation bodies, as well the introduction of government-sponsored innovation funds. There have also been several conferences and
debates on innovation and how to best promote and accomplish it in India, and a number of articles on the subject, written for newspaper
and magazines, as well as more informal platform like online forums and blogs.
Academic engagement and Indian authorship on the subject have also exploded in the last five years. Despite widespread agreement
on the importance of innovation in India, there are wide gulfs between different conceptions of innovation and the path India should take
towards securing benefits through investment in innovation.
642 Objective English
Many Indian conversations around innovation begin by talking about jugaad, that uniquely Indian approach to a temporary fix when
something complex, like an automobile or a steam engine, stops working. However many observers have pointed out that whole jugaad
is certainly innovative, it is a response to the lack of an innovation culture-more a survival or coping mechanism at a time of need than
a systematic methodology to effectively address a wide ranging, complex set of problems.
Another specifically India approach to innovation that has entered into deemed by many to be the most appropriate for the Indian
context. In its midterm assessment of the 11th five-year plan, the Planning Commission stressed the need for innovation in india in order
to ‘accelerate its growth and to make growth more inclusive as well as environmentally sustainable.’ The document went on to say that
‘India needs more frugal innovation that produces more frugal cost products and services that are affordable by people at low levels
of income without compromising the safety, efficiency, and utility of the products. The country also need processes of innovation that
are frugal in the resources required to produce the innovation that are frugal in the resources required to produce the innovations. The
products and processes must also have frugal impact on the earth’s resources.’
Two people formulated a similar theory called the More-from-less (MLM) Theory of Innovation, which advocates a focus on
innovations that allow for more production using fewer resources but benefit more people. Under this rubric come products that are more
affordable versions of existing technologies. While both frugal innovation and the MLM theory are certainly valuable in terms of bringing
affordable Products and services to a greater number of people, and may even be considered a necessary first step on Inida’s innovation
path, barely graze the surface of what innovation can accomplish. That is, innovation is capable of bringing about complete paradigm
shifts and redefining the way we perceive and interact with the world. Take the cell Phone, for example : it revolutionized communication
in a previously inconceivable way, provided consumers with a product of unprecedented value and created an entirely new market. The
cell Phone was result of years of directed, Intentional innovation efforts and large investments, and would not have ever been created if
the people responsible simply set out to make the existing telephone cheaper and more accessible to all.
While juggad and innovation may be indicative of the Indian potential for invectiveness, This potential is not utilized or given
opportunity to flourish due to the lack of an enabling culture.
India’s many diverse and complex needs can be met only through systematic innovation, and major shifts have to first take place in
our educational institutions, government policies and commercial firms in order for such an innovation-enabling culture to come about.
The one thing that India’s innovation theorists have not said is that the absence of a culture of innovation is intrinsically linked to many
intractable Problems facing India as nation. These include poor delivery of government services, inadequate systems of personal identi-
fication and the absence of widely available financial services of rural poor, health and sanitation failures. This list can go on. Cumula-
tively, The inability of India as a notion, society and economy to adequately provide for its own population no longer reflects a failure of
implementation, but rather of a failure longer reflects failure of implementations, but rather of a failure of innovation, for there are not
immediately available off-the-shelf solutions that would make it possible for these grand challenges facing india to be redressed, Rather, we
need to look at these intractable problems form the more sophisticated and empowering lens of innovation for them to begin to be solved.
36. Which of the following depict/s the growing importance of innovation in India?
(1) Increased investment in research
(2) Initiation of govt-backed funds for innovation
(3) Increase in number of conferences arranged and articles written on innovation
(a) Only (2) (b) Only (1) and (2) (c) Only (3)
(d) Only (2) and (3) (e) All (1), (2) and (3)
37. Which of the following best describes the MLM Theory of Innovation?
(a) Maximize output by using least number of resources and benefiting a small number of people
(b) Maximize resource utilization and cost, thereby benefit maximum number of people
(c) Minimize output and resource utilization, yet benefit the maximum number of people
(d) Benefit most number of people through least usage of resources and maximum output
(e) Benefit most number of people through maximum usage of resources and minimizing cost
38. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?
(a) Innovation at its Best
(b) India and the Elixir called Innovation
(c) Innovation around the World vis-à-vis India and other Neighbouring Countries
(d) World wide Developments in Innovation
(e) Innovation-the History
39. What tone is the author employing in the entire passage to get his message across?
(a) Pessimistic (b) sarcatic (c) Urgent
(d) Informative (e) Dubious
40. Why, according to the author, is India unable to adequately provided for its people?
(a) Failure to implement schemes and initiatives meant for the Indian populae
(b) Absence of regulatory authorities to oversee the implementation process
Banking Tests 643
(c) Failure to innovate in order to find solutions
(d) Lack of governmental schemes and initiatives to redress the challenges faced by India
(e) Hesitation of the Indian people in trying out different schemes provided by the government for upliftment
41. Why, according to some people, is jugaad not the answer to India’s problems?
(a) Many a time, this methodology backfires leading to further complications.
(b) Juggad provides only cheap solutions to all problems.
(c) it is reactive and not a proactive and organized method of finding solutions to problems.
(d) it can provide solutions to only simple problems and not complex ones.
(e) None of these
42. Which of the following is/are true about the cell phone?
(1) The innovation of the cell phone required investment of huge capital.
(2) The cell phone, when invented, was meant to be affordable to all.
(3) The cell phone was made available to the public in a very short time form its idention.
(a) Only (1) (b) Only (1) and (2) (c) Only (2) and (3)
(d) Only (2) (e) All (1), (2) and (3)
43. What does the author mean by ‘frugal impact on the earth’s resources’ as given in the passage?
(a) The damage to the environment should be assessable
(b) More consumption of natural resources as compared to manmade ones
(c) Minimum impact on the environment in term of pollution
(d) The impact on the environment should be such that it is reversible
(e) Minimum usage of earth’s natural resources
Directions (44–48): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold used
in the passage.
44. Redressed
(a) Addressed (b) Equalized (c) restored (d) Redone (e) Rearranged
(e) value
45. Currency (e) Unavoidably
(e) Suggestive
(a) Notes (b) Usage (c) Money (d) Cash
46. Intrinsically
(a) Internally (b) Whole-heatedly (c) Fundamentally (d) Virtually
47. Indicative
(a) Causative (b) Forthcoming (c) Verbal (d) Abstract
48. Compromising
(a) Co-operating With (b) Reducing The Quality
(d) Conciliating In order To
(c) Hampering The Progress
(e) Adjusting for the better
Directions (49–50): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold as
used in the passage.
49. Lack (b) Sufficiency (c) Charisma (d) Adequacy (e) Dearth
(a) Presence (b) Truthful (c) Incredible (d) Apparent (e) Complex
50. Inconceivable
(a) Visible
Answers 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (e) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (e) 10. (c) 11. (e) 12. (e)
14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (c)
1. (d) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (e) 29. (c) 30. (e) 31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (e) 34. (b) 35. (e) 36. (e)
13. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (e) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (e) 48. (b)
25. (d) 50. (d)
37. (d)
49. (a)
644 Objective English
SBI PO RECRUITMENT EXAMINATION
Cloze Tests Reading
10 Comprehension
20%
9
18% Fill in the Blanks
5
10%
Jumbled Sentences Sentence Improvement Test of Synonyms Type of Questions No. of MCQs
in a Paragraph 15 3 Reading Comprehension 9
5 30% Fill in the Blanks 5
10% Test of Antonyms 6% Test of Synonyms 3
3 Test of Antonyms 3
6% 15
Sentence Improvement
Jumbled Sentences 5
in a Paragraph
Cloze Tests 10
50
TOTAL
Directions Read the following passage carefully and answer these questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in
BOLD to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
With an increasing dependence on information systems, the need for such systems to be reliable and secure also becomes more essential.
As growing numbers of ordinary citizens use computer networks for banking, shopping, etc., network security is potentially a massive
problem. Over the last few years, the need for computer and information system security has become increasingly evident, as web sites
are being defaced with greater frequency, more and more denial-of-service attacks are being reported, credit card information is being
stolen, there is increased sophistication of hacking tools that are openly available to the public on the Internet, and there is increasing
damage being caused by viruses and worms to critical information system resources.
At the organizational level, institutional mechanisms have to be designed in order to review policies, practices, measures, and pro-
cedures to review e-security regularly and assess whether these are appropriate to their environment. It would be helpful if organizations
share information about threats and vulnerabilities, and implement procedures for rapid and effective cooperation to prevent, detect and
respond to security incidents. As new threats and vulnerabilities are continuously discovered, there is a strong need for cooperation among
organizations and, if necessary, we could also consider cross-border information sharing. We need to understand threats and dangers
that could be vulnerable to and the steps that need to be taken to mitigate these vulnerabilities. We need to understand access control
systems and methodology, telecommunication and network security, and security management practice. We should be well versed in the
area of application and systems development security, cryptography, operations security and physical security.
The banking sector is poised for more challenges in the near future. Customers of banks can now look forward to a large array of new
offerings by banks. From an era of mere competition, banks are now cooperating among themselves so that the synergistic benefits are
shared among all the players. This would result in the formation of shared payment networks (a few shared ATM networks have already
been commissioned by banks), offering payment services beyond the existing time zones. The Reserve Bank is also facilitating new
projects such as the Multi Application Smart Card project which, when implemented, would facilitate transfer of funds using electronic
means and in a safe and secure manner across the length and breadth of the country, with reduced dependence on paper currency. The
opportunities of e-banking or e-power in general, need to be harnessed, so that banking is available to all customers in such a manner
that they would feel most convenient, and if required, without having to visit a branch of a bank. All these will have to be accompanied
with a high level of comfort, which again boils down to the issue of e-security.
One of the biggest advantages accruing to banks in the future would be the benefits that arise from the introduction of Real Time Gross
Settlement (RTGS). Funds management by treasuries of banks would be helped greatly by RTGS. With almost 70 banks having joined
the RTGS system, more large value funds transfers are taking place through this system. The implementation of core banking solutions
by banks is closely related to RTGS too. Core banking will make anywhere banking a reality for customers of each bank, while RTGS
Banking Tests 645
bridges the need for inter-bank funds movement. Thus, the days of depositing a cheque for collection and a long wait for its realization
would soon be a thing of the past for those customers who would opt for electronic movement of funds, using the RTGS system, an
almost instantaneous basis. Core banking is already in vogue in many private sector and foreign banks; while its implementation is at
different stages amongst the public sector banks.
IT would also facilitate better and more scientific decision-making within banks. Information systems now provide decision makers in
banks with a great deal of information which, along with historical data and trend analysis, help in the building up of efficient Management
Information Systems. This, in turn, would help in better Asset Liability Management (ALM) which, in today’s world of hairline margins,
is a key requirement for the success of banks in their operational activities. Another benefit which e-banking could provide for, relates to
Customer Relationship Management (CRM). CRM helps in stratification of customers and evaluating customer needs on a holistic basis
which could be paving the way for competitive edge for banks and complete customer care for customers of banks.
1. The content of the passage mainly emphasises
(a) the threat of competition among banks providing tele-banking services
(b) the scientific advancements that have facilitated quicker and scientific banking procedures
(c) threats to online banking and remedies to guard against them
(d) e-banking and its impact on global economy
(e) none of these
2. What, according to the passage, is the pre-requisite to lessen the threats of hacking?
(a) Effective measures to combat vulnerability
(b) Environment-friendly gadgets to remedy damages
(c) Detection and timely prevention of the threat
(d) Effective mechanism to evaluate the e-security
(e) None of these
3. In what way does IT catalyse better decision-making?
1. By providing updated data and trend analysis
2. By providing increasing opportunities of personal contacts
3. By ensuring better asset-liability management
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only (e) all the three
4. What is the advantage of RTGS to the customers?
(a) Anywhere banking (b) Instant realization of cheques
(c) Easy withdrawal of cash (d) Hassle-free depositing of cash-load
(e) Availability of transaction facilities
5. What, accordingly to the author, should be the ultimate goal(s) of e-banking?
(1) Customers’ convenience (2) Avoidance of heavy footfall of customers in bank branches
(3) Protection of customers’ interests
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All the three (e) None of these
6. Why is it obligatory that a system should be perfectly dependable?
(a) To justify escalating dependence on system (b) To ensure security of the system
(c) To disallow any pilferage whatsoever (d) To ascertain proper logistic support
(e) None of these
7. Which of the following is/are recommended by the author to ensure security of banking transactions?
(1) Continuous re-examination of policies and procedures (2) Ensuring appropriateness of the security measures
(3) Cooperation among various users to identify and prevent threat
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only (e) None of these
8. Which of the following statements is definitely false in the context of the passage?
(1) Transfer of funds to any part of the country through electronic media is under active consideration.
(2) Cooperation among various competing banks is helpful to all of them in sharing legitimate benefits.
(3) Assessment of customer needs and their clustering in homogeneous groups provides competitive edge to banks.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All the three (e) None of these
9. Computer-savvy citizens are also scared to transact online due to the following except
(a) smuggling of vital information regarding credit cards
(b) availability of hacking tools on the internet
(c) damage by viruses to critical information
(d) sophisticated, well-guarded online transaction devices
(e) denial-of-service attacks that put valid customers to inconvenience
646 Objective English
Directions Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in, the passage.
10. INSTANTANEOUS (b) quick (c) immediate (d) eventful (e) unconventional
(a) delayed (b) rigid (c) invincible (d) prone (e) weakling
(b) gigantic (c) bulky (d) insignificant (e) acute
11. VULNERABLE
(a) susceptible
12. MASSIVE
(a) tiny
Directions Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
13. ERA (b) epoch (c) span (d) spirit (e) instinct
(a) year (b) adulterated (c) stupefied (d) launched (e) ready
(b) allay (c) elevate (d) invigorate (e) amplify
14. POISED
(a) balanced
15. MITIGATE
(a) investigate
Directions In each of the following sentences, there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted
by numbers (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to
make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.
16. Most people are too ________ in their own lives to ________ much about the agonies of others.
(a) absorbed …. care (b) concerned … think (c) indulged … eradicate
(d) involved … console (e) entangling … worry
17. Doctors and lawyers ________ that advertising will certainly ________ their profession adversely.
(a) trust … damage (b) believe … affect (c) contemplate … boost
(d) argue … effect (e) plead … escalate
18. Because the ________ leading to cancellation of flight were murky, the Minister appointed a Commission to ________ and report
the matter.
(a) staff members … undertake (b) decision … decide (c) facts … underplay
(d) events … camouflage (e) circumstances … investigate
19. Several plots ________ ________ in various televisions episodes.
(a) screen … concurrently (b) televised … consequently (c) occur … repeatedly
(d) exhibit … frequently (e) demonstrate … violently
20. By ________ of their athletic activities, a few sportsmen are able to escape the pressures that living in ________ can create.
(a) knowledge … affluence (b) way … prosperity (c) order … vicinity
(d) virtue … poverty (e) contrast … adversity
Directions Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make
the sentences grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (d) as the answer.
21. It is now well known that the world response to the Asian tsunami disaster with an outpouring generosity.
(a) world responded to (b) world’s response to (c) world had a response
(d) world responding for (e) No correction required
22. The most important quality a chief executive candidate should have a noble character.
(a) must have a (b) should have to be (c) should be (d) should have is a (e) No correction required
23. What is needed now is not mere declarations or promises, but actions. Actions to fulfill the promises already made.
(a) promises were already made (b) already made promises
(c) promises that we make (d) promises which already made (e) No correction required
24. What we have done is from humanity point of view.
(a) have been doing was (b) had done being (c) have done were
(d) have been were (e) No correction required
25. Despite considerable achievements in other areas, humans still cannot control weather and probably never be able to do so.
(a) probably not be able (b) perhaps be never have ability
(c) probably will never be able (d) probably never be enabled (e) No correction required
26. The newly-wed couple was shocked when it was observed that many people who had been invited missing.
(a) were invited (b) had been invited were (c) had invited were
(d) had been invited had been (e) No correction required
27. Though people should be right to protest, it should not be by upsetting the livelihood of others.
(a) should be righteous in protesting (b) should have right to protest
(c) would be right in protest (d) should have been right to protest (e) No correction required
Banking Tests 647
28. They have made a futile attempt of suppressing the truth and suggest falsehood.
(a) for suggestion of falsehood (b) after suggesting falsity (c) and suggesting falsehood
(d) in suggestion of falsehood (e) no correction required
29. Because his work as a painter requires that he use products containing strong chemicals, he has developed skin allergy.
(a) required to use (b) requires that he should use (c) required that he uses
(d) requires that he uses (e) No correction required
30. From time to time, there have been reports of how children had tried to imitate their favourite hero and landed in trouble.
