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CHAPTER 28
UPSC Tests
UPSC-CSAT
Comprehension
of English
Language
8
20%
Reading Type of Questions No. of MCQs
Comprehension Reading Comprehension 32
English Language 8
32 TOTAL 40
80%
Reading Comprehension
Direction for the 15 (fifteen) item: Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answer to
these items should be based on the passage only
Passage I
Education, without a doubt, has an important functional Instrumental and utilitarian dimension. This is revealed when one ask question
such as what is the purpose of education? The answers, too often, are to acquire qualifications for employment/upward mobility, wider/
higher (in terms of income opportunities, and to meet the needs for trained human power diverse fields for national development. But in
its deepest sense education is not instrumentalist. That is to say, it is not to be justified outside of itself because it leads to the acquisition
of formal skills or of certain desired psychological social attributes Ii must he respected in itself. Education is thus not a commodity lo
be acquired or possessed and then used, but a process of inestimable importance to individuals and society, although it can and dose have
enormous use value. Education then, is a process at expansion and conversion, not in the sense of converting or turning students into
542 Objective English
doctors or engineers, but the widening and turning out of the mind—the creation, Kustenaneo and development of self-critical awareness
independence of thought. It is an inner process of moral- intellectual development.
1. What do you understand by the instrumentalist view of education?
(a) Education is functional and utilitarian in its purposes, (b) Education is meant to fulfil human needs.
(c) The purpose of education is to train the human intellect (d) Education is meant to achieve moral development
2. According to the passage, education must be respected in itself because.
(a) it helps to acquire qualifications for employment
(b) it helps in upward mobility and acquiring uncial status
(c) it is an inner process of moral and intellectual development
(d) All the (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.
3. Education is a process in which
(a) students are converted into trained professionals.
(b) opportunities for higher income are generated.
(c) individuals develop self-critical awareness and independence of thought.
(d) qualifications for upward mobility are acquired.
Passage II
Chemical pesticides lose their role in sustainable agriculture if the pests evolve resistance. The evolution of pesticide resistance is sim-
ply natural selection in action. It is almost certain to occur when vast numbers of a genetically variable population are killed. One or a
few individuals may he unusually resistant (perhaps because they possess an enzyme that can detoxify the pesticide). If the pesticide is
applied repeatedly, each successive generation of the pest will contain a larger proportion of resistant individuals Pests typically have
a high intrinsic rate of reproduction, and so n few individual in one generation may give rise to hundreds or thousands in the next, and
resistance spreads very rapidly in a population.
This problem was often ignored in he past, even though the first case of DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) resistance was
reported early as 1946. There is exponential increase in the numbers of m vertebrates that have evolved resistance and in the number of
pesticides against which resistance has evolved. Resistance has been recorded in every family of arthropod pests (including dipterans such
as mosquitoes and house flies, as well as beetles, moths, wasps, fleas, Lice and mites) as well as well as in weeds and plant pathogens,
Take the Alabama leaf-worm, a moth pest of cotton, as an example. It has developed resistance in one or more regions of the world to
aldrin, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, lindane and toxaphene.
If chemical pesticides brought nothing but, problem-if their use was intrinsically and acutely unsustainable—then they would already
have fallen out of widespread use. This has not happened. Instead, their rate of production has increased rapidly. The ratio of cost of
benefit for the individual agricultural producer has remained in favour of pesticide use. In the USA insecticides have been estimated to
benefit the agricultural products to the tune of around $5 for every $1 spent.
Moreover, in many poorer countries, the prospect of imminent mass starvation, or of an epidemic diseases, are so frightening that
the social and health cost of using pesticides have to be ignored. In general the use of pesticides is justified by objective measures such
as lives saved, ‘economic efficiency of food production’ and total food produced. In these very fundamental senses, their use may be
described as sustainable. In practice, sustainability depends on continually developing new pesticides that keep at least one step ahead
of the pests pesticides that are less persistent, biodegradable and more accurately targeted al the pests.
4. The evolution of pesticide resistance is natural selection in action.’ What does it actually imply?
(a) It is very natural for many organisms to have pesticide resistance.
(b) Pesticide resistance among organisms is a universal phenomenon.
(c) Some individuals in any given population show resistance after the application of pesticides.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.