(a) has been report (b) were reports (c) often reported (d) had been reported
(e) No correction required
31. We are happy to note that the use of emission controls was created to reduce air pollution.
(a) emission controls were (b) the uses of emission controls were (c) emission controls had
(d) emission controls had to be (e) No correction required
32. Although he was seen with a drug-peddler, he is not necessarily himself a drug-peddler.
(a) it is not necessary that he be himself a drug-peddler (b) he is not necessary to be a drug-peddler himself
(c) he was not necessary to be himself a drug-peddler (d) he is not necessarily a drug-peddler himself
(e) No correction required
33. Optimism coupled with faith in and hopes of future is the key to progress.
(a) faithfulness in and hopes of faith in and helping of (b) faith in and helping of
(c) faith in and hopes for (d) faith and hope of (e) No correction required
34. We have already identified areas where landslides are possible and start evacuation of residents to safer locations.
(a) starting evacuation (b) started evacuation (c) have started evacuate
(d) start evacuating (e) No correction required
35. The law that now stands abolished was a flawed and discriminatory peace of legislation.
(a) flaw and discrimination of peace of (b) flawed and discriminating peace for
(c) flawing and discriminating peace of (d) flawed and discriminatory piece of
(e) No correction required
Directions Given below is the first sentence of a paragraph followed by six other disarranged sentences which are denoted by (1), (2), (3),
(4), (5) and (6). Rearrange these six sentences to make a meaningful paragraph, keeping the first sentence as the start of the pararaph
and then answer the questions that follow.
Starter: Twenty-five centuries ago when the Greek traveler Herodotus visited the already ancient monument of Egypt, he found that the
tourists had gotten there first.
1. The Egyptians built for eternity.
2. The ‘why’ is easy: religious beliefs that sought perpetuation in masses of stones so ponderous they must be measures in tons and
acres and that demanded that these material manifestations of faith be not only huge but permanent.
3. Tourists are still coming to Egypt and are probably still inscribing their names on the old stones.
4. In the words of Ramses II, who dedicated the magnificent temple of Mediner Habut in the 13th century BC, this was to be ‘a place
of the Lord of the Gods, forever.’
5. Their names were scratched on the crumbling ruins in hundreds of ancient languages.
6. They are probably sharing another experience too—standing in silent and involuntary admiration before the great structures and
silently posing those inevitable questions: Why? How?
36. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after the start?
(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
37. Which of the following should the first sentence after the start?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 4 (e) 5
38. Which of the following should be the sixth (last) sentence after the start?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
39. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after the start?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 6
40. Which of the following should be the second sentence after the start?
(a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
Directions In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage
and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words without changing
the meaning of the passage.
Capital investment is essential for … (41)… of productive capacity and adding new capacity for current and future industrial growth. The
…(42)… of this article is to make an assessment of capital investment in the private corporate sector, which would provide important
insights into the business expectations about performance of economy in …(43)…, and the infrastructure and manufacturing sectors in
648 Objective English
…(44)… The method of …(45)… growth in corporate investment should, ideally, be based on the available means of financing and
investment project. The bulk of the major projects in the private corporate sector is …(46)… by the leading all India term-lending
institutions, namely, the Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI), the Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI), the Industrial
Investment Bank of India (IIBI), ICICI Ltd. (now ICICI Bank) and the Infrastructure Development Finance Company (IDFC). The financial
sector reforms in the 1990s have, in effect …(47)… the sources of financing corporate projects; in particular, commercial banks have,
in recent years, stated …(48)… financial assistance to corporate projects. Since a majority of the private corporate entities, undertaking
large projects, …(49)… the term-lending institutions and banks for financing the projects cost, the phasing details of capital expenditure
available in the relevant project reports would provide a base for estimating …(50)… growth in capital expenditure.
41. (a) installation (b) maintenance (c) aggravation (d) generation (e) modernization
42. (a) problem (b) objective (c) summary (d) essence (e) moral
43. (a) abstract (b) globe (c) development (d) general (e) details
44. (a) particular (b) question (c) view (d) future (e) industrialization
45. (a) reinventing (b) augmenting (c) estimating (d) amplifying (e) checking
46. (a) financed (b) encapacitated (c) analyzed (d) entrusted (e) governed
47. (a) reduced (b) enlarged (c) deactivated (d) eurbed (e) magnified
48. (a) arresting (b) monitoring (c) regulating (d) providing (e) withdrawing
49. (a) mitigate (b) visit (c) explore (d) finance (e) approach
50. (a) fastidious (b) sluggish (c) likely (d) complete (e) relevant
Answers 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (e) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (a)
14. (e) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (e) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (e) 24. (a)
1. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (e) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d)
13. (b) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (d)
25. (c) 50. (c)
37. (e)
49. (e)
SBI-BANK CLERICAL
Jumbled Cloze Tests Reading
Sentences 5 Comprehension
5 13% 7
13% 17%
Synonyms Type of Questions No. of MCQs
3
Spellings 7% Reading Comprehension 7
5 Synonyms 3
Idiom/Phrases
13% 5 Idiom/Phrases 5
Grammatical Error 5
12%
Fill in the Blanks Fill in the Blanks 5
5 Grammatical Error Spellings 5
5
13% Jumbled Sentences 5
12%
Cloze Tests 5
TOTAL 40
Banking Tests 649
Test II – General English
Directions (1–7): Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help
you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time there lived a queen in the city of Benaras. Her name was Khema and she was the wife of King Bahuputtaka. One night,
the Queen had a dream of a beautiful golden goose that spoke with great wisdom, almost as if he was a sage. She told her husband that she
desperately wanted to see a bird just like the one in her dream. So the King asked his ministers to find out all that they could about a bird
such as this. He was told that such a bird did exist but was extremely rare and difficult to find. They advised him to build a beautiful lake on
the outskirts of Benaras so that he may attract such a rare and lovely creatures to reside there. In this way the queen might have her wish.
Towards the north, on Mount Cittakuta, there lived about ninety thousand wild geese headed by a beautiful golden goose called King
Dhatarattha. He got to hear of this exquisite lake surrounded by water lilies and lotuses floating on the surface. The King had invited
all the birds to come and live on it; promising that none of them would ever be harmed. Corn was scattered on a daily basis in order to
attract the birds. So a couple of geese went up to their King, the golden goose and told him that they were quite tired of living up on the
mountains and would like to see this wonderful lake where they had been promised food and protection. The king agreed to their request
and took the flock down towards Benaras. Meanwhile, at the lake King Bahuputtaka had placed hunters all around in order to capture
any golden goose that happened to pass by. So the next morning when the headhunter saw this flock of geese approaching he was very
excited to see their golden leader. He immediately went about setting up a snare amongst the water lilies and lotuses, as he knew that
the leader would definitely be the first to alight.
The whole flock came flying down in one mighty swoop and flying down in one mighty swoop and as expected it was the King’s
foot that touched the water first. He was ensnared and could not escape. Seeing this, the other geese flew into a panic. But none had the
courage to try to free their king and so flew back to Mount Cittacuta for safety. All except one. He was the chief captain, Sumukha. King
Dhatrattha entreated him to fly to safety too, as he would surely be captured if he stayed by his side. But Sumukha replied that he would
never desert his master in the face of danger and would either try to save him or die by his die.
At this point the hunter approached and as Sumukha saw him he decided to appeal to his compassion. The hunter asked the golden
goose how come he had not noticed the trap that was set. The golden goose replied that when one’s time was up it was no use to struggle
against what was fated and one must just accept it. The huntsman was very impressed with his grace and wisdom. He them turned to
Sumukha and asked why he had not fled with the other birds even thought he was free to do so. Sumukha answered that the golden goose
was his King, best friend and master and that he could never desert him even at the cost of his own life. Hearing this, the hunter realized
that these were a couple of rare birds of great nobility. He did not much care for his own King’s reward and decided to do the right thing
and set them free. He told Sumukha that as he was ready to die for his King he would set them both free to fly wherever they wish.
1. Why were the geese keen on visiting the lake in Benaras?
(a) They were invited personally by King Bahuputtaka (b) They were tired of their told lake
(c) They were amused by the water lilies and lotuses (d) The lake was not very far from the mountains
(e) To lake was to be a source of good food and protection
2. Why did the king approach the ministers?
(a) In order to find out the best location for the lake (b) In order to find out if a golden goose existed
(c) To enquire about his wife’s dreams (d) To devise a plan to capture all rare bird species
(e) To enquire about the best hunter in the locality
3. Why did the head hunter release the King, golden goose?
(a) He was impressed by his wisdom and nobility
(b) The geese were a rare species of birds
(c) The golden goose, King Dhatarattha promised him a handsome reward
(d) The hunter sympathized with a golden goose
(e) The hunter did not want the chief captain to lose a friend
4. What was the king’s intention behind building a lake?
(a) To attract all rare species of living animals and birds (b) To beautify the city of Benaras
(c) He did not want to go against the wishes of his wife (d) He wanted to capture the golden goose
(e) He enjoyed bird watching and wanted to create a natural habitat for them
5. Why did the flock of geese panic and retreat to Mount Cittacuta?
(a) Their King took the wrong route to the lake and they lost their way
(b) Their King, the golden goose, was captured
(c) Their chief captain, Sumukha betrayed the King
(d) They spotted many hunters by the lake
(e) None of these
650 Objective English
6. What advice did the ministers give to the king?
(a) That no such golden goose existed and he was only wasting his time searching for one
(b) To create an artificial golden goose, for the queen
(c) To build a lake in order to attract the golden goose
(d) To open a sanctuary of rare birds for the queen
(e) To have a beautiful garden surrounded by flowers and trees
7. Which of the following statements would best describe the qualities of Sumukha?
(i) Betrayer of the flock (ii) The Selfless Goose (iii) Loyal towards the king
(c) Only (iii) and (iv)
(iv) The native and ignorant goose
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(d) Only (i) and (iv) (e) Only (ii) and (iii)
Directions (8–10): Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage
8. Exquisite (b) Delicate (c) Elaborate (d) Wonderful (e) Efficient
(a) Expensive (b) Alarm (c) Plan (d) Arrangement (e) Efficient
(b) Encourage (c) Instigate (d) Escort (e) Abandon
9. Snare
(a) Trap
10. Desert
(a) Displease
Directions (11–15) : In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which
best describes its use in the sentence.
11. The course of events made it necessary for Joseph to start working
(a) events that were planned (b) long list of future event
(c) A succession of unexpected events (d) nature of events that followed after Joseph joined work
(e) None of these
12. The team put their plan into execution the very next day
(a) proposed a plan (b) discussed their plan
(c) started thinking about a plan (d) started carrying out their plan
(e) None of these
13. Mrs. Nayak opened the discussion on the ‘alarming rate of poverty in India’.
(a) started the discussion (b) gave her opinion in the discussion
(c) did not agree on the discussion (d) welcomed the people to the discussion
(e) None of these
14. The new law on ‘Right to Food Safety’ will come into force next month
(a) be forced upon the people (b) be associated from next month onwards
(c) be implemented next month (d) be withdrawn next month
(e) be widely rejected next month
15. When the girl wanted to stay out past midnight, her father put his foot down.
(a) gave in to her request (b) walked away disapprovingly
(c) obstructed her from leaving the house (d) requested her to be home on time
(e) None of these
Directions (16–20): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of
the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctua-
tion, if any).
16. A public safety advertisement (a)/ campaign in Russia (b)/ hope to draw attention (c)/ of pedestrians crossing the road (d)/. No
error (e)
17. Nuclear waste will still being (a)/ radioactive even after twenty thousand years, (b)/ so it must be disposed (c)/ of very carefully
(d)/. No error (e)
18. My friend lived at the top (a)/ of an old house (b)/ which attic had been (c)/ converted into a flat (d)/. No error (e)
19. The Renaissance was (a)/ a time to ‘re-awakening’ (b)/ in both the arts (c)/ and the sciences (d)/. No error (e)
20. A cash prize was (a)/ award to the most (b)/ successful salesman of the year (c)/ by the President of the company (d)/. No error (e)
Banking Tests 651
Directions (21–25): Each sentence below has a blank/s, each blank indicates that something has been omitted. Choose the word/s that
best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
21. The state-of-the-art school is _______ with a medical clinic and fitness centre.
(a) establish (b) illustrative (c) having
(d) equipped (e) compromising
22. Many leading members of the opposition party _______ to justify the party’s decision.
(a) having tried (b) has tried (c) have been trying
(d) tries (e) is trying
23. The charity _______ most of its money through private donations
(a) receives (b) borrows (c) uses
(d) proposes (e) invests
24. The Bhagaved Gita is a part of the Mahabharata, but it stands _______ and is _______ in itself.
(a) dependent, justified (b) together, justified
(c) separate, dignified (d) apart, complete
(e) united, connected
25. The artist’s work of art is worthy _______ praise
(a) for (b) of (c) to (d) about (e) to be
Directions (26–30): In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One
of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is
inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and
appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (e) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
26. Employees must familiarise(a)/themselves with the health(b)/and safety(c)/manual(d)/of the organization. All Correct(e)
27. The political(a)/environment(b)/is not conducive(c)/to economic reforms(d)/. All Correct(e)
28. The ship(a)/was at sea for many days and finally(b)/anchored(c)/near the costline(d)/. All Correct(e)
29. Some of our regular listeners(a)/have complained(b)/about the new programme(c)/schedule(d)/. All Correct(e)
30. The report(a)/found that the safety(b)/equipment had been very poorly(c)/maintained(d)/. All Correct(e)
Directions (31–35): Rearrange the following six sentences/group of sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form
a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) The merchant greedily counted his gold and said, ‘The purse I dropped had 200 pieces of gold in it. You’ve already stolen more
than the reward ! Go away or I will tell the police.’
(2) The judge, looking towards the merchant said, ‘You stated that the purse you lost contained 200 pieces of gold. Well, that’s a
considerable cost. But, the purse this beggar found had only 100 pieces of gold.’
(3) Being an honest man, the beggar came forward and handed the purse to the merchant saying. ‘Here is your purse. May I have my
reward now?’
(4) ‘This purse therefore cannot be the one you lost.’ And, with that, the judge gave the purse and all the gold to the beggar.
(5) A beggar found a leather purse that someone had dropped in the marketplace. On opening it, he discovered that it contained 100
pieces of gold. Then he heard a merchant shout, ‘A reward !to the one who finds my leather purse.’
(6) ‘I am an honest man,’ said the beggar defiantly. ‘Let us take this matter to the court. The judge patiently listened to both sides of
the story.
31. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 6
(e) 3
32. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement? (e) 3
(e) 3
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 2 (e) 3
33. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 5
34. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 5
35. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 5
652 Objective English
Directions (36–40): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against 4each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The Bhagavad Gita is a poem of 700 verses which is a part of the Mahabharata. It is the only philosophical song existing in all lan-
guages. Its popularity and influence have never waned. It ...(36)... light and guidance to the troubled mind in times of crises. It is in
the ...(37)... of a dialogue between Arjuna and Krishna on the battlefield. Arjuna’s mind is troubled at the thought of the killings of his
friends and relatives. He cannot conceive of any gain. Arjuna is the ...(38)... of the tortured spirit of man torn by conflicting obliga-
tions and moralities.
The dialogue proceeds and takes us to the higher level of individual duty and social behaviour, application of ethics to practical life
and social outlook that should govern all. An attempt is ...(39)... to reconcile the three paths of human advancement-the path of knowl-
edge, the path of action and the path of faith. But more ...(40)... is laid on faith. There is a call of action to meet the obligations of life,
keeping in view the spiritual background and the large purpose of the universe.
36. (a) shines (b) enforces (c) secures (d) seeks (e) teach
37. (a) constitution (b) part (c) formation (d) form (e) programme
38. (a) dream (b) source (c) figures (d) symbol (e) conceived
39. (a) made (b) established (c) coined (d) given (e) generated
40. (a) significant (b) declaration (c) emphasis (d) blessings (e) important
Answers 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (e) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (e) 11. (d) 12. (d)
14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d)
1. (a) 26. (a) 27. (e) 28. (d) 29. (e) 30. (e) 31. (c) 32. (e) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c)
13. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c)
25. (b)
37. (d)
CORPORATION BANK PO EXAMINATION
Spellings Fill in the Blanks
5 4
Antonyms 10%
8% Cloze Tests
15
2 30%
4%
Synonyms
3
6%
Idiom/Phrases Jumbled Sentences Type of Questions No. of MCQs
5 Cloze Tests 15
5 Jumbled Sentences 5
10% Grammatical Error 11
Grammatical Error 10% Idiom/Phrases 5
Synonyms 3
11 Antonyms 2
Spellings 5
22% Fill in the Blanks 4
TOTAL 50
English Language
Directions (1–15): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Prima facie, there is much cause …(1)… Cheer. Provisional data gleaned from the latest Census …(2)… that India’s literacy levels have
soared: India’s effective literacy rate jumped by 9.2 per cent to …(3)… 74.04 per cent.
Banking Tests 653
Significantly, literacy rates improved sharply among females compared …(4)… males. Thus, while effective literacy rates for males
rose from 75.26 per cent to 82.14 per cent—a rise of 6.9 per cent—literacy rates for females climbed from 53.67 per cent to 64.48 per
cent an 11.8 per cent increase.
That is …(5)… news indeed. But this data masks a few worrying concerns. First, the data related to effective literacy, and …(6)…
literacy. Measuring effective literacy in India means …(7)… anyone who can read and write his or her own name. …(8)… if Ram knows
how to read and write the three letters of his name, and Sita knows how to …(9)… and write the four letters of her name, they got included
in the …(10)… of effective literates. This is not the way developed countries …(11)… literacy.
Second literacy becomes relevant if it …(12)… to employability. Both the confederation of Indian industry and the Boston Consult-
ing Group estimate that India would face a ‘talent gap’ of more than 5 million by 2012, as …(13)… educational institutions do not impart
employable skills. Just 20 per cent of the engineering graduates are employable. A McKinsey report finds only 25 per cent engineers, 15
per cent finance graduates and less than 10 per cent of the other graduates to be employable.
It is even …(14), ... alarming when one taken into account that graduates comprise only 3.5 per cent of India’s population—this
includes graduates in all stream such as Arts, Commerce, Science Engineering and Medicine. If 90 per cent of the graduates are unem-
ployable it means that barely 0.5 per cent of India’s population …(15)… employable graduates.
1. (a) of (b) at (c) upon (d) for (e) off
2. (a) show (b) speak (c) site (d) seek (e) strive
3. (a) cross (b) decline (c) reach (d) increase (e) double
4. (a) to (b) against (c) for (d) of (e) at
5. (a) worrying (b) expected (c) new (d) old (e) heartening
6. (a) also (b) nor (c) not (d) ineffective (e) masked
7. (a) excluding (b) rejecting (c) encouraging (d) including (e) subjecting
8. (a) since (b) thus (c) there (d) provided (e) even
9. (a) speak (b) say (c) tell (d) read (e) point
10. (a) Process (b) dynamic (c) style (d) development (e) category
11. (a) reduce (b) increase (c) enhance (d) entertain (e) define
12. (a) succumbs (b) leads (c) reduces (d) manages (e) makes
13. (a) future (b) existing (c) overseas (d) bad (e) best
14. (a) less (b) above (c) more (d) significant (e) major
15. (a) comprises (b) provides (c) educates (d) postulates (e) predicts
Directions (16–20): Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful para-
graph then answer the questions given below them.
(1) This calls for a deeper understanding of the perceived as well as real risk of nuclear power for the countries where production and
consumption levels of electricity are high.
(2) However, in per capita terms, it ranks around 150.
(3) The accident at japans’ Fukushima nuclear power point as a result of a tsunami seems to have made a heavier impact on the public
mind all over the world than the tsunami itself.
(4) China is at the 80th rank, Russia 26th, Japan 19th and the US 11th and in these as well as India nuclear is the only energy source
which can meet the challenge.
(5) Among these countries, India is the fifth largest producer of electricity in the world after China, the US Japan and Russia.
16. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
17. Which of the following would be the (FIFTH) LAST sentence.
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 1 (e) 2
18. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 1
19. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 2 (e) 3
20. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence?
(a) 5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 4
Directions (21–30): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it or a wrong word has been used. The
error, if any will be in one part of the sentence or (d). The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error. The answer is (e) i.e.
‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
654 Objective English
21. (a) the letter of offer (b) is being dispatched to
(c) the shareholders of the company (d) whom were allotted shares
(e) No error.
(b) necessary have
22. (a) The government policy does not (d) dictated by global policy changes.
(c) to be
(e) No error (b) and we might realize
(d) we went wrong, the consequences was not as bad
23. (a) Nothing is perfect
(c) that even when (b) studying the motion of galaxies.
(e) No error (d) embarked upon a great discovery.
24. (a) when the astronomers first begin (b) was to
(c) they had no idea they had (d) reach the switch.
(e) No error
(b) a body is comparatively lowest when
25. (a) The child (d) thus optimum for examination
(c) small to
(e) No error (b) to bolster his position
(d) corruption charges against rivals
26. (a) the rate of metabolism of
(c) it is at rest and is (b) in the university has enraged
(e) No error (d) on strike since tomorrow.
27. (a) The opposition leader tried (b) as the chief minister of the state
(c) with the voters by pressing (d) has drastically increased.
(e) No error
(b) an lying
28. (a) The recently imposed dress code (d) all her novels
(c) the students who will be going
(e) No error (b) demands the schools to teach
(d) among with the academic skills.
29. (a) Ever since he took over
(c) rate for unemployment
(e) No error
30. (a) Although the brilliant writer
(c) pessimism prevails in
(e) No error
31. (a) Changed social setting
(c) moral and social values
(e) No error
Directions (32–36): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c), and (d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold
in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (e) as
the answer.
32. The grim job market has taken its toll on students, many of those had hoped for a much better futures.
(a) much of whom (b) many of whom (c) several of these
(d) many of which (e) No correction required.
33. The relationship we have with our clients are the cornerstone of our futures.
(a) our client are (b) each clients is (c) our clients is
(d) all clients are (e) No correction required.
34. Many developed countries have been attempting to buy agricultural land in other countries to meet their won demand.
(a) has been attempting (b) have being attempting (c) are being attempting
(d) have been attempted (e) No correction required
35. A nuclear testing fills the air with radioactive dust and left the area uninhabitable.
(a) and leaves the (b) also leaves the (c) and leaving the
(d) and making the (e) No correction required
36. Modern ideas of governance started back to the time when people began to question kings.
(a) started when (b) set back to (c) start back to
(d) date back to (e) No correction required
Banking Tests 655
Directions (37–39): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
37. Hearty: (b) enthusiastic (c) strong (d) substantial (e) energetic
(a) warm (b) harvested (c) sown (d) receipt (e) secured
(b) fell (c) descend (d) submerged (e) leap
38. Reaped:
(a) grown
39. Dived:
(a) jump
Directions (40–41): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
40. Finished: (b) interrupted (c) began (d) rough (e) dark
(a) completed (b) disapproving (c) harmful (d) frightening (e) threatening
41. Admiring:
(a) rejecting
Directions (42–46): In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these
words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The number
of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (e) i.e. ‘All correct’
42. Every single decision will be review at the regular monthly meeting. All correct
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
43. We often ask our customers to give us their opinions and suggestions for improvement. All correct
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
44. I tried to convince him that the situation was not as worse as it appeared. All correct
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
45. Underneath the new law the managing director will no longer be appointed by the government. All correct
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
46. After the meeting I discussed the issue with my colleagues who were very helpful. All correct
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Directions (47–50): Each question below has two blanks each blanks indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of
words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
47. Centre should _________ ministries whose functions _________ with the state ministries to save money, deliver efficiency and
avoid duplication of work.
(a) finish, differ (b) establish, contradict
(c) constitute, matches. (d) abolish overlap
(e) block vary
48. Many people _________ genetically modified food but the reality is that all the food that we eat has been genetically modified
naturally by thousands of years of _________
(a) praise, manipulation (b) grow, mismanagement
(c) criticize farming (d) avoid, experience
(e) condemn, abuse
49. Given that only seven per cent of the country’s labor force is in the organized sectors training options _______ for the unorganized
sectors should also be _________
(a) available enhanced (b) absent improved
(c) lacking sustained (d) existing restricted
(e) offered limited
50. Government initiatives and participation of many industrialists in _________ loans to he villages have led to the _____ of the
farmers.
(a) providing plight (b) disbursing betterment
(c) denying, revitalization (d) subsidizing suffering
(e) taking advancement
656 Objective English
Answers 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (e) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (e) 11. (e) 12. (b)
14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (e) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a)
1. (d) 26. (b) 27. (e) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (e) 35. (a) 36. (d)
13. (b) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (e) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (c)
25. (b) 50. (b)
37. (a)
49. (a)
IDBI BANK OFFICER EXAMINATION
Jumbled Sentences
5 Cloze Tests
10
Idiom/Phrases 10% 20%
5 Fill in the Blanks
5
10%
10%
Reading Grammatical Error Type of Questions No. of MCQs
Comprehension 10 Cloze Tests 10
20% Fill in the Blanks 5
15 Gramatrical Error 10
30% Reading Comprehension 15
Idiom/Phrases 5
Jumbled Sentences 5
TOTAL 50
English Language
Directions (1–10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits are blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/
phrase in each case.
A mobile phone is no (1) a simple device to make calls, it has (2) the hub for all your activities, from emailing and browsing to paying
bills and transferring money. Banks may have been the first to (3) their feet into this technological pool, but telecom companies have
(4) to catch up. The RBI’s step to remove the 50,000 cap that it had (5) earlier on daily mobile transactions has also provided the much
needed (6) to mobile banking.
Mobile (7) you to conduct financial transactions on your phone just as you would at a bank branch or through Net Banking. Banks
are now evolving this facility as they launch innovative products. For (8) a Bank’s cash to mobile service (9) customers to transfer money
to anybody, including those who do not have a bank account. A bank customer can download the bank’s application on his phone and
then put in the phone number of the person to whom he wants to send the money, along with the transaction amount. The bank will send
a message to the remitter ferent PINs to each. The remitter will have to message his PIN to the beneficiary who can then use both PINs
and his mobile number to withdraw cash from the respective Bank ATM. The service is (10) but operator charges will apply. Also the
sender will need a Java Enabled handset.
1. (a) Longer (b) Much (c) Anymore (d) Doubt (e) Sooner
2. (a) Become (b) Been (c) Changed (d) Made (e) Transformed
3. (a) Dip (b) Stand (c) Wash (d) Touch (e) Pick
4. (a) Try (b) Not (c) Begun (d) Made (e) Soon
5. (a) Sanctioned (b) Festered (c) Imposed (d) Cooked (e) Built
Banking Tests 657
6. (a) Breaking (b) Fact (c) Pushed (d) Drop (e) Boost
7. (a) Forces (b) Places (c) Remits (d) Allows (e) Makes
8. (a) Examples (b) Instance (c) Together (d) Now (e) Today
9. (a) Permit (b) Suggests (c) Facilitated (d) Attempts (e) Enables.
10. (a) Expensive (b) There (c) Costly (d) Free (e) Inaccessible
Directions (11–15): Each question below has two blanks each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words
for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
11. For the last three months, the dengue _____ has put southern districts on high alert and has been keeping local administrations
and the health department on their ______
(a) Outbreak – Toes (b) Fever – Hinges (c) Epidemic – Feet
(d) Mosquito – Ground (e) Disease – beds
12. The new-age scooter is perfect _____ just as a commute option enough for men _____
(a) Vehicle – Also (b) Not - Too (c) For – Well
(d) Neither – Nor (e) Either – Additionally
13. The Policy _____ a gang ____ in duping tele-banking customers and arrested 10 persons.
(a) Told – mastering (b) Busted – specializing (c) Seized – innovating
(d) Caught – dealing (e) Arrested – setting
14. The arrested persons were ___ in court and in ____ judicial custody.
(a) Demanded – Persuaded (b) Questioned – Sentenced (c) Taken – Left
(d) Produced – Remanded (e) Sent – Kept
15. All the school students ____ the vicinity will be taken to the nearby theaters ____ the festival.
(a) In – during (b) On – for (c) At – in
(d) Among – at (e) Around – on
Directions (16–25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. the error if any will be in
one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’the answer is (e) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
16. Although a doctor said that the test results (a)/ of five persons confirmed the disease hospital authorities (b)/ did not give an
official statement said (c)/ they were still awaiting results of the rest of the patients. (d)/ No error (e).
17. Lightweight and (a)/ easy to handle, (b) automatic scooters have been (c)/ a godsend for women commuters. (d)/ No error.
18. The gang members has (a)/ confessed that they had been (b)/ obtaining bank account details (c)/ of their victims from a source
based in Nigeria. (d)/ No error.
19. Weather officials said that (a)/ there is likely to be (b)/ wide spread rainfall all over the region (c)/ over the next few weeks. (d)/
No error (e)
20. Police said that (a)/ the seized counterfeit currency notes looked (b)/ so genuine that (c)/ anyone could have been misled. (d)/
No error
21. The committee has (a)/ asked for more information and (b)/ will again consider (c)/ the entries on the next meeting (d)/ No error
22. Looking for (a)/ imagine striking (b)/ this city has (c)/ Never been an easy job. (d)/ No error (e)
23. One could not (a)/ imagine striking (b)/ this kind of a bargain (c)/ last year or the year early. (d)/ No error.
24. The monsoon showers and (a)/ the fell in temperature (b)/ have brought a smile (c)/ on many faces. (d)/ No error
25. Schoolchildren in the city (a)/ were in for a surprise as they were (b)/ treated to a feast of some children’s films (c) being screen
in local theatres. (d) No error (e)
Directions (26–40): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/group of words has
been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Unemployment is the problem of every modern nation is not able to ensure a job for everyone. Following the conventional strategy of
creating employment, governments of many developing countries try to attract employers (business hours/industrialists) by offering
tax rebates and many other facilities so that they locate their upcoming plants on their soil, and thereby crate industrial employment.
But there is a limit to what industry can bring. Also, industrial plants often crate toxic waste which results in air and water pollution
and environmental problems which can outweigh whatever implement benefit industrial employment bring as substantial relief to the
dwindling economy of the host country as they seem to promise as the profits of such foreign investments are carried back to the parent
company and foreign shareholders aboard.
Self employment has none of these drawbacks. The problem is that self-employment is not as obviously glamorous is not as a shiny
new factory. But profits from self employment remain in the country where they are produced. It is too small to create environmental
hazards. Ti also put the poor person in charge of his or her won working hours and conditions. The hours are flexible and can adapt to fit
any family situation. It allows people to choose between running a business full time, or part time when they face a crisis, or to put their
658 Objective English
business on hold and work full time for a salary. Self employment is tailor made for anyone who is street smart and has many acquired
and inherited traditional skills, rather than learning acquired from books and technical schools. This means the illiterate and the poor can
exploit their strengths, rather than be held back by their weaknesses. It allows a person to turn their hobbies into gainful employment. It
allows individuals who cannot work well in a rigid hierarchy to run their own show.
Financing the poor to start their own little ventures elevates their sense of pride and self-respect. It offers a way out of welfare
dependency, not just to become wage slaves, but to open a store or start a manufacturing business. It can help those who have found
a job and are still nonetheless poor. It gives the victims of prejudice who would not be hired because of their colour or national origin
a chance to earn a living. The average cost of creating self – employment is ten, twenty or hundred times lesser than creating industry
based employment. It helps isolated poor people gain self-confidence, step-by-step.
Obviously self-employment has limits, but in many cases it is the only solution to help those whom economies refuse to hire and
taxpayers do not want to carry on their shoulders. The policy needed for the eradication of poverty must be much wider and deeper than
the policy for the provision of mere employment. The real eradication of poverty begins when people are able to control their own fate.
Poor people are like bonsai trees. When you plant the best seed of the tallest tree in a flower pot, you get a replica of the tallest tree, only
inches tall. There is nothing wrong with the seed you planted; only the soil base that is too inadequate. Poor people are bonsai people. There
is nothing wrong in their seeds. Simply society never gave them the base to grown. All it takes to get the poor people out of poverty is for
us to create an enabling environment of them. Once the poor can unleash their energy and creativity, poverty will disappear very quickly.
Directions (26–28): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word/group of words printed
in bold us used in the passage.
26. RIGID (b) Flexible (e) Calm
(a) Unstructured (d) Gentle
(c) Soft
(b) In quick succession
27. STEP-BY-STEP
(a) All at once (d) In a nutshell (e) Once and for all
(c) In slow motion
(b) Permitting (e) Questioning
28. OFFERING (d) Pretesting
(a) Stealing
(c) Refusing
Directions (29–31): Choose the word/group of words is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
29. REMAIN
(a) Left-over (b) Stay (c) Stagnate
(d) Continue (e) Linger
30. HIRED
(a) Allowed (b) Rented (c) Authorized
(d) Employed (e) Delegated
31. LIMIT
(a) Maximum (b) Finish (c) Cap
(d) Decrease (e) Barrier
32. Which of the following is a reason foreign investments do not strengthen the economies of host nations?
(a) The parent company all the profit as tax to its nation.
(b) The profit of such enterprise does not remain in the host notion; rather it goes back to the share holders and owners of the
parent company.
(c) The employees of the parent company demand extra pay from profits that the companies earn from factories in another
nation.
(d) The profit earned by such enterprises for anything beyond the salaries of employees.
(e) None of these
33. What is the tone of the passage?
(a) Offensive (b) Satirical (c) Analytical
(d) Humorous (e) Speculative
34. Which of the following is an advantage that self-employment has over industry based employment?
(1) The work timings are highly flexible.
(2) Starting one’s own venture is an easy task and needs no investment as financers are readily available.
(3) Self-employment makes one a master of other people and thus satisfies their need to control others.
(a) Only (3) (b) Only (1)
(c) Only (2) (d) Only (1) and (2) (e) Only (1), (2) and (3)
Banking Tests 659
35. Which of the following may be inferred about self-employment?
(1) Self-employed slowly but steadily strengthens the economy of the country.
(2) Self-employed checks unemployment.
(a) Only (2) (b) Only (2) and (3)
(c) Only (1) (d) Only (1) and (2) (e) Only (1) and (3)
36. What does the another indicate by the example of a bonsai tree?
(1) When provided the right kind of financial help, poor people can flourish.
(2) The poor people are as capable as the well-to-do class.
(a) Only (1) (b) Only (2) (c) Only (1) and (2)
(d) Only (1) and (3) (e) Only (2) and (3)
37. The author claims that self employment is ‘tailor-made’ for people with certain qualities. Which of the following are the qualities
of such people?
(1) They have an unconventional approach to all things. (2) They are street smart.
(3) They possess many acquired and traditional skills.
(a) Only (3) (b) Only (1) (c) Only (2)
(d) Only (1) and (3) (e) Only (1), (2) and (3)
38. Which of the following outweighs the employment benefits that foreign industrialists bring?
(a) Huge industries set up by them cause environmental pollution.
(b) They employ more number of people belonging to their native nations, than the host nations’ unemployed.
(c) They evade many taxes that could be a source of revenue for the host nation.
(d) They manufacture products that have no market in the host nation.
(e) They practice discrimination on grounds of gender when providing employment to host nations’ residents.
39. Which of the following may be an appropriate title for the passage?
(a) Addressing conventional employment in developed nations.