5. With reference to the passage, consider the following statement.
1. Use of chemical pesticides has become imperative in all the poor countries of the world.
2. Chemical pesticides should not have in role in sustainable agriculture.
3. One pest can develop resistance to many pesticides.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
6. Though the problems associated with the use of chemical pesticides is known for a long time, their widespread use has not waned.
Why?
(a) Alternatives to chemical pesticides do not exist at, all.
(b) New pesticides are not invented at all.
(c) Pesticide are biodegradable.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.
UPSC Tests 543
7. How do pesticides act as agents for the selection of resistant individuals in any pest population?
1. It is possible that in a pest population the individuals will behave differently due to their genetic makeup.
2. Pests do possess the ability to detoxify the pesticides.
3. Evolution of pesticide resistance is equally distributed in pest population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
8. Why is the use of chemical pesticides generally justified by giving the examples of poor and developing countries?
1. Development countries can afford to do away with use of pesticides by adapting to organic farming, but it is imperative for
poor and developing countries to use chemical pesticides.
2. In poor and developing countries, the pesticides addressing the problem of epidemic diseases of crops and eases the food
problem.
3. The social and heath costs of pesticides use are generally ignored in poor and developing countries.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
9. What does the passage imply?
(a) Alternative options to chemical pesticides should be promoted.
(b) Too much use of chemicals is not good for the ecosystem.
(c) There is no scope for the improvement-of pesticides and making their use sustainable.
(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) above are correct.
Passage III
Today’s developing economic use much less energy per capita than developed countries such as the United States did at similar incomes,
showing the potential for lower-carbon growth. Adaptation and mitigation need to be integrated into a climate-smart development strategy
that increases resilience, reduces the threat of further global warming, and improves development outcomes. Adaptation and mitigation
measures can advance development, and prosperity can raise incomes and foster better institutions. A healthier population living in better-
built houses and with access to bank loans and social security is better equipped to deal with a changing climate and its consequences.
Advancing robust, resilient development policies that’ promote adaptation is needed today because changes, in the climate, already
begun, will increase even in the short term.
10. Which of the following conditions of growth can add to vulnerability?
1. When the growth occurs due to excessive exploitation of mineral resources and forests.
2. When the growth brings about a change in humankind’s creative potential.
3. When the growth is envisaged only for providing houses and social security to the people.
4. When the growth occurs due to emphasis on farming only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. What does low-carbon growth imply in the present context?
1. More emphasis on the use of renewable sources of energy.
2. Less emphasis on manufacturing sector and more emphasis on agriculture sector.
3. Switching over from monoculture practices to mixed farming.
4. Less demand for goods and services.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) None of the above implies low-carbon growth
12. Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for sustainable economic growth?
1. Spreading of economic prosperity more.
2. Popularising/spreading of adaptive technologies widely.
3. Investing on research in adaptation and mitigation technologies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Which of the following inferences can be made from the passage?
1. Rainfed crops should not be cultivated in irrigated areas.
2. Farming under water-deficient areas should not be a part of development strategy.
544 Objective English
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Consider the following assumptions
1. Sustainable economic growth demands the use of creative potential of man.
2. Intensive agriculture can lead to ecological backlash.
3. Spread of economic prosperity can adversely affect the ecology and environment.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 1, 2 and 3
15. Which one of the following statements constitutes the central theme of this passage?
(a) Countries with greater economic prosperity are better equipped to deal with the consequences of climate change.
(b) Adaptation and mitigation should be integrated with development strategies.
(c) Rapid economic growth should not be pursued by both developed and developing economies.
(d) Some countries resort to overexploitation of natural resources for the sake of rapid development.
Directions for the following 11 (eleven) items: Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your
answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage I
Invasions of exotic species into new geographic areas sometimes occur naturally and without human agency. However, human actions
have increased this trickle to a flood. Human-caused introductions may occur either accidentally as a consequence of human transport, or
intentionally but illegally to serve some private purpose or legitimately to procure some hoped-for public benefit by bringing a pest under
control, producing new agricultural products new agricultural products or providing novel recreational opportunities. Many introduced
species are assimilated into communities without much obvious effect. However, some have been responsible for dramatic changes to
native species and natural communities. For example, the accidental introduction of the brown tree snake Boigairregularis into Guam,
an island in the Pacific, has through nest predation reduced 10 endemic forest bird species to the point of extinction.