(b) Varied strategies and approaches to eradicating poverty
(c) Limitations of industrial employment.
(d) How is poverty linked to conventional (industrial) employment?
(e) Role of self employment in battling unemployment and eradication of poverty.
40. Which of the following is TRUE as per the passage?
(a) Self employment is beneficial only for developing economies.
(b) Self-employment is not as glamorous as convectional (industrial) employment.
(c) Finance for poor is readily available in the developed nations of the world.
(d) Small scale industries produce as much toxic waste as big industries.
(e) None is true.
Directions (41–45): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as required’, mark (e) as the answer.
41. Cultivating good hobbies are an excellent way of reducing the stress of daily living.
(a) Is an excellence way of (b) is an excellent way of
(c) be an excellent way of (d) are excellent way for
(e) No correction required
42. The business group needs to reform not only its business and marketing strategies, but also its organizational structure.
(a) needed to reforming (b) needs to reform
(c) needs for reform (d) needed for reform
(e) No correction required
43. I challenged him to produce the authority letter which I knew had not been issued to him.
(a) was not been issued to (b) had not being issued for
(c) had not been issued for (d) have not been issued to
(e) No correction required.
44. The old woman lied about her husband behind his back.
(a) in his absence (b) in his presence (c) in anyone’s absence
(d) in everyone presence (e) None of these
45. He was called upon to iron out difference and bring about reconciliation between conflicting points of view.
(a) settle (b) create (c) manipulate
(d) vote out (e) None of these
660 Objective English
Directions (46–50): Rearrange the following six sentence (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful
paragraph, and then answer the questions given below.
(1) Owing to these difficulties, the prospects of the banking sector became very uncertain and caused recession.
(2) A progressively growing balance sheet, higher pace of credit expansion, and focus on financial inclusion have contributed to
making Indian banking vibrant and strong.
(3) However, amidst all this chaos India’s banking sector has been amongst the few to maintain resilience.
(4) Indian banks have already begun to revise their growth approach to take advantage of these new opportunities.
(5) In the recent times the world economy has witnessed many serious difficulties, the prominent of these being collapse of banking
and financial institutions.
(6) The way forward for the Indian banks is to innovate to take advantage of the new business opportunities and at the same time
ensure continuous assessment of risks.
46. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement.?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6 (e) 2
(e) 1
47. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement? (e) 2
(e) 6
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 3 (e) 1
48. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 6 (d) 4
49. Which of the following should be the LAST(SIXTH) sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5
50. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 5
Answers 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (e) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (e) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (b)
14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (e) 23. (d) 24. (b)
1. (a) 26. (b) 27. (e) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (d) 31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (c)
13. (b) 38. (a) 39. (e) 40. (b) 41. (b) 42. (e) 43. (e) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (e) 47. (e) 48. (a)
25. (d) 50. (d)
37. (c)
49. (b)
SBI ASSOCIATES CLERK EXAMINATION
Reading Grammatical Error
Comprehension 5
10 12%
25%
Fill in the Blanks
5
12%
Cloze Tests Jumbled Sentences Spellings Type of Questions No. of MCQs
10 5 5 Grammatical Error 5
25% Fill in the Blanks 5
13% 13% Spellings 5
Jumbled Sentences 5
Cloze Tests 10
Reading Comprehension 10
TOTAL 40
Banking Tests 661
General English
Directions (1–5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation if any)
1. (a) Mangal Panday was well known (b) Because he was involved
(c) In the initial stages (d) of the Indian rebellion
(e) No error
2. (a) Most of the Indian Populations still lives (b) In its villages and thus the contribution of
(c) Agriculture to Indian economy (d) Becomes very important
(e) No Error
3. (a) Catherine’s grandfather always (b) Lost his balance while walking
(c) and would be found fallen (d) on the road
(e) No Error
4. (a) Her Doctor was (b) Annoyed because she
(c) Ignore her health (d) even after being hospitalized twice
(e) No error
5. (a) Raghav was worry (b) about telling his parents
(c) that he wanted move out (d) and live independently
(e) No Error
Directions (6–10): Each sentence below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words
for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
6. Rohit ______ a huge library and has a large collection of books in it.
(a) wants (b) has (c) wanted (d) had (e) needs
7. Rachna liked her room to be exactly the way she left it and she would ______ allow anyone to touch her things.
(a) always (b) sometimes (c) willingly (d) never (e) certainly
8. Elephants are the largest living land animals ______ earth today.
(a) in (b) and (c) on (d) like (e) at
9. Jasephine was elated because the doctor confirmed the news ______ her pregnancy.
(a) like (b) of (c) with (d) after (e) in
10. It ______ been estimated that there may be many millions of speckles of plants insects and microorganisms still undiscovered in
tropical rainforests.
(a) have (b) will (c) should (d) has (e) shall
Directions (11–15): In each question below four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of
these wrote printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any.
The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence
then mark (e) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
11. (a) The kidnappers (b) asked for ransom
(c) and threatened (d) to kill Mr. Gopalan’s son if their Tsunami demands
(e) were not met. All Correct
(b) Juice all over Raj’s new
12. (a) Ramesh spiled (d) to apologize
(c) Clothes and did not even care
(e) All correct (b) with an accident
(d) his new car
13. (a) Ravi met
(c) and broke (b) children and so she would distribute
(e) All correct (d) on her birthday
14. (a) Daisy loved (b) to play
(c) sweets in an orphanage (d) throwing tantrums.
(e) All correct
15. (a) Roshni wanted
(c) with her pet dog and so she started
(e) All correct
662 Objective English
Directions (16–20): Rearrange the following eight sentences/group of sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7) and (8) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) During the examination the invigilator noticed the chits and despite Rajesh’s plea for innocence asked him to leave the examination
hall.
(2) At this point Ravish realized his mistake and felt guilty, so he immediately confessed his misdeed to the invigilator and left the
examination hall;
(3) Rajesh forgave Ravish because Ravish had not only accepted his mistake on time but also had not let Rajesh be punished for the
wrong reason.
(4) Ravish and Rajesh were in college and had been friends since childhood. However, Ravish did not trust Rajesh.
(5) Another Student—Satish—who had seen Ravish hiding something in Rajesh’s desk stood up and informed the invigilator of what
he had seen.
(6) One day Ravish decided to test Rajesh’s friendship and so during one of the college examinations Ravish went early to class and
hid some chits in Rajesh’s desk.
(7) Rajesh did not believe Satish instead was furious that Satish had falsely blamed his friend his friend and agreed that he would
leave his examination only if Ravish was kept out of the matter.
(8) After the examination was over Ravish apologized to Rajesh and promised that he would be a good friend from then onwards.
16. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 4 (e) 3
17. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (e) 7
18. Which of the following should be the EIGHTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
19. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 6
20. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 7 (d) 6 (e) 5
Directions (21–30): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbered are printed below the passage and against each, five words
are suggested, one of which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Once upon a time, Amarasakti ruled the city-state of Mahilaropyam in the south of India. He had three with less sons who became a
matter of endless (21) for him. (22) that his sons had no interest in learning the king summoned his ministers and said, ‘You know I am
not happy with my sons. According to men of learning an unborn son is better than a son who is a (23). A son who is stupid will bring
dishonor to his father. How can I make my sons fit to be my (24)? I turn to you for advice.’
One of the ministers (25) the name of Vishnu Sharman, a great scholar enjoying the (26) of hundreds of his disciples. ‘He is the
most (27) person to tutor your children. Entrust them to his care and very soon you will see the change.’
The king summoned Vishnu Sharman and pleaded with him ‘Oh venerable scholar, take pity on me and please train my sons. Turn
them into great scholars and I will be (28) to you all my life.’ Vishnu Sharman Said ‘Oh, king county six months from today. If I do not
make your children great scholars, you can ask me to change my (29).
The king immediately called his sons and handed them over to the care of the learned man. Sharman took them to his monastery
where he (30) teaching them. Keeping his word, he finished the task the king entrusted to him in six months, thus the king now has
scholars for sons.
21. (a) ache (b) worry (c) joy (d) pity (e) hazard
22. (a) Fact (b) Belief (c) Since (d) Realizing (e) Being
23. (a) Stupid (b) Brilliant (c) fool (d) Uneducated (e) scholar
24. (a) self (b) place (c) successors (d) level (e) siblings
25. (a) suggested (b) requested (c) called (d) pointed (e) said
26. (a) teachings (b) attendance (c) glamour (d) rights (e) respect
27. (a) competent (b) right (c) easy (d) actual (e) skill
28. (a) happy (b) oblige (c) beside (d) indebted (e) disciple
29. (a) importance (b) name (c) clothes (d) location (e) life
30. (a) embark (b) mustered (c) begun (d) decided (e) started
Banking Tests 663
Directions (31–40): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been
printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
A long time ago, on big tree in the lap of the mountain, lived a bird named Sindhuka. It was a rather special bird because its droppings
turned into gold as soon as they hit the ground.
One day, a hunter came to the tree in search of prey and he saw Sindhuka’s droppings hits the ground and turn into gold. The hunter
was struck with wonder. He thought, ‘I have been hunting birds and small animals since I was a boy, but in all my 80 years, I have never
seen such a miraculous creature. He decided that he had to catch the bird somehow. He climbed the tree and skillfully set a trap for the
bird. The bird, quite unaware of the danger it was in stayed on the tree and sang merrily. But it was soon caught in the hunter’s trap. The
hunter immediately seized it and shoved it into a cage.
The hunter took the bird home joyfully. But as he had time to think over his good fortune later, he suddenly realized, ‘If the king
comes to know of this wonder, he will certainly take away the bird from me and he might even punish me for keeping such a rare treasure
all to myself. So it would be safer and more honorable if I were to go to the king and present the unique bird to him.’
The next day, the hunter took the bird to the king and presented it to him in court with great reverence. The king was delighted to
receive such an unusual and rare gift. He told his courtiers to keep the bird safe and feed it with the best bird food available.
The king’s prime minster though, was reluctant to accept the bird. He said ‘O Rajah, how can you believe the word of a foolish
hunter and accept this bird? Has anyone in our kingdom ever seen a bird dropping gold? The hunter must he either crazy or telling lies.
I think it is best that you release the bird form the cage.’
After a little thought the king felt that his prime minister’s works were correct. So he ordered the bird to be released. But as soon
as the door of the cage was thrown open the bird flew out perched itself on a nearby doorway and defecated. To everyone’s surprise, the
droppoing immediately turned into gold. The king mourned his loss.
31. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate is possibly the most appropriate title for the story?
(a) The Skilled Hunter (b) The King’s Prime Minster
(c) The King’s Defeat (d) The Bird With The Gold Dropping
(e) The Trials And Tribulations of the Foolish Bird sindhuka
32. Which of the following emotions made the hunter gift the bird to the king?
(a) Respect (b) Joy (c) Pride (d) Fear (e) Awe
33. Which of the following is TRUE according to the story?
(a) Birds like Sindhuka were very common in the area near the mountain.
(b) Sindhuka remained caged for the rest of its life.
(c) Sindhuka remained caged for the rest of its life
(d) The king when told to not accept the bird, did not listen to his prime minister
(e) All are true
34. Why was the king’s prime minister reluctant to accept the bird?
(a) He believed that the bird would die if caged.
(b) He knew about the hunter’s habit of lying
(c) He believed that the bird would bring bad luck to the king
(d) His sources had informed him that the hunter was crazy
(e) None of these
35. How did the hunter find Sindhuka?
(a) He had read stories about the bird and had set traps at various locations in the city.
(b) He followed the bird’s droppings.
(c) He was on the lookout for a prey when he chanced upon it.
(d) People from the city had informed him about the bird’s whereabouts.
(e) He was attracted by the bird’s calls.
Directions (36–38): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as
used in the passage.
36. RATHER (b) quite (c) instead (d) but (e) Known
(a) regular (b) vacate (c) vent (d) let expire (e) make public
(b) detail (c) astonishment (d) hope (e) remembrance
37. RELEASE
(a) free
38. REVERENCE
(a) respect
664 Objective English
Directions (79–80): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as
used in the passage.
39. RELUCTANT (b) clever (c) averse (d) hesitant (e) keen
(a) true (b) haphazardly (c) highly (d) cheaply (e) deftly
40. SKILFULLY
(a) angrily
Answers 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (e) 12. (a)
14. (b) 15. (e) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (c)
1. (e) 26. (e) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (e) 31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (e) 35. (c) 36. (b)
13. (b) 38. (a) 39. (e) 40. (b)
25. (a)
37. (a)
CHAPTER 31
MBA Tests
CAT (COMBINED ADMISSION TEST)
Grammatical Logical Order
Correct 3
2
10% 15%
Synonyms
3
15%
Sentence/Paragraph Reading Type of Questions No. of MCQs
Completion Comprehension Logical Order 3
3 Reading Comprehension 9
15% 9 Sentence/Paragraph Completion 3
45% Synonyms 3
Grammatical Correct 2
TOTAL 20
Directions: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with
a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
1. (1) Similarly, turning to caste, even though being lower caste is undoubtedly a separate cause of disparity, its impact is all the
greater when the lower-caste families also happen to be poor.
(2) Belonging to a privileged class can help a woman to overcome many barriers that obstruct women from less thriving classes.
(3) It is the interactive presence of these two kinds of deprivation—being low class and being female—that massively impoverishes
women from the less privileged classes.
(4) A congruence of class deprivation and gender discrimination can blight the lives of poorer women very severely.
(5) Gender is certainly a contributor to societal inequality, but it does not act independently of class.
(a) 51243 (b) 52431 (c) 41523 (d) 25341
666 Objective English
2. (1) When identity is thus ‘defined by contrast’, divergence with the West becomes central.
(2) Indian religious literature such as the Bhagavada Gita or the Tantric texts, which are identified as differing from secular writ-
ings seen as ‘western’, elicits much greater interest in the West than do other Indian writings, including India’s long history
of heterodoxy.
(3) There is a similar neglect of Indian writing on non-religious subjects, from mathematics, epistemology and natural science to
economics and linguistics.
(4) Through selective emphasis that point up differences with the West, other civilizations can, in this way, be redefined in alien
terms, which can be exotic and charming, or else bizarre and terrifying, or simply strange and engaging.
(5) The exception is the Kamasutra in which western readers have managed to cultivate an interest.
(a) 24135 (b) 45123 (c) 24531 (d) 23541
3. (1) This is now orthodoxy to which I subscribe—up to a point.
(2) It emerged from the mathematics of chance and statistics.
(3) Therefore the risk is measurable and manageable.
(4) The fundamental concept: Prices are not predictable, but the mathematical laws of chance can describe their fluctuations.
(5) This is how what business schools now call modern finance was born.
(a) 14325 (b) 52431 (c) 12435 (d) 43251
Directions: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
A game of strategy, as currently conceived in game theory, is a situation in which two or more ‘players’ make choices among available
alternatives (moves). The totality of choices determines the outcomes of the game, and it is assumed that the rank order of preferences
for the outcomes is different for different players. Thus the ‘interests’ of the players are generally in conflict. Whether these interests are
diametrically opposed or only partially opposed depends on the type of game.
Psychologically, most interesting situations arise when the interests of the players are partly coincident and partly opposed, because
then one can postulate not only a conflict among the players but also inner conflicts within the players. Each is torn between a tendency
to cooperate, so as to promote the common interests, and a tendency to compete, so as to enhance his own individual interests.
Internal conflicts are always psychologically interesting. What we vaguely call ‘interesting’ psychology is in very great measure
the psychology of inner conflict. Inner conflict is also held to be an important component of serious literature as distinguished from less
serious genres. The classical tragedy, as well as the serious novel, reveals the inner conflict of central figures. The superficial adventure
story, on the other hand, depicts only external conflict; that is, the threats to the person with whom the reader (or viewer) identifies them
in these stories exclusively from external obstacles and from the adversaries who create them. On the most primitive level this sort of
external conflict is psychologically empty. In the fisticuffs between the protagonists of good and evil, no psychological problems are
involved or, at any rate, none are depicted in juvenile representations of conflict.
The detective story, the ‘adult’ analogue of a juvenile adventure tale, has at times been described as a glorification of intellectualized
conflict. However, a great deal of the interest in the plots of these stories is sustained by withholding the unravelling of a solution to a
problem. The effort of solving the problem is in itself not a conflict if the adversary (the unknown criminal) remains passive, like Nature,
whose secrets the scientists supposedly unravels by deduction. If the adversary actively puts obstacles in the detective’s path towards the
solution, there is genuine conflict. But the conflict is psychologically interesting only to the extent that it contains irrational components
such as a tactical error on the criminal’s part or the detective’s insight into some psychological quirk of the criminal or something of
this sort. Conflict conducted in a perfectly rational manner is psychologically no more interesting than a standard Western. For example,
tic-tac-toe, played perfectly by both players, is completely devoid of psychological interest. Chess may be psychologically interesting
but only to the extent that it is played not quite rationally. Played completely rationally, chess would not be different from tic-tac-toe.
In short, a pure conflict of interest (what is called a zero-sum game) although it offers a wealth of interesting conceptual problems,
is not interesting psychologically, except to the extent that its conduct departs from rational norms.
4. According to the passage, internal conflicts are psychologically more interesting than external conflicts because
(a) Internal conflicts, rather than external conflicts, from an important component of serious literature as distinguished from less
serious genres.
(b) Only juveniles or very few ‘adults’actually experience external conflict, while internal conflict is more widey prevalent in society.