One of the major reasons for the world’s great biodiversity is the occurrence of centers of endemism so that similar habitats in different
parts of the world are occupied by different groups of species that happen to have evolved there. If every species naturally had access to
everywhere on the globe, we might expect a relatively small number of successful species to become dominant in each biome. The extent
to which this homogenization can happen naturally is restricted by the limited powers of dispersal. By virtue of the transport opportunities
offered by humans, these barriers have been breached by an ever-increasing number of exotic species. The effects of introductions have
been to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into something much more homogeneous. It would be wrong,
however, to conclude that introducing species to a region will inevitably cause a decline in species richness there. For example, there are
numerous species of plants, invertebrates and vertebrates found in continental Europe but absent from the British Isles (many because
they have so far failed to recolonize after the last glaciations). Their introduction would be likely to significant detrimental effect noted
above arises where aggressive species provide a novel challenge to endemic biotas ill-equipped to deal with them.
16. With reference to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Introduction of exotic species into new geographical areas always leads to reduced biodiversity.
(b) Exotic species introduced by man into new areas have always greatly altered the native ecosystems.
(c) Man is the only reason to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into more homogeneous ones.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) is correct in this context.
17. Why does man introduce exotic species into new geographical areas?
1. To breed exotic species with local varieties.
2. To increase agricultural productivity.
3. For beautification and landscaping.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
18. How is homogenization -prevented under natural conditions?
(a) Evolution of groups of species specific to local habitats.
(b) Presence of oceans and mountain ranges.
(c) Strong adaptation of groups of species to local physical and climatic conditions.
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.
19. How have the human beings influenced the biodiversity?
1. By smuggling live organisms.
2. By building highways.
UPSC Tests 545
3. By making ecosystems sensitive so that new species are not allowed.
4. By ensuring that now specie? do not have major impact on local species.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
20. What the impact of invasion of exotic species on an ecosystem?
1. Erosion of endemic species.
2. Change in the species composition of the community of the ecosystem.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage II
Most champions of democracy have been rather reticent in suggesting that democracy would itself-promote development and enhance-
ment of social welfare—they have tended to see them as good but distinctly separate and largely independent goals. The detractors of
democracy, on the other hand, seemed to have been quite willing to express their diagnosis of what they see as serious tensions between
democracy and development. The theorists of the practical split—‘Make up your mind: do you want democracy, or instead, do you want
development?’—often came, at least to start with, from East Asian countries, and their voice grew in influence as several of these countries
were immensely successful—through the 1970s and 1980s and even later—in promoting economic growth without pursuing democracy.
To deal with these issues we have to pay particular attention to both the content of what can be called development and to the inter-
pretation of democracy (in particular to the respective roles of voting and of public reasoning). The assessment of development cannot be
divorced from the lives that people can lead and the real freedom that they enjoy: Development can scarcely be seen merely in terms of
enhancement of inanimate objects of convenience, such as a rise in the GNP (or in personal incomes), or industrialization—important as
they may be as means to the real ends. Their value must depend on what they do to the lives and freedom of the people involved, which
must be central to the idea of development.
If development is understood in a broader way, with a focus on human lives, then it becomes immediately clear that the relation
between development and democracy has to be seen partly in terms of their constitutive connection, rather than only through their external
links. Even though the question has often been asked whether political freedom is ‘conducive to development’, we must not miss the
crucial recognition that political liberties and democratic rights are among the ‘constituent components’ of development. Their relevance
for development does not have to be established indirectly through their contribution to the growth of GNP.
21. According to the passage, why is a serious tension perceived between democracy and development by the detractors of democracy?
(a) Democracy and development are distinct and separate goals.
(b) Economic growth can be promoted successfully without pursuing a democratic system of governances.
(c) Non-democratic regimes deliver economic growth faster and far more successfully than democratic ones.
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.
22. According to the passage, what should be the ultimate assessment/aim/view of development?
(a) Rise in the per capita income and industrial growth rates.
(b) Improvement in the Human Development Index and GNP.
(c) Rise in the savings and consumption trends.
(d) Extent of real freedom that citizens enjoy.
23. What does a ‘constitutive’ connection between democracy and development imply?
(a) The relation between them has to be seen through external links.
(b) Political and civil rights only can lead to economic development.
(c) Political liberties and democratic rights are essential elements of development.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.
Passage III
The need for Competition Law becomes more evident when foreign direct investment (FDI) is liberalized. The impact of FDI is not
always pro-competitive. Very often FDI takes the form of a foreign corporation acquiring a domestic enterprise or establishing a joint
venture with one. By making such an acquisition the foreign investor may substantially lessen competition and gain a dominant position
in the relevant market, thus charging higher prices. Another scenario is where the affiliates of two separate multinational companies
(MNCs) have been established in competition with one another in a particular developing economy, following the liberalization of
FDI. Subsequently, the parent companies overseas merge. With the affiliates no longer remaining independent, competition in the host
country may be virtually eliminated and the prices of the products may be artificially inflated. Most of these adverse consequences of
mergers and acquisitions by MNCs can be avoided if an effective competition law is in place. Also, an economy that has implemented
an effective competition law is in a better position to attract FDI than one that has not. This is not just because most MNCs are expected
546 Objective English
to be accustomed to the operation of such a law in their home countries and know how to deal with such concerns but also that MNCs
expect competition authorities to ensure a level playing field between domestic and foreign firms.
24. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:
1. It is desirable that the impact of Foreign Direct Investment should be pro-competitive.
2. The entry of foreign investors invariably leads to the inflated prices in domestic markers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. According to the passage, how does a foreign investor dominate the relevant domestic market?
1. Multinational companies get accustomed to domestic laws.
2. Foreign companies establish joint ventures with domestic companies.
3. Affiliates in a particular market/sector lose their independence as their parent companies, overseas merge.
4. Foreign companies lower the cost of their products as compared to that of products of domestic companies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
26. What is the inference from this passage?
(a) Foreign investors and multinational companies always dominate the domestic market.
(b) It is not in the best interests of the domestic economy to allow mergers of companies.
(d) With competition law, it is easy to ensure a level playing field between domestic and foreign firms.
(d) For countries with open economy, Foreign Direct Investment is essential for growth.
Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers
to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage I
The poor especially in market economies need the strength that collectivities offer for creating more economic, social and political space
for themselves, for enhancing, their socio-economic well-being and voice, and as a protection against free-market individualism. It has
been argued that a group approach to farming, especially in the form of bottom up agricultural production collectivities, offers substantial
scope for poverty as well as enhancing agricultural productivity. To realize this potential, however, the groups would need to be voluntary
in nature, small in size, participative in decision making and equitable in work sharing and benefit distribution. There are many notable
examples of such collectivities to be found in varied contexts, such as in the transition economies. All of them bear witness to the pos-
sibility of successful cooperation under given conditions. And although the gender impact of the family cooperatives in the transition
economies are uncertain, the Indian examples of women-only groups farming offer considerable potential for benefiting women.
27. Agricultural collectivities such as group based farming can provide the rural poor
1. empowerment
2. increased agricultural productivity.
3. safeguard against exploitative markets.
4. surplus production of agricultural commodities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
28. What does the author imply by ‘gender impact’?
(a) Women are doubtful participants in cooperatives.
(b) Family cooperatives may not include women.
(c) Women benefiting from group farming.
(d) Women’s role in transition economies is highly restrictive
29. Consider the following assumptions:
1. It is imperative for transition economies to have agricultural collectivities.
2. Agricultural productivity can be increased by group approach to fanning.
With reference to the above passage, which of these assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage II
In a typical Western liberal context, deepening of democracy invariably leads to consolidation of ‘liberal values’. In the Indian context,
democratization is translated into greater involvement of people not as ‘individuals’ which is a staple to liberal discourse, but as com-
UPSC Tests 547
munities or groups. Individuals are getting involved in the public sphere not as ‘atomized’ individuals but as members of primordial
communities drawn on religious or caste identity. Community-identity seems to be the governing force. It is not therefore surprising that
the so-called peripheral groups continue to maintain their identities with reference to the social groups (caste, religion or sect) to which
they belong while getting involved in the political processes despite the fact that their political goals remain more or less identical. By
helping to articulate the political voice of the mariginalized, democracy in India has led to ‘a loosening of social strictures’ and empowered
the peripherals to be confident of their ability to improve the socio-economic conditions in which they are placed. This is a significant
political process that had led to a silent revolution through a meaningful transfer of power from the upper caste elites to various subaltern
groups within the democratic framework of public governance.
30. According to the passage, what does ‘deepening of democracy’ mean in the Western context?
(a) Consolidation of group and class identities.
(b) Democratization translated greater involvement of people.
(c) Democratization as greater Involvement of ‘atomized’ individuals in the public sphere
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.