(c) In situations of internal conflict, individuals experience a dilemma in resolving their own preferences for different outcomes.
(d) There are no threats to the reader (or viewer) in case of external conflicts.
5. Which, according to the author, would qualify as interesting psychology?
(a) A statistician’s dilemma over choosing the best method to solve an optimization problem.
(b) A chess player’s predicament over adopting a defensive strategy against an aggressive opponent.
(c) A mountaineer’s choice of the best path to Mt Everest from the base camp.
(d) A finance manager’s quandary over the best way of raising money from the market.
6. According to the passage, which of the following options about the application of game theory to a conflict-of-interest situation
is true?
MBA Tests 667
(a) Assuming that the rank order of preferences for options is different for different players.
(b) Accepting that the interest of different players are often in conflict.
(c) Not assuming that the interests are in complete disagreement.
(d) All of the above
Directions: In each question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, marked a to d. Choose the option in which
the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
7. Near
(a) I got there just after your left—a near miss!
(b) She and her near friend left early
(c) The war led to a near doubling of oil prices
(d) They came near to tears seeing the plight of the victims
8. Hand
(a) I have my hand full, I cannot do it today.
(b) The minister visited the jail to see the breach at first hand.
(c) The situation is getting out of hand here!
(d) When the roof of my house was blown away, he was willing to lend me a hand.
Directions: Each of the two passages given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
Passage 1
While complex in the extreme, Derrida’s work has proven to be a particularly influential approach to the analysis of the ways in which
language structures our understanding of ourselves and the world we inhabit, an approach he termed deconstruction. In its simplest
formulation, deconstruction can be taken to refer to a methodological strategy which seeks to uncover layers of hidden meaning in a
text that have been denied or suppressed. The term ‘text’, in this respect, does not refer simply to a written form of communication.
Rather, texts are something we all produce and reproduce constantly in our everyday social relations, be spoken, written or embedded
in the construction of material artefacts. At the heart of Derrida’s deconstructive approach is his critique of what he perceives to be the
totalitarian impulse of the enlightenment pursuit to bring all that exists in the world under the domain of a representative language, a
pursuit he refers to as logocentrism. Logocentrism is the search for a rational language that is able to know and represent the world
and all its aspects perfectly and accurately. Its totalitarian dimension, for Derrida at least, lies primarily in its tendency to marginalize
or dismiss all that does not neatly comply with its particular linguistic representations, a tendency that, throughout history, has all
too frequently been manifested in the form of authoritarian institutions. Thus logocentrism has, in its search for the truth of absolute
representation, subsumed difference and oppressed that which it designates as its alien ‘other’. For Derrida, western civilization has been
built upon such a systematic assault on alien cultures and ways of life, typically in the name of reason and progress.
In response to logocentrism, deconstruction posits the idea that the mechanism by which this process of marginalization and
the ordering of truth occurs is through establishing systems of binary opposition. Oppositional linguistic dualisms, such as rational/
irrational, culture/nature and good/bad are not, however, construed as equal partners as they are in, say, the semioligical structuralism
of Saussure. Rather, they exist, for Derrida, in a series of hierarchical relationships with the first term normally occupying a superior
position. Derrida defines the relationship between such oppositional terms using the neologism difference. This refers to the realization
that in any statement, oppositional terms differ from each other (for instance, the difference between rationality and irrationality is
constructed through oppositional usage), and at the same time, a hierarchical relationship is maintained by the deference of one term to
the other (in the positing of rationality over irrationality, for instance). It is this latter point which is perhaps the key to understanding
Derrida’s approach to deconstruction.
For the fact that at any given time one term must defer to its oppositional ‘other’, means that the two terms are constantly in a
state of interdependence. The presence of one is dependent upon the absence or ‘absent-presence’ of the ‘other’, such as in the case of
good and evil, whereby to understand the nature of one, we must constantly relate it to the absent term in order to grasp its meaning.
That is, to do good, we must understand that our act is not evil for without that comparison the term becomes meaningless. Put simply,
deconstruction represents an attempt to demonstrate the absent-presence of this oppositional ‘other’, to show that what we say or write
is in itself not expressive simply of what is present, but also of what is absent. Thus, deconstruction seeks to reveal the interdependence
of apparently dichotomous terms and their meanings relative to their textual context; that is, within the linguistic power relations which
structure dichotomous terms hierarchically. In Derrida’s own words, a deconstructive reading ‘must always aim at a certain relationship,
unperceived by the writer, between what he commands and what he does not command of the patterns of a language that he uses . . . It
attempts to make the not-seen accessible to sight.’
Meaning, then, is never fixed or stable, whatever the intention of the author of a text. For Derrida, language is a system of relations
that are dynamic, in that all meanings we ascribe to the world are dependent not only on what we believe to be present but also on what
is absent. Thus, any act of interpretation must refer not only to what the author of a text intends, but also to what is absent from his or
her intention. This insight leads, once again, to Derrida’s further rejection of the idea of the definitive authority of the intentional agent
or subject. The subject is decentred; it is conceived as the outcome of relations of difference. As author of its own biography, the subject
668 Objective English
thus becomes the ideological fiction of modernity and its logocentric philosophy, one that depends upon the formation of hierarchical
dualisms, which repress and deny the presence of the absent ‘other’. No meaning can, therefore, ever be definitive, but is merely an
outcome of a particular interpretation.
9. According to the passage, Derrida believes that the system of binary opposition
(a) represents a prioritization or hierarchy.
(b) reconciles contradictions and dualities.
(c) weakens the process of marginalization and ordering of truth.
(d) deconstructs reality.
10. Derrida rejects the idea of ‘definitive authority of the subject’ because
(a) interpretation of the text may not make the unseen visible.
(b) the meaning of the text is based on binary opposites.
(c) the implicit power relationship is often ignored.
(d) any act of interpretation must refer to what the author intends.
11. According to the passage, Derrida believes that:
(a) reality can be construed only through the use of rational analysis.
(b) language limits our construction of reality.
(c) a universal language will facilitate a common understanding of reality.
(d) we need to uncover the hidden meaning in a system of relations expressed by language.
12. To Derrida, ‘logocentrism’ does not imply;
(a) a totalitarian impulse.
(b) a domain of representative language.
(c) interdependence of the meanings of dichotomous terms.
(d) a strategy that seeks to suppress hidden meanings in a text.
Directions: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
13. Federer’s fifth grand slam win prompted a reporter to ask whether he was the best ever. Federer is certainly not lacking in confi-
dence, but wasn’t about to proclaim himself the best ever. ‘The best player of this generation, yes’, he said, ‘But nowhere close to
ever. Just look at the records that some guys have, I’m a minnow.’____________________
(a) His win against Agassi, a genius from the previous generation, contradicts that
(b) Sampras, the king of an earlier generation, was as humble
(c) He is more than a minnow to his contemporaries.
(d) The difference between ‘the best of this generation’ and ‘the best ever’ is a matter of perception.
14. Thus the end of knowledge and the closing of the frontier that it symbolizes is not a looming crisis at all, but merely one of
many embarrassing fits of hubris in civilization’s long industry. In the end, it will pass away and be forgotten. Ours is not the
first generation to struggle to understand the organizational laws of the frontier, deceive itself that it has succeeded, and go to its
gravehaving failed. ____________________
(a) One would be wise to be humble.
(b) But we might be the first generation to actually reach the frontier.
(c) But we might be the first generation to deal with the crisis.
(d) However, this time the success is not illusory.
15. The audiences for crosswords and sudoku, understandably, overlap greatly, but there are differences, too. A crossword attracts a
more literary person, while sudoku appeals to a keenly logical mind. Some crossword enthusiasts turn up their noses at sudoku
because they feel it lacks depth. A good crossword requires vocabulary, knowledge, mental flexibility and sometimes even a sense
of humour to complete. It touches numerous areas of life and provides an ‘Aha!’ or two along the way. ____________________
(a) Sudoku, on the other hand, is just a logical exercise, each one similar to the last.
(b) Sudoku, incidentally, is growing faster in popularity than crosswords, even among the literati.
(c) Sudoku, on the other hand, can be attempted and enjoyed even by children.
(d) Sudoku, however, is not exciting in any sense of the term.
Directions: Each of the following questions has a paragraph with one italicized word that does not make sense. Choose the most
appropriate replacement for that word from the options given below the paragraph.
16. Intelligent design derives from an early 19th century explanation of the natural world given by an English clergyman, William
Paley. Paley was the populariser of the famous watchmaker analogy. Proponents of intelligent design are crupping Paley’s argu-
ment with a new gloss from molecular biology.
(a) destroying (b) testing (c) resurrecting (d) questioning
MBA Tests 669
17. Women squat, heads covered, beside huge piles of limp fodder and blunks oil lamps, and just about all the cows in the three towns
converge upon this spot. Sinners, supplicants and yes, even scallywags hand over a few coins for a crack at redemption and a
handful of grass.
(a) shining (b) bright (c) sputtering (d) effulgent
18. It is klang to a sensitive traveller who walks through this great town, when he sees the streets, the roads, and cabin doors crowded
with beggars, mostly women, followed by three, four or six children, all in rags and importuning every passenger for alms.
(a) amusing (b) irritating (c) disgusting (d) distressing
Directions: Each question consists of four sentences on a topic. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Select
the option that indicates the grammatically correct and appropriate sentence(s).
19. (1) The balance of power bill shift to the East as China and India evolve.
(2) Rarely the economic ascent of two still relatively poor nations has been watched with such as mixture of awe, opportunism,
and trepidation.
(3) Postwar era witnessed economic miracles in Japan and South Korea, but neither was populous enough to power worldwide
growth or change the game in a complete spectrum of industries.
(4) China and India, by contrast, possess the weight and dynamism to transform the 21st century global economy.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 3 (d) 3 and 4
20. (1) People have good reason to care about the welfare of animals.
(2) Ever since Enlightenment, their treatment has been seen as a measure of mankind’s humanity.
(3) It is no coincidence that William Wilberforce and Sir Thomas Foxwell Buxton, two leaders of the movement of abolish the
slave trade, helped found the Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals in 1820s.
(4) An increasing number of people go further; mankind has a duty not to cause pain to animals that have the capacity to
suffer.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Answers 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (c)
14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (a)
1. (b)
13. (d)
MAT (MANAGEMENT APTITUDE TEST)
Fill in the Blanks
5
12%
Analogy
5
12%
Reading Synonyms Type of Questions No. of MCQs
Comprehension 5 Fill in the Blanks 5
Analogy 5
20 13% Synonyms 5
50% Error Identification 5
Error Identification Reading Comprehension 20
5 TOTAL 40
13%
670 Objective English
Directions: Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence
are four words or set of words. Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. Criticism that tears down without suggesting areas of improvement is not ___ and should be avoided if possible.
(a) representative (b) constructive (c) mandatory (d) pertinent
2. As I am not an ardent admirer of the work of George Eliot, simple justice demands a prefatory ___ her many admirable qualities.
(a) skepticism regarding (b) effusion over (c) denial of (d) tribute to
3. You may wonder how the expert on fossil remains is able to trace descent through teeth, which seem ____ pegs upon which to
hang whole ancestries.
(a) novel (b) reliable (c) specious (d) inadequate
4. An essential purpose of the criminal justice system is to enable purgation to take place; that is, to provide a ____ by which a
community expresses its collective ______ the transgression of the criminal.
(a) catharsis…outrage at (b) disclaimer…forgiveness of (c) means…empathy with
(d) procedure…distaste for
5. In the tradition of scholarly _____, the poet and scholar A. E. Housman once assailed a German rival for relying on manuscripts
‘as a drunkard relies on lampposts, for______rather than illumination.’
(a) animosity…current (b) discourse…stability (c) erudition…shadow
(d) invective…support
Directions: In each of the following questions, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by four pair of words or phrases. Select
the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
6. YOLK : EGG : :
(a) Rind : Melon (b) Nucleus : Cell (c) Stalk : Corn (d) Duck : Fowl
7. WOOD : SAND : :
(a) Coal : Burn (b) Brick : Lay (c) Oil : Polish (d) Metal : Burnish
8. VINDICTIVE : MERCY : :
(a) Avaricious : Greed (b) Insightful : Hope
(d) Skeptical : Trustfulness
(c) Modest : Dignity
9. RUFFLE : COMPOSURE : :
(a) Flounce : Turmoil (b) Flourish : Prosperity
(d) Upset : Equilibrium
(c) Provoke : Discussion
10. BOUQUET : WINE : :
(a) Chaff : Wheat (b) Aroma : Coffee (c) Yeast : Bread (d) Octane : Gasoline
Directions: Identify the word nearest in meaning to the given one.
11. Retorsion (b) erosive (c) vindicate (d) correct
(a) distort (b) weight (c) winner (d) torrid
(b) army (c) surreal (d) absolute
12. Vectorial (b) companion (c) generate (d) support
(a) disease (b) astonished (c) effect (d) treatment
13. Purlieu
(a) border
14. Compaginate
(a) order
15. Ecbatic
(a) foundation
Directions: Identify the part of the sentence that is incorrect.
16. (a) Who is the (b) woman who
(c) Stacy recommended (d) for the position
(b) the new antitrust
17. (a) The advantages of (d) difficult to understand
(c) bill is (b) to quickly come
(d) I called
18. (a) He promised (b) management was quick
(c) the next time (d) to the pay cut
(b) should be able
19. (a) The company’s lower level (d) personnel file
(c) to voice their opposition
20. (a) Every person
(c) to see their
MBA Tests 671
Reading Comprehension
Directions: Read the passages carefully to answer the questions that follow each passage.
Passage 1
A year ago, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) issued a report on the ‘Asian Brown Cloud’, creating the image of
a vast blanket of pollution choking the Indian subcontinent. This cloud of aerosols created by human activity would, it was claimed,
have disastrous effects on the climate, including on the monsoon rain. Aerosols, which are fine particles in the atmosphere, can be
natural or human made. Winds whip up sand and dust from the ground, and also carry vast quantities of fine sea salt into the air. Motor
vehicle fumes, and the burning of coal, other fossil fuels and biofuels, such as wood, generate fine carbon particles. Emissions from
industries can produce sulphate and nitrate particles. By scattering or absorbing the light coming from the sun or being reflected back
into space from the Earth, these aerosols can have an impact on the climate. But such effects depend on the nature of aerosols present
as well as their size and concentration. Aerosol levels, composition and geographical spread vary greatly from season to season and
year to year. Natural aerosols may often predominate. So the question is whether the anthropogenic aerosols (that is, those generated
by humans) are of such a level and kind that they have a significant impact on the climate in the way greenhouse gases are causing
global warming.
The UNEP report left the impression that the ‘cloud’ of anthropogenic aerosols from Asia was having such an impact. Indian
scientists disagree, pointing out that erroneous conclusions were being drawn largely from a single data collection campaign over the
Indian Ocean and that such forms of aerosol pollution were present in other parts of the world too. A paper by American researchers
published recently in a scientific journal notes that pollution plumes, off the east coast of the United States could be just as intense as
those over India and other parts of Asia. Although there is greater recognition that the ‘atmospheric brown cloud’ (as it is now called) is
a global phenomenon, the focus on India and China as large contributors to human made, and by implication avoidable, aerosol pollution
persists. Such concern is not without reason. The declining air quality in towns and cities across India is all too obvious. It is not just
vehicles and industries that enhance aerosol levels in the air. It may be that the burning of dung, wood and other biological material poses
a more widespread and less easily controlled problem.
India, therefore, needs a sustained research programme of its own to quantify and understand aerosols all over the country. The
Indian Space Research Organization has been studying this subject over the past two decades, but at just a few places. It has plans for
countrywide multi-institutional campaigns for a later stage. There have been press reports that the Indian Meteorological Department
is to aquire ground instruments for continual aerosol measurements. Both steps are welcome. However, it would probably help to
have a single overarching programme so that aerosol data collection and its utilization for properly reviewed research projects across
institutions can be coordinated and brought to bear on this problem. The Department of Science and Technology’s successful Indian
Climate Research Programme offers a good model. In any case, irrespective of the impact on the climate, identifying the sources of
anthropogenic aerosols and taking steps to reduce their levels is an imperative if air quality is to be improved in India.
21. What is/are the cause(s) of global warming?
(a) Greenhouse gases (b) Natural aerosols
(c) Anthropogenic aerosols (d) All the above
22. As per the passage, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Levels of aerosols vary season to season and year to year.
(b) Composition of aerosols change from year to year.
(c) Geographical spread of aerosols is different from season to season.
(d) None of these
23. Which none of these one of the following is a biofuel?
(a) Coal (b) Fossil fuel (c) Wood (d) Aerosol
24. Which is/are the Indian agency/agencies involved in the research programme related to aerosols?
(a) Indian Space Research Organization (b) Indian Meteorological Department
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Passage 2
Population stabilization is crucial for the achievement of the goal of sustainable development and an equitable distribution of resources/
opportunities. Though government initiatives exist in the form of suitable public policies on education, health and family welfare
along with economic incentives and facilities for small and micro-families, these measures have had a limited impact on the fertility,
net reproduction rates and the family size. Improved access to primary and secondary education, extension of basic amenities, the
empowerment of women, awareness generation and a better standard of living would ultimately contribute towards inculcation of the
required consciousness regarding the desirability of a small family size.
In education, the elementary sector is besieged by numerous systemic problems such as inadequate school infrastructure, presence
of single-teacher schools, high teacher absenteeism, (specially in rural areas), large-scale teacher vacancies, inadequate equipment, etc.
This brings into focus the role of decentralization and people’s participation in the provision of basic services. It is essential that control
672 Objective English
over schools and teachers be transferred to local bodies having a direct interest in teacher performance. This has also been highlighted
as an area of emphasis in the Tenth Plan.
As the country undergoes demographic and epidemiological transition, it is likely that larger investments in health would be
required for maintaining even the current health status, since the technology required for tackling drug-resistant infections and non-
communicable diseases is expensive. This would inevitably lead to escalating healthcare costs. Health sector reforms are a part of
economic reforms. However, due care will have to be taken to ensure that the poorer segments of the population are able to access
services they need. Data from the NSSO indicate that escalating healthcare costs is one of the reasons for indebtedness not only among
the poor but also in the middle income group. It is, therefore, essential that appropriate mechanisms by which costs of severe illnesses
and hospitalization can be borne by the individual/organization/State are explored, and affordable/appropriate choices made. Since
continuation of a universally free public healthcare system is unsustainable, strategies be evolved for levy and collection of user charges
from people above the poverty line.
The government is providing several fiscal and monetary incentives for the small-scale industries, many of which are based on
agricultural goods and rural resources. However, these industries suffer from a lack of modern technology and skilled labour, inadequate
bank credit, and an inefficient marketing network. It is imperative that a programme of skill development, vocational training and
technical education adopted on a large scale in order to generate productive employment opportunities for those living in rural areas.
The entire gamut of the existing poverty alleviation and employment generation programmes may have to be restructured to meet the
newly emerging demand for employment.
It has also been observed that investment on rural infrastructure and agricultural extension services reduces poverty to a greater
extent than agricultural subsidies, which are not properly targeted and benefit the rich farmers. Roads, well-designed irrigation systems,
flood control, rural electrification and telecommunications are effective safety nets that insure the rural poor against income fluctuations,
assist in overcoming market failures and need to be strengthened and widened.
An anti-poverty strategy that is fiscally sustainable has to be devised which directly targets those who are unable to benefit from
the opportunities offered by growth. Safety nets should focus on those who either cannot participate in the growth process (for reasons
of extreme deprivation or vulnerability combined with poverty) or face continuing exposure to risks.
There is a very good scope for the strengthening of public–private partnership in the delivery of healthcare services as also for
the involvement of non-government organizations (NGOs) in the implementation of various government-guided schemes in the social
sectors.
25. According to the passage, safety nets as a part of the anti-poverty strategy should be targeted at those who
(a) cannot participate in the growth process (b) face continuing exposure to risk
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these
26. Based on the passage which of the observation rings untrue?
(a) The entire gamut of existing poverty alleviation and employment generation will have to be restructured to meet new
demand.
(b) Investment on rural infrastructure and agricultural extension services reduces poverty to a greater extent than agricultural
subsidies.
(c) Escalating healthcare costs is one of the reasons for indebtedness not only among the poor but also among the middle income
group.
(d) To increase the role of decentralization and to improve the teachers’ performance in schools, it is essential to transfer the
control of schools to the private sector.
27. Small-scale industries based on agricultural goods and rural sources suffer from:
(a) lack of modern technology (b) lack of skilled labour
(c) inadequate bank credit (d) all the above
28. A programme of skill development, vocational training and technical education if adopted will
(a) encourage smaller size of families (b) generate productive employment opportunities
(c) increase healthcare costs (d) overcome market failures
29. Which of the following will contribute to raising consciousness regarding desirability of small family size?
(a) Improved access to primary and secondary education (b) Empowerment of women
(c) Awareness and generation of a better standard of living (d) All the above
Passage 3
Antarctica and its surrounding stormy waters are as pristine, unique and majestic as they are dry, harsh and bleak. The continent is the
iciest, coldest (the lowest temperature ever recorded being –89°Celsius) and driest place on earth (rainfall is almost nil, even less than in
the Sahara desert). Almost 98 per cent of its total area of 14 million square kilometres in summer (it doubles in size in winter owing to the
ice that forms around the continent) is covered by ice, that is, on an average 2.3 km thick (4 km thick in some places). Winds whistling
at a speed of up to 300 km an hour and blizzards can make visibility so poor that seeing one’s own hand becomes impossible; they are
as unpredictable as they are frequent. The South Pole lies somewhere near the continent’s centre. In some cases, where giant ice sheets
that dominate much of the continent’s landscape have drifted away into the sea, areas of extensive rock exposure remain. These cold arid
deserts which have one of the harshest environments on the planet, are called dry valleys.
MBA Tests 673
The continent is divided into two subcontinents—East and West Antarctica—by the 500 million-year-old Trans-Antarctic
Mountains. While East Antarctica is a very large pre-Cambrian shield which was once part of the ancient Gondwana landmass (which
existed a billion years ago and included Africa, India, Australia, arid South America, and broke up 65 million years ago), West Antarctica
is much younger and smaller. Again, while East Antarctica is tied to the base, the West Antarctic ice sheet, which was formed by the
addition of continental microplates over the last 500 million years, is unstable; in some places it even floats just below the sea surface.
Scientists have over the past four decades discovered that the desolate continent is a key component in the planet’s ecosystems—in
fact recharging and reviving it. Its pure waters comprise 90 per cent of the earth’s fresh water; its cold water currents which meet the
warm currents from the Indian, Pacific and Atlantic Oceans have a prominent influence on ocean currents worldwide; its thinning and
retreating glaciers, which are very sensitive to changes in weather, also effect changes in global sea levels (which have gone up by 33
feet, or 10 metres) and atmospheric circulation; the ice and the icy waters are alive with life forms, micro-organism and marine life,
which in some places have remained undisturbed for as long as two million years; the southern ocean dynamics act like a heat sink in
the sequestration of atmospheric carbon dioxide (by elements in the ocean like phyto-planktons, zoophyto-planktons and chlorophyll);
it stores and transports heat from one part of the earth to another, thus influencing global temperatures and rainfall.
Antarctica is a barometer for global climatic change. While temperatures have gone up by 1° Fahrenheit the world over the last
century, they have gone up by 4°F in Antarctica. The untouched continent’s ice cores, frozen archives that trap and hold atmospheric
gases, provide weather summaries dating back to 1,00,000 years.
30. Which is the driest place on earth?
(a) Sahara desert (b) Antarctica (c) South Pole (d) None of these
31. As per the passage, Antarctica is a key component in the planet’s
(a) marine life (b) giant ice-sheets (c) climate change (d) ecosystems
32. Which one of the following did not include the Gondwana landmass?
(a) Antarctica (b) Africa (c) India (d) Australia
33. The word ‘pristine’ as used in the passage means
(a) primitive (b) original purity (c) uncorrected (d) none of these
Passage 4
Nicholas Piramal (NP, 2002–03 turnover: R 1,140 crore) has charted out a two-pronged strategy to further its growth in pharmaceutical
space post-2005. First: leverage India’s low-cost manufacturing ability for supplying formulations to global players, an outsourcing
model. Second: focus on development of new molecule patented drugs.
This is a little different route compared to other pharma biggies like Ranbaxy and Dr Reddy’s, who have a focus on generics market.
‘We don’t want to concentrate on generics market,’ said Dr Swati Piramal, Director. ‘In the long-term, margin on generics will shrink,’
added J. C. Saigal, ED.
While the first outsourcing tie-up with US-based Advanced Medical Optics (AMO) was announced for supplying tablets, Ajay
Piramal, Chairman, said there would be many more such tie-ups in the near future. Though talks were on, Ajay Piramal refused to
divulge details and added that the company would expand into the US and Europe through such tie-ups.
And, according to Swati Piramal, such a manufacturing deal is paying. NP will earn $ 15–20 million per annum, till 5 years
(totalling around $ 100 million) for supplying products to AMO. lt is setting up a R 40 crore facility (to be invested by the next fiscal)
over 2,00,000 sq. ft in Pithampur, MP, towards this end. Exports to AMO will start in early 2005.
According to Saigal, the deal does not bar NP from getting into more such deals and supplying different formulations to other
players from this facility. However, selling of AMO competing products is not allowed. Recently, Ranbaxy has entered into one such
deal with Glaxo-SmithKline.
On patented drugs, Ajay Piramal said NP was working on four molecules in the areas of cancer, diabetes, anti-fungal and arthritis.
One of them (NP 102, anti-cancer) is expected to hit phase-I clinical trial by June 2004.
Swati Piramal added that the company was not looking for any early co-licensing of the molecule. ‘For this, we will look for co-
licensing from Phase II(A) stage.’ The objective is to reap higher premium. The company is investing R 80 crore to facelift R&D effort
in Mumbai.
34. Which is the area on which Nicholas Piramal has been working and is likely to go for chemical trial by mid-2004?
(a) Cancer (b) Diabetes (c) Anti-fungal (d) Arthritis
35. Nicholas Piramal is not intending to co-license the molecule immediately because:
(a) other players like Ranbaxy and Dr Reddy’s are not willing (b) AMO does not permit
(c) the production facility is yet to be established (d) they would like to reap higher premium
36. What is the strategy adopted by Dr Reddy’s for its growth?
(a) Leverage low-cost manufacturing ability (b) Develop new molecule patented drugs
(c) Focus on generics market (d) All the above
37. As per NP’s understanding with AMO on the Pithampur plant
(a) NP can get into more deals with other producer (b) NP cannot associate with other players
(c) NP can sell AMO competing products (d) None of these
674 Objective English
Passage 5
State-owned BSNL’s net profit has slipped 77 per cent during 2002–03 fiscal to R 1,444 crore, down from R 6,312 crore, although
revenues were up 5 per cent at over R 25,000 crore.
BSNL officials put the decline in profit to a one-time outgo of funds on clearing arrears on salaries and benefits as well as
higher operating expenses. They said, falling STD tariffs and increasing competition from private firms was not the main cause for
this fall.
But it is believed that BSNL will never reap the kind of profits like it did in the era of huge STD margins, until 2001. ‘Last year we
paid about R 6,266 crore in various arrears as against R 3,848 crore in 2001–2002,’ said BSNL CMD Prithipal Singh. BSNL has about
3.5 lakh employees and is introducing VRS.
‘Our operating expenses went up, mainly on account of fuel charges that are required for power back-up, by over R 300 crore,’
added Singh. He also said that the government had not fully reimbursed its licence fee and spectrum charges for the cellular business.
BSNL got R 2,300 crore instead of R 3,400 crore it was expecting. ‘In 2003–04, we expect to see our profits double to around R 2,000
crore and our revenues will be up another 5 per cent or so,’ said Singh. He said, however, that if they were not fully reimbursed for the
licence fee then the profit growth this year could be less than R 3,000 crore.
38. Reason(s) attributable to reported decrease in profit of BSNL during 2002–03 is/are:
(a) falling STD tariffs (b) increasing competition
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) arrear clearance of salaries and benefits
39. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) BSNL’s operating expenses have gone up due to fuel charges
(b) Government has reimbursed R 2,300 crore as licence fee and spectrum charges
(c) BSNL will make huge profits due to STD margins
(d) Fuel is not used for maintaining power backup
40. The revenue during 2001–2002 was approximately
(a) R 25,000 crore (b) R 1,444 crore (c) R 23,800 crore (d) can’t be determined
Answers 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a)
14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (c)
1. (b) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c)
13. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c)
25. (c)
37. (a)
CMAT
Odd Man Out Synonyms
5 3
20% 12%
Antonyms
3
12%
Error Idiom/Phrases Type of Questions No. of MCQs
Identification 3 Synonyms 3
Antonyms 3
4 12% Idiom/Phrases 3
16% Analogy 4
Analogy Fill in the Blanks 3
Fill in the Blanks 4 Error Identification 4
3 Odd Man Out 5
16% TOTAL 25
12%
MBA Tests 675
Directions: Each question consists of a word printed in capital letters, followed by four numbered words. Choose the numbered word
that is most nearly same in meaning to the word in capital letters.
1. FETTER
(a) Restore (b) Chain (c) Lavish (d) Squander
2. CAVIL
(a) To make fun of (b) To find fault (c) To insult (d) To whine
3. EXCULPATE
(a) To fashion a piece of statuary (b) To involve in crime
(d) To free from blame
(c) To cut out
Directions: Each question consists of a word printed in capital letters followed by four numbered word that is most nearly opposite in
meaning to the word in capital letters.
4. AMBLE (b) Incapable (c) Dream (d) Run
(a) Insufficient (b) Canter (c) Deny (d) Agree
(b) Mourn (c) Graduate (d) Heal
5. GALLOP
(a) Curse
6. FESTER
(a) Celebrate
Directions: In each question a sentence or part of a sentence, followed by four numbered words or phrases are given. Choose the
numbered word or phrase, which conveys the same meaning as the sentence in question.
7. Pantheism is
(a) Belief in one God (b) Belief that God is in nature
(d) Belief in many Gods
(c) Skepticism about God
8. Xenophobia is the fear of
(a) Heights (b) Open spaces (c) Foreigners (d) Crowd
9. A dabbler in the arts is called a (an)
(a) Martinet (b) Dilettante (c) Virago (d) Iconoclast
Directions: In each of these questions four pairs of numbered words follow a pair of words printed in capital letters. Choose the num-
bered pair of words that expresses the same relationship as the given pair in capital letters.
10. INTERLUDE : REST (b) Retirement : Retreat
(a) Vacation : Work (d) Intermission : Respite
(c) Sabbatical : Freedom
(b) Parochialism : Linguism
11. RACISM : APARTHEID (d) Communalism : Religion
(a) Sexism : Chauvinism
(c) Nationalism : Identity (b) Wet : Dank
(d) Praise : Embarrassment
12. SECULAR : SPIRITUAL
(a) Amoral : Moral (b) Horrifying : Trepidation
(c) Noisome : Hostile (d) Benevolent : Bountiful
13. SINISTER : HARM
(a) Malignant : Humour
(c) Ominous : News
Directions: Each of these questions consists of sentences, which has a blank each indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
each sentence are four alternative words or set of words labelled (a) through (d). Choose the word or set of words that when inserted in
the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
14. He was apparently a minor military ________ who did not wear a uniform.
(a) Officer (b) Sepoy (c) Corps (d) Attache
15. Ancient Greek art is frequently described as timeless, partly because of its mathematical precise ________ proportions.
(a) Even (b) Desirable (c) Inventive (d) Classic
16. One of the ________ of the contemporary global system is that despite all the technologies that shrink distances and help create
millions of contacts between individuals of different societies, the force of political fragmentation, separateness and local loyalties
are all strong and even increasing.
(a) Paradoxes (b) Advantages (c) Ironies (d) Ambiguities
676 Objective English
Directions: Given below are sentences that may or may not have error. Mark (a) if there is only error. Mark (b) if there are two errors.
Mark (c) if there are three errors. Mark (d) if there are no errors.
17. Magma levels within the volcano had arisen, although the number of earthquakes has rapidly decreased.
18. China and the European Union failed to conclude a trade agreement to allow Beijing from joining a World Trade Organization.
19. After the Pakistani’s arrived, Ravi’s family urged him to go to the Nepal border to scout the situation.
20. He is one of those few people who know everything in this matter.
Directions: Each of these questions consists of a group of words labelled (a) through (d). In each group of words one word does not
belong to the group. Choose one numbered word, which does not belong to that group.
21. (a) Dachshund (b) Spaniel (c) Canine (d) Labrador
22. (a) Rouge (b) Glow (c) Sparkle (d) Blush
23. (a) Calumny (b) Arrest (c) Effigy (d) Fight
24. (a) Abode (b) Shelter (c) Home (d) Dwelling
25. (a) Docile (b) Well-behaved (c) Servile (d) Tractable
Answers: 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (a)
13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (a)
1. (b) 24. (b) 25. (b)
12. (b)
23. (c)
CHAPTER 32
Other Important Examinations
LIC AAO (ASSISTANT ADMINISTRATIVE OFFICER) EXAMINATION
Antonyms Fill in the Blanks
5 10
33%
17%
Synonyms
5
17%
Analogy Error Identification Type of Questions No. of MCQs
5 5 Fill in the Blanks 10
Error Identification 5
17% 16% Analogy 5
Synonyms 5
Antonyms 5
TOTAL 30
Directions (1–5): Each sentence has one or two blanks. Choose the word or set of words that best completes the sentence meaningfully.
1. He went to the library _____ to find that it was closed.
(a) seldom (b) never (c) only (d) solely
2. The ties that bind us together in common activity are so _____ that they can disappear at any moment.
(a) tentative (b) tenuous (c) consistent (d) restrictive
3. Her reaction to his proposal was _____ . She rejected it _____
(a) inevitable - vehemently (b) subtle - violently
(c) clever - abruptly (d) sympathetic - angrily
4. His _____ directions misled us we did not know which of the two roads to take.
(a) complicated (b) ambiguous (c) narrow (d) fantastic
678 Objective English
5. It would be difficult for one so _____ to believe that all men are equal irrespective of caste, race and religion.
(a) emotional (b) democratic (c) intolerant (d) liberal
Directions (6–10): In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each
sentence is not accepted in standard English. Identify that part and select its number (a), (b), (c) or (d) as your answer.
6. Grazing for a thing (a) that are not (b) available easily (c) in the country is a universal phenomenon (d)
7. It is foolish to be expecting (a) one person to be like another (b) person, for (c) each individual is born (d) with his characteristic
traits.
8. The tendency to believe (a) that (b) man is inherently dishonest is something that (c) will decried (d).
9. I have come across (a) very few people (b) who (c) think of thing beyond (d) their daily work.
10. He managed to board (a) the running train (b) but all his luggages (c) was (d) left on the station.
Directions(11–15): Select the pair of words which are related in the same way as the capitalized words are related to each other.
11. SCALES:JUSTICE::
(a) weights : measures (b) laws : courts
(d) launch : peace
(c) torch : liberty
12. HOBBLE : WALK::
(a) gallop : run (b) stammer : speak (c) stumble : fall (d) sniff : smell
13. FRAYED : FABRIC::
(a) watered : lawn (b) renovated : building
(d) worn : nerves
(c) thawed : ice
14. YOLK : EGG::
(a) rind : melon (b) nucleus : cell (c) stalk : corn (d) web : spider
15. BAMBOO : SHOOT::
(a) bean : sprout (b) pepper : corn (c) oak : tree (d) holly : sprig
Directions (16–20): For each of the following capitalized words, four words or phrases are given of which only one is synonymous with
the given word. Select the synonym.
16. DEFER (b) dislike (c) postpone (d) disrespect
(a) respect (b) undoubtedly (c) hesitant (d) doubtful
(b) rough (c) polished (d) improper
17. DUBIOUS (b) aloofness (c) completely (d) nearly
(a) clear (b) tempt (c) refrain (d) pardon
18. COARSE
(a) impolite
19. PROXIMITY
(a) nearness
20. ABSTAIN
(a) stay
Directions (21–25): Fill in the blanks by selecting appropriate alternative.
21. I met him only a week _____
(a) back (b) past (c) ago (d) previous
22. Lovely asked me _____
(a) why are you angry? (b) why I am angry?
(c) why I was angry? (d) why was I angry?
23. Even after repeated warnings, he _____ to office on time.
(a) never come (b) never comes (c) is never coming (d) have never come
24. He told his wife that _____ from Germany.
(a) he will like to visit France (b) he was liking to visit France
(c) he would like to visit France (d) he is liking to visit France
25. Some people can _____ even with murder.
(a) get on (b) get out (c) get off (d) get away
Directions (26–30): Choose the correct antonym from the choices for each of the following capitalized words:
26. INDIFFERENT (b) varied (c) alike (d) uniform
(a) curious
Other Important Examinations 679
27. DISCREET (b) diplomatic (c) prudent (d) careless
(a) wise (b) ancient (c) current (d) cultured
(b) insane (c) judicious (d) sensible
28. OBSOLETE (b) convinced (c) questioning (d) cynic
(a) free
29. RATIONAL
(a) sound
30. SCEPTICAL
(a) doubtful
Answers 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b)
14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c)
1. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)
13. (c)
25. (d)
EPFO SOCIAL SECURITY ASSISTANT EXAMINATION
Reading Comprehension No. of MCQs
8 8
8
100%
Type of Questions
Reading Comprehension
TOTAL
Directions (1–4): Four (04) items are based on the passage given below:
It has been rightly said that we spend the first half of our lives trying to understand the older generation, and the second half trying to
understand the younger generation. Youth has always felt somewhat exasperated with age, and age has always been suspicious of youth.
With their natural ebullience and impotence, a majority of young people are keen to act and learn on their won rather than be guided by
the experience of their elders. The older people, being more at home with words rather than with action, often make noises about the
problems of youth. In every generation, old men are found shaking their hoary heads and waxing nostalgic about the good old days when
young people knew better and showed due reverence to age and tradition. In all ages, whenever they have pondered over the ways of
youth, they have foreseen nothing ruination staring the world in its face. And yet the world goes on. Every generation passes from the
spontaneity and exuberance of youth to the caution and prudence of old age, and then yields place to the next.
1. What, according to you, is the theme and the idea of the passge?
(a) Generation gap (b) Problems of the youth
(c) Optimism of the older generation. (d) None of the above
2. The older generation is suspicious about the younger generation as the youngsters lack:
(a) Knowledge (b) experience
(c) patience (d) time
3. The author seems to be supportive of the idea that:
(a) The people of the older generation are men of words rather than action.
(b) The younger generation is impatient.
(c) The younger generation today is much misunderstood and more maligned than it deserves.
(d) None of the above
4. “And yet the world goes on:—what is the tone of the author in this statement?
(a) Optimistic (b) Pessimistic (c) Cynical (d) Critical
680 Objective English
Directions (5–8): Four (04) items are based on the passage given below:
Who deserves more server punishment? One who gives bribes or the one the who takes them? The corrupt practice of bribery is pos-
sible because there is someone who is ready to pay money for illegal action or decision in his favour. Otherwise, how can one demand a
bride? The bribe—giver tempts other to be corrupt and thus demoralizes our national character. Even Jesus Christ, fearing the power of
temptation, had said, “Lead me not into temptation”. A bribe-giver is generally moneyed and influential, while, on the other hand, one
who demands bribe does so because of his poor circumstances and compulsions. Hence one who gives bribe should be awarded more
severe punishment because he exploits the weakness of the poor. Giving and taking bribe happens in a more vicious circle which can
continue only because of money. Naturally, therefore, it is the affluent that grease this wheel of corruption and should accordingly be
dealt with firmly and suitably punished to put a stop to this nefarious practice.
5. The author feels that the practice of bribery is there because there are willing bribe-givers.
(a) True (b) False (c) Partially true (d) None of the above
6. Who according to the author, should be punished more severely?
(a) The bride-taker (b) The bribe-giver
(c) The person who demands bribe. (d) None of these
7. Who, according to the author, should be punished more severely?
(a) The Police who allow this practice
(b) The bribe-giver
(c) The person who demands bribe
(d) None of the above
8. Who, according to the author, is more corrupted?
(a) Our system
(b) The person who demands bribe
(c) The affluent who exploits the weakness of the poor
(d) The supporter of bribe who is left with little choice.
Answers 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b)
1. (a)
JEE (HOTEL MANAGEMENT ENTRANCE) EXAMINATION
Error Reading
Identification Comprehension
4 7
10% 17%
Gender Type of Questions No. of MCQs
Based Reading Comprehension 7
Fill in the Blanks 7
6 Synonyms 6
15% Jumbled Words 1
Spellings 4
Cloze Tests Fill in the Cloze Tests 5
5 Blanks Gender Based 6
Error Identification 4
13% 7 TOTAL 40
17%
Spellings Synonyms
4 Jumbled Words 6
1
10% 3% 15%
Other Important Examinations 681
English Language
Directions: The questions are based on the following passage. Read the passage carefully to answer these questions:
The third great defect of our civilization is that it does not know what to do with its knowledge. Science has given us powers fit for the
Gods, yet we use them like small children. For example, we do not know how to manage our machines. Machines were made to be
man’s servants. Yet, he has grown so dependent on them that they are in a fair way becoming his masters. Already most men spend most
of their lives looking after and waiting upon machines. And the machines are very stern masters. They must be fed with coal, and given
petrol to drink, and oil to wash with, and they must be kept at the right temperature. And if they do not get their meals when they expect
them, they grow sulky and refuse to work, or burst with rage, and blow up, and cause ruin and destruction all around them. So, we have
to wait upon them very attentively and do all that we can to keep them in a good temper. Already we find it difficult either to work or
play without the machines, and a time may come when they will rule us altogether, just as we rule the animals.
And this brings me to the point at which I ask “What do we do with all the time which the machines have saved for us, and the new
energy they have given us?” On the whole, it must be admitted, we do very little. For the most part we use our time and energy to make
more and better machines; but more and better machines will only give us still more time and still more energy, and what are we to do
with them? The answer, I think, is that we should try to become more civilized. For the machines themselves, and the power which the
machines have given us, is not civilization but aids to civilization. But you will remember that we agreed at the beginning that being
civilized meant making and liking beautiful things, thinking freely, loving rightly, and maintaining justice equally between man and
man. Man has a better chance today to do these things than he ever had before; he has more time, more energy, less to fear and less to
fight against. If he will give his time and energy which his machines have won for him to making more beautiful things, finding out more
and more about the universe, removing the causes to quarrels between nations, and discovering how to prevent poverty, then I think our
civilization would undoubtedly be greater, as it would be most lasting than there has ever been.
1. The advantage of having so many machines is
(a) Man has got the power of Gods (b) Man has machines to look after him
(c) Man has more time and energy (d) Man has learnt to look after machines
2. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Man has become dependent on machines
(b) Machines need to be looked after well
(c) Machines are on their way to becoming the masters
(d) Man is spending his time in useful pursuits like preventing poverty
3. How has man made machines his master?
(a) By using them like children (b) By becoming dependent on them
(c) By looking after them and becoming their servant (d) By spending money on them
4. We use the time saved by the machines for
(a) New areas of activity (b) Other ways of having fun
(c) Making new machines (d) Doing nothing
5. “Being civilized” means
(a) Maintaining justice (b) Thinking freely
(c) Making beautiful things (d) All of the above
6. The great defect of our civilization discussed in the above passage is
(a) Not having enough knowledge (b) Making too many children
(c) Not knowing what to do with its knowledge (d) Having too much free time
7. When the machines are not looked after, they
(a) Refuse to work (b) Blow up (c) Cause ruin and destruction (d) All of the above
Directions: In these questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with appropriate words. Four alternatives (a), (b), (c), and
(d) are suggested for each blank.
Choose the correct one:
8. Hari and Rajesh are ____________ unable to complete the task.
(a) neither (b) either (c) each (d) both
9. Her friend gave her ____________ gifts to show her appreciation.
(a) lavish (b) generous (c) overwhelming (d) profuse
10. All matter ____________ indestructible.
(a) is (b) are (c) it (d) was
11. I don’t want ____________ of these books.
(a) all (b) none (c) any (d) each
Directions: In these questions, out of the four alternatives (a), (b), (c), and (d), choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word:
12. REPAST (b) a meal (c) repetition (d) relaxation
(a) recent past
682 Objective English
13. CARRIER
(a) occupation (b) carrying equipment
(c) moving at high speed (d) name of a person
14. APPLAUSE
(a) approval (b) entertainment (c) stop (d) possible
15. DOCTRINE
(a) medicine (b) degree (c) medical specialist (d) teaching
16. In the question, the first and the last part of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts P, Q,
R, S, which are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence carefully to find out which of the four combinations of these
four parts is correct so as to make the sentence meaningful:
1. Perhaps the most
P. the brain-drain phenomenon Q. important reason for
R. which does not serve S. is an education pattern
6. The needs of the country.
(a) PQSR (b) QRSP (c) QSPR (d) QPSR
Directions: Select the correct spellings from the four options given.
17. (a) Rendezvous (b) Rondezvous (c) Rondewoo (d) Rendervous
18. (a) Mallingering (b) Maliengering (c) Malingering (d) Malingring
19. (a) Garantee (b) Guarantee (c) Guarenti (d) Garanti
20. (a) Schisme (b) Sckism (c) Skism (d) Schism
Directions: In these questions, choose the word opposite in meaning (antonym) to the given word from the four alternatives (a), (b), (c), (d).
21. SELFISH (b) unthinking (c) generous (d) profuse
(a) selfless (b) loose (c) loosen (d) untie
(b) thick (c) few (d) scattered
22. TIGHT (b) placid (c) agitated (d) hysterical
(a) lose (b) defective (c) inadequate (d) imperfect
23. SPARSE
(a) crowded
24. CALM
(a) turmoil
25. PERFECT
(a) faulty
Directions: In the following passage, there are blank spaces which are numbered from 26 to 31. Against each of these numbers, there are
four choices of words from which one is the correct option for each space. Read the passage carefully to choose the appropriate option:
He was a Hindu, an Indian, the ...(26)... in many generations, and he was proud of being a Hindu and an Indian. To him, India was dear
because she represented throughout the ages ...(27)... immutable truths. But ...(28)... he was intensely religious and came to be called the
Father of the Nation which he held ...(29)..., yet no narrow religious or national bonds confined his spirit.
His death brought more tributes ...(30)... have been paid at the passing of any other human being in history. Perhaps what would
have pleased him best ...(31)... the spontaneous tributes that came from the people of Pakistan. On the morrow of the tragedy, all of us
forgot for a while the bitterness that had crept in.
26. (a) best (b) greatest (c) most (d) higher
27. (a) certain (b) some (c) many (d) all
28. (a) also (b) whereas (c) even though (d) though
29. (a) freed (b) liberated (c) made independent (d) fought for
30. (a) than (b) then (c) as (d) for
31. (a) they (b) that (c) were (d) was
Directions: In these questions, you have to choose the correct feminine gender of the given word from the four alternatives given:
32. SERVANT (b) mistress (c) employer (d) maid
(a) master (b) witch (c) teacher (d) magician
33. WIZARD
(a) sorceress
Directions: Complete the following sentences by filling the blanks with the appropriate options.
34. The doctor gave the medicine to ____________ the pain.
(a) bring down (b) reduce (c) relief (d) relieve
(d) can catch the
35. Only the honest person _______________ first stone.
(a) can hit the (b) can throw the (c) can cast the
Other Important Examinations 683
36. The students _________________ a protest march against the college authorities.
(a) carried on (b) staged (c) walked out (d) caused
Directions: In these questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which of the parts (a), (b), (c), and
(d)has an error. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any:
37. I will take(a)/ten minutes to(b)/walk through the bridge.(c)/No error(d)
38. I cannot hardly(a)/raise my hand(b)/to eat my food.(c)/No error(d)
39. A man(a)/who beats his wife(b)/is wicked.(c)/No error(d)
40. There goes(a)/Sita and Radha(b)/fighting like always.(c)/No error(d)
Answers 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b)
14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c)
1. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (b)
13. (c) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (a)
25. (d)
37. (c)
NID (NATIONAL INSTITUTE OF DESIGN) EXAMINATION
Reading Synonyms
Comprehension 3
10 12%
40%
Antonyms
3
12%
Idiom/Phrases Type of Questions No. of MCQs
3 Synonyms 3
Antonyms 3
12% Idiom/Phrases 3
Fill in the Blanks 6
Fill in the Blanks Reading Comprehension 10
6 TOTAL 25
24%
Directions: In these questions, choose the alternative which is same is mean to the keyword given in capitals.
1. PENSIVE
(a) habitually tardy (b) confident
(d) affectionate
(c) given to quit reflection
(c) ignorant
2. SLOTHFUL
(c) correct morally
(a) fat (b) stubborn (d) lazy
(d) restrain
3. EMANCIPATE
(a) set free (b) exist
Directions: In these questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the keyword, given in capitals.
4. SERENE (b) agitated (c) showy (d) complicated
(a) impure
684 Objective English
5. REPRIMAND (b) recommend (c) release (d) praise
(a) encourage (b) smoothness (c) anarchy (d) deception
6. RECTITUDE
(a) firmness
Directions: Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases from the given alternatives.
7. Paint the town red
(a) Indulge in rioting (b) Paint the house red
(d) Have a lively time
(c) Spill red wire
8. High and dry
(a) Isolated (b) Rejected (c) Wounded (d) Depressed
9. Tooth and nail
(a) With weapons (b) As best as he could
(d) With strength and fury
(c) Using unfair means
Directions: Fill in the blank space of the sentence so that it becomes meaningful and correct.
10. Though Neelima is poor ____________ she is honest.
(a) still (b) nevertheless (c) but (d) yet
(d) wounded
11. My finger is still ____________ where is caught it in the door yesterday. (d) ashamed
(a) bruised (b) injured (c) sore
12. A son who is unable to look his father in the face is ____________.
(a) timid (b) guilty (c) arrogant
Directions: Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill the blank space in these sentences.
13. It is not away easy to sympathise ____________ an unfortunate man.
(a) for (b) by (c) at (d) with
(d) by
14. He was advised to abstain ____________ all alcoholic drinks. (d) of
(a) in (b) at (c) from
15. He had to repent ____________ he had done.
(a) at (b) for (c) cover
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage
National integration is a problem that has been considered to be of vital importance over the world. This is of special significance to our
country. Leaders like Abraham Lincoln and President Kennedy fell victims to bullets of assassins in their efforts to bring about greater
unity among the people and greater integration of the various parts of the country.
Many social reformers believed that integration of a country could survive on the foundation of faith, brother-hood and cooperation.
The conditions in India were diversified with factors like caste system, colour etc. It was not an easy task to bring about the brotherhood
feeling among our people in India. Hindu rulers, though professing the same faith, were divided among themselves. The division was
perpetuated later by Muslim rulers. But during the British rule the policy of divide and rule became a cause of conflict.
The dynamism of Sardar Patel led independent states to become an integral part of the Indian Union. This was the first step towards
national integration. Today national integration remains a distant goal. Love for power, craze for riches, religious and linguistic fantasia
makes integration impossible. Under these circumstances a need for national integration is greatly felt. Young minds should be taught
the value of national integration and its advantages.
16. The killers of Abraham Lincoln and Kennedy
(a) wanted to rule the country themselves (b) wanted to destabilize the government
(c) opposed the idea of national integration (d) challenged the government
17. Abraham Lincoln and Kennedy were the advocates of
(a) non-violence (b) unity among the countries of the world
(c) peace and harmony in the world (d) national integration
18. Which of the following was seen as the first step towards national integration in our country?
(a) All the independent states coming under one umbrella
(b) Muslim rulers coming on a single platform
(c) Britishers establishing their control all over India
(d) People coming together after the end of the British rule
19. Which of the following has not been seen as an obstacle to the idea of national integration?
(a) Hunger for power (b) Going mad after wealth
(c) Craze for higher education (d) Religious intolerance
Other Important Examinations 685
20. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
(a) Sardar patel supported the idea of international integration
(b) In terms of national integration, Hindu rulers were not united
(c) Britishers tried their best for national integration in India
(d) Muslim rulers supported the idea of national integration
Directions: Read the passage correctly and answer the questions based on it.
Passage
Essentially, religion is code of conduct for people of different communities—geographical or cultural—to follow. Religion is a dead
document. It is an imposed human burden on man after his birth. Besides, every religion generates hatred in a bid to gather more people
in its flock, leading to bloodshed.
Whenever and wherever religion grows, it spreads intolerance amongst people of different religious denominations. Religion actu-
ally removes God from the purview of man, assuring him of heaven by his own good words. Thus God is made superfluous. What a
falsehood! Perhaps it is this unconscious lack of fear of a living God that results in every evil. It is time for all of us to realize that what
men need today is a God, and not religion. From the time of his birth, man’s conscience is coded with the knowledge of God, the fact
that there is only one God who has eyes to behold, ears to hear and a heart to love and to save. God is indeed invincible and cannot be
defeated by any power.
At this hour, when we must unite to combat pain and suffering, I request you to turn to this God of love, forgiveness and justice. He
is your need and not religion. Over the ages, millions, irrespective of caste, creed, colour and religion, have cried out to God and have
been saved. May the Lord grant all humanity the humility to do so, for sooner or later every one has to meet his or her maker.
21. What message does the author convey to the people?
(a) God is almighty (b) God showers his love on all of us
(c) Embrace God, shun religion (d) May all religions prosper
22. Which of the following generates evil in the society?
(a) Growth in the number of religions (b) People’s dissociation with God
(c) People’s idea of God (d) Extremists in different religions
23. When any religion attempts to increase the number of its followers,
(a) the affected religions do not approve it
(b) bargaining takes place
(c) it has to offer something at stake
(d) people come in large numbers to join it
24. How do we decide the religion of a newborn?
(a) There is no specific religion of a newborn
(b) A newborn is considered to be the child of God
(c) There are no criteria to decide the religion of a newborn
(d) As per the customs, a newborn gets associated with the religion of his/her father
25. Which of the following best expresses the concern of the author about religion and God?
(a) Religion has made people closer to the Almighty
(b) Religion has created a wide gap between people and God
(c) Every religion has its own way of worshipping God
(d) Religion is not the only way to God
Answers 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (c)
13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a)
1. (a) 24. (d) 25. (b)
12. (b)
23. (a)
686 Objective English
NIFT (NATIONAL INSTITUTE OF FASHION TECHNOLOGY) EXAMINATION
Grammatical Error
Correct Identification Meaningful Order
4
Fill in the Blanks 3 4 6%
4 4% 6%
6%
Spellings Type of Questions No. of MCQs
4 Reading Comprehension 34
6% Logical Order 4
Synonyms
One Word Antonyms Antonyms 3
Substitution 4 One Word Substitution 4
6% Spellings 4
4 Fill in the Blanks 4
6% Grammatical Correct 4
Error Identification 3
Synonyms Logical Order Reading Meaningful Order 4
3 4 Comprehension 4
4% 6% TOTAL
34 68
50%
Comprehension
Directions (1–30): Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow each passage.
Passage 1
The single business of Henry Thoreau during forty odd years of eager activity, was to discover an economy calculated to provide a
satisfying life. His one concern that gave to his ramblins in Concord fields a value of high adventure, was to explore the true meaning
of wealth. As he understood the problem of economics there were three possible solutions open to him: to exploit himself, to exploit
his fellows, or to reduce the problem to its lowest denominator. The first was quite impossible- to imprison oneself in a treadmill
when the morning called to great adventure. To exploit one’s fellow seemed to Threau’s sensitive social conscience an even greater
infidelity. Freedom with abstinence seemed to him better than serdom with material well being and he was content to move to Walden
Pond and set about the high business of living, “to front only the essential facts of life and to see what it had to reach.” He did not
advocate that other man should build cabins and live isolated. He had no wish to dogmatise concerning the best mode of living- each
must settle that for himself. But that a satisfying life should be lived. He was vitally concerned. The story of his emancipation from
the lower economics is the one romance of his life and Walden is his great book. It is a book in praise of life rather than Nature, a
record of calculating economics that studied saving in order to spend more largely. But it is a book of social critism as well, in spite
of its explicit denial of such a purpose. In considering the true nature of economy he concluded, with Ruskin that the cost of a thing
is the amount of life which is required to exchange for it, immediately or in the long run. In Walden Thoreau elaborated the text:
“The only wealth in life.”
1. The author’s primary purpose in this passage it to
(a) discuss and assess economic problems
(b) describe Thoreau’s philosophy of life
(c) prove that Walden was Thoreau’s greatest book
(d) elevate life at Walden Pond
2. On the basis of the passage. Thoreau was all of the following except
(a) liberated (b) dogmatic
(c) energetic (d) critical
3. It can be inferred that author thinks of Thoreau’s emancipation from the lower economics as romance because it.
(a) entailed social criticism (b) was an adventure story.
(c) was embodied in Threau’s greatest book (d) wholly captured Thoreau’s imagination.
Other Important Examinations 687
4. It can be inferred from the passage that Thoreau believed the wealth of an individual is measured by
(a) the money he or she makes (b) the experience he or she gains
(c) his or her good deeds (d) the amount he or she saves
Passage 2
Rising inflation, coupled with a new packaging legislation, will make price hikes of packaged foods inevitable, says the Divisional Chief
Executive of ITC’s foods division. On one hand the costs of inputs such as raw material, furnace oil and packaging material and even
logistic have gone up, while on the other, the new packaging law that bans producers from reducing the quantity inside the packet, will
leave them with no choice but to raise prices. This new Legal Metrology Act is likely to come into force shortly. At present, FMCG com-
panies rely on reduced quantity to tackle rising inflationary pressure on input costs rather than changing the price points owing mainly
to coinage issues. The new Act will make the price point concept impossible, he said. On the demand supply side, he said the company
had to make a lot of efforts to meet the spurt in demand for its cream biscuits, Giving an example. He said the company’s premium range
offering such as Dark Fantasy and Dream Cream Bourbon have witnessed a growth of 118 percent in the second quarter over the first.
Even other Sunfeast premium creams have shown a growth of 72 percent in Q2 over Q1. Responding to a question on competition from
global brands such as Oreo (from Krafts Foods), McVitie’s (from united Biscuits), and domestic brands such as Parle and Britannia, he
said international competition is reality. It is good, as it aids “premiumisation” of the category. He said this has actually enriched sun-
feast’s portfolio last year. On the domestic front, given the emerging trends in consumption patterns, the biscuits market offers enormous
opportunities scope for improvement both in terms of new products and segments and also in terms of operational excellence. “The field
of play is large and we are encouraged and really excited about the year ahead,” he said. At present ITC’s Sunfeast is the third largest
national player after Parle and Britannia. The brand has 10 percent share of the R 15,000 crore biscuit market. And, within this, in the
creams segments (which accounts for over R 3,500 crore) Sunfeast commands 15 percent share.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that Thoreau believed the wealth of an individual is measured by
(a) the money he or she makes (b) the experience he or she gains
(c) his or her good deeds (d) the amount he or she saves
6. How has competition from foreign brands affected the Indian biscuit market?
(1) Only the three largest manufactures survived; while the smaller ones withered away.
(2) The range of categories available to Indian consumers has expanded.
(3) The foreign brands got restricted to premium categories only; leaving the field open to domestic brands is non-premium
categories.
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 3 (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 & 3
7. The price point concept discussed in the passage is referring to
(a) fixing prices of packaged foods in round figures for ease of payment at the point of purchase.
(b) prices to be fixed by the government.
(c) variations of prices from point-to point in any city.
(d) None of these
8. It can be accurately inferred from the passage that
(a) Parle is the largest selling brand of biscuits in India.
(b) Sunfeast is the third largest selling brand of cream biscuits in the country.
(c) competition from foreign brands has adversely affected the sales of Sunfeast.
(d) All of these
Passage 3
Changes in lifestyle are unshered in primarily by growing urbanization. With urbanization availability of food that can be purchased in
small quantities, stored easily and cooked easily would attract greater demand. Fresh looks standardization in looks and quality would
fetch better price. New foods would attract urban consumers. There may be quicker convergence of tastes across income groups in the
urban settings than in rural settings. Although rural life was synonyms with nutritious food, the urban population may yet embrace better
nutritious food, the urban setting. Diversification of food in terms of rising share of fruits vegetables and live stock products is one change
in demand that the farm sector would have to re-orient its supplies to. While there are the inevitable supply side bottlenecks, demand
may rise sharply and quickly as a result of shifts in tastes and preferences. What might facilitate diversification of the food basket are the
improvements in consumption infrastructure. Urban population growth will spur demand for higher value food items. Sustained growth
of farm will require urban growth and support for diversification of the food basket by the consumption patterns is likely to benefit small
as well as large farmers so long as they can make the changes in their output composition. Urbanization will make demands on land and
water; but will also raise the demand for high-value farm output.
9. The author of the passage appears to believe that growing urbanization
(a) is a necessary evil for progress. (b) is the only reason for changes in lifestyle.
(c) is a major factor affecting lifestyle changes. (d) leads to higher incidence of lifestyle
688 Objective English
10. As per the passage, growth in urban population would result in
(1) more houses being built
(2) higher demand for drinking water.
(3) demand for more nutritious food items.
(a) 3 only (b) 2 & 3 (c) 1 & 2 (d) 1, 2, & 3
11. What, according to the passage, is the major challenge that growing urbanization, and the resultant growth in demand, would
throw up?
(a) Farmers would have to find more efficient ways to ensure continuous supply of their produce to urban areas.
(b) More playgrounds would have to be made available for the children to play in.
(c) Better roads would have to be laid in cities to facilitate the farmers’ carts and tractors to ply.
(d) All these
12. It can be inferred from the passage that
(a) urban growth is pushing the farmers to shake off their habitual laziness and increase farm output.
(b) growing urban demand for farm produce is leading to unhealthy competitiveness amongst farmers.
(c) food packaging industries would have to come up in villages to keep pace with urban demands for convenience foods.
(d) growing urbanization will lead to improvements in rural lifestyles also.
Passage 4
If you think that most poor people in the world live in the poorest countries, you are mistaken. A new study of 1.65 billion of the world’s
poor shows that 72 percent (1,189 million) live in middle income countries compared with 459 million in low income countries. What’s
more, higher percentage (586 million) live in ‘severe poverty’ in middle income countries than in low income countries (285 Million),
says the study. Nearly three quarters of the poor live in middle income countries. Another key finding is that 50 percent (827 million)
of the poor live in South Asia, which includes India, and 29 percent (473 million) in Sub-Saharan Africa. “Multidimensionally” poor
people in middle income countries have simply been by passed as their nation’s comparative wealth increased, says the study. The poverty
measure used in the study took into account range of deprivations in areas such as education, malnutrition, child mortality, sanitation and
services. The researchers analysed the most recent publicity available household household survey data for 109 countries, covering 93
percent of people living in low-and middle income countries. Middle-income countries are classed as those with an average yearly wage
of between & 1006 and & 12275 while low income countries are those with a national average wage of &1005 or below.
13. Which of the following statements Is not implied in the passage?
(a) Less than one-third of the world’s poor live in poorer countries.
(b) More than 70% of the population in middle-income countries is poor.
(c) Oxford University, UK, recently conducted a study of 1.65 billion poor of the world’s population.
(d) All these
14. Which of the following factors are considered relevant in measuring poverty?
(1) Income (2) Education (3) Nutrition
(a) 1 only (b) 1 & 2 (c) 1 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3
15. Countries are categorized as middle-income or low-income depending on
(a) the national average yearly income (b) the number of poor people in the country.
(c) Both (1) and (2) (d) Neither (1) or (2)
16. As per study referred to in the passage,
(a) data of only 109 countries is available.
(b) fifty percent of the world’s poor live in India.
(c) there are no higher income countries in the world today.
(d) many poor people in middle-income countries did not benefit from the the growth and development taking place there.
Passage 5
Italian coffee chain Lavazza has launched its international brand Espression in the country in a move that industry insiders say will push
Barista Lavazza to the back seat. The first outlet of Espression, positioned at the high end of the café segment in the country, opened at
Cannaught place in New Delhi in September 2011, replacing a Barista Lavazza café. But company executives say the two brands will
co-exist. “ Lavazza Barista remains an Indian reality with an extensive presence in the region, “ the Lavazza Asia and Pacific Director
said. There are more than 160 Barista Lavazza cafes in India. Lavazza entered India in 2007 with acquisition of cafe chain Barista Coffee
Company and coffee vendor and retailer Fresh & Honest. Official said it is in the midst of a consolidation phase in the country. Over the
past few months, it also witnessed changes in leadership. The then CEO of Barista Coffee Company, stepped down in September 2011
to join Om Pizza & Eats, the holding company for Papa john’s the Great Kabab Factory and Chili’s. Lavazza Espression, known for its
culinary collaboration with the three-Michelin star EI Bulli restaurant’s chef, is expected to enter Bangalore and Mumbai next. Its food
and beverages are priced 15–20% higher than the classic Barista Espression, globally launched in 2007, has presence in Italy, the US,
Other Important Examinations 689
China, Spain, Ireland, Republic of Korea, Romania and the UK. Industry players say Espression is Lavazza’s strategy to differentiate
in a market dominated by Café Coffee Day. There are en estimated 5, 000 outlets of cafe chains in the country, growing 20–25% a year.
Competition includes Costa Coffee and Gloria Jean’s Coffees Espression will be positioned at par with players such as Coffee Bean & Tea
Leaf and Segafredo Zanetti Espresso that are present at the top end of the market, said a person with direct knowledge of the development.
17. ‘Espression’, the international brand, has presence in which of the following countries?
(a) Italy, US China, UK (b) Romania, Ireland, Spain, Korea
(c) India, US, UK, Italy (d) All these
18. The Italian coffee chain Lavazza entered the Indian market in which year?
(a) 2007 (b) 2011
(c) Expected to enter some time in 2012 (d) Can’t say
19. It is implied in the passage that
(a) Lavazza wants to ease out the Barista brand from India.
(b) the launch of Espression is a strategy to grab market share from Cafe Coffee Day.
(c) EI Bulli’s food and beverages are priced 15-20% higher than the classic Barista.
(d) there are 5, 000 coffee chains operating in India
20. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Espression, Coffee Bean & Tea Leaf and Segafredo Zenetti Espress are in direct competition
(b) Barista Coffee Company and ‘Fresh & Honest’ brands are both owned by the same holding company.
(c) All the Espression outlets in India would be opened by replacing Barista Lavazza cafes.
(d) Costa Coffee and Gloria Jean’s Coffees are in competition in India
Passage 6
Kolkata headquartered menswear apparel and accessories maker Turtle is planning to launch its own brand of casual wear clothing. The
company is in talks with several foreign players-mostly UK-based denim brands- to firm up its product portfolio for the new range. The
new brand is expected to be launched between end of 2012 and early 2013. A name has not been decided. “Some foreign collaborator
may partner us for the project. However, if the talks fail, we may go ahead on our own”, says the director of Turtle. “Planes have not
yet been cemented but we are expecting the launch of this new brand in another 12 to 15 months.” Market sources sat that a possible
entry of foreign brands in a market could be through a licensing agreement, a joint venture or a buyout of the intellectual property rights
of the (foreign) brand Turtle has some denim offerings, but it does not have a dedicated range of casual wear. “Most casual brands
concentrate on denim as an offering and we are also exploring the option”, he said. The brand with sales of R 85 crore is targeting R 130
crore in current fiscal. The company has two lifestyle brands under the names Turtle competes with premium brands such as Scullers
and Lombard, London Bridge is a value brand offering lower priced products. According to the director, the company is firming up
its production capacities to cater to an increase in demand as well as its new clothing range. While talks are on with private labels in
Bangladesh, it is also in discussion with Indian private labels to ensure higher supply. The company produces nearly two million units
annually from its facilities—one each on Kolkata (West Bengal) and Bangalore (Karnataka). It procures another one million units from
private labels in India.
21. The range of clothing offered by Turtle includes
(1) Menswear (2) Casualwear (3) Denim
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 1 & 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, & 3
22. Turtle is looking at possible collaborators from which of the following countries in order to launch its own casual wear clothing?
(1) UK (2) Bangladesh (3) India
(a) 1 only (b) 1 & 2
(c) 1, 2 & 3 (d) 1 & 3
23. Which of the following statements is implied in the passage?
(a) The company (Turtle) would end the current year with a turnover of R 130 crore.
(b) Turtle expects to increase its turnover to R 130 crore with the launch of a new casual wear brand.
(c) Turtle has collaboration with a London brand.
(d) India and Bangladesh are worthy destinations for foreign collaborators.
24. It can be inferred from the passage that
(a) Turtle is already marketing domestic brands other than its own also.
(b) Turtle is expecting increases in sales volumes due mainly to the new labels it plans to launch
(c) The company that makes Turtle is into manufacturing and marketing of premium apparel ranges only.
(d) The managements of Turtle brand is determined to press ahead with the launch of a casual wear brand of clothing; with or
without a foreign collaborator.