31. Greater democratization in India has not necessarily led to
(a) the dilution of caste and communal identities in the public sphere.
(b) Irrelevance of community identity as a governing force in Indian politics,
(c) marginalization of elite groups in society.
(d) relative unimportance of hereditary identities over class identities.
32. What is the ‘silent revolution’ that has occurred in the Indian democratic process?
(a) Irrelevance of caste and class hierarchies in political processes.
(b) Loosening, of social strictures in voting behaviour and patterns.
(c) Social change through transfer of power from upper caste elites to subaltern groups.
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given
English Language Comprehension Skills
Passage I
For fourteen and a half months I lived in my little call or room in the Dehradun jail, and I began to feel as if I was almost a part of it.
I was familiar with every bit of it, I knew every mark and dent on the whitewashed walls and on the uneven floor and the ceiling with
its moth-eaten rafters. In the little yard outside I greeted little tufts of grass and odd bits of stone as old friends. I was not alone in my
cell, for several colonies of wasp and hornets lived there, and many lizards found a home behind the rafters, emerging in the evenings
in search of prey.
33. Which of the following explains best the sentences in the passage I was almost a part of it?
(a) I was not alone in the cell.
(b) I was familiar with every bit of the cell.
(c) I greeted little tufts of grass like old friends.
(d) I felt quite at home in the cell.
34. The passage attempts to describe
(a) the general conditions of the country’s jails.
(b) the prisoner’s capacity to notice the minute details of his surroundings.
(c) the prisoner’s conscious efforts to overcome the loneliness.
(d) the prisoner’s ability to live happily with other creatures.
35. The author of the passage seems to suggest that
(a) it is possible to adjust oneself to uncongenial surroundings
(b) the conditions in Indian prisons are not bad.
(c) it is not difficult to spend one’s time in a prison.
(d) there is a need to improve the conditions in our jails.
Passage II
We started pitching the highest camp that has ever been made. Everything took five times as long as it would have taken in a place where
there was enough air to breathe; but at last we got the terrt up, and when we crawled in, it was not too bad. There was only a light wind,
and inside it was not too cold for us to take off our gloves.At night most climbers take off their boots; but I prefer to keep them on. Hill-
ary, on the other hand, took his off and laid them next to his sleeping bag.
36. What does the expression ‘pitching the highest camp’ imply?
(a) They readied the summit of the highest mountain in the world.
(b) Those who climbed that far earlier did not pitch any camp.
548 Objective English
(c) So far nobody has ever climbed that high.
(d) They were too many climbers and needed to pitch a big camp.
37. They took a long time to finish the work because
(a) they were very tired. (b) there was not enough air to breathed
(c) it was very cold. (d) it was very dark.
38. When they crawled into the tent
(a) they took off their gloves because it was not very cold.
(b) they could not take off their gloves because it was very cold.
(c) they took off their gloves though it was very cold.
(d) they did not take off their gloves though it was not cold.
Passage III
A local man, staying on the top floor of an old wooden house, was awakened at midnight by a fire. Losing his way in a smoke- filled
passage, he missed the stairway and went into another room. He picked up a bundle to protect his face from the fire and immediately
fell through the floor below where he managed to escape through a clear doorway. The ‘bundle’ proved to be the baby of the Mayor’s
wife. The ‘hero’ was congratulated by all.
39. The man went into another room because (b) the passage was full of smoke.
(a) he did not know where exactly the stairway was. (d) he stumbled on a bundle.
(c) he was extremely nervous.
(b) managed to escape from the fire.
40. The man was called a hero because he (d) saved a life
(a) expressed his willingness to risk his life to save others.
(c) showed great courage in fighting the fire
Answers 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (b)
14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a)
1. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (c)
13. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (d)
25. (b)
37. (b)
UPSC UTTAR PRADESH
Fill in the Blanks Spellings Reading
1 1 Comprehension
8%
Idiom/Phrases 8% 3
1 25%
8%
Direct/Indirect Type of Questions No. of MCQs
Form Reading Comprehension 3
1 Synonyms 2
8% Transformation 2
Active/Passive Voice 1
Active/Passive Transformation Synonyms Direct/Indirect Form 1
Voice 2 2 Idiom/Phrases 1
1 Fill in the Blanks 1
9% 17% 17% Spellings 1
TOTAL 12
UPSC Tests 549
English Language
Directions for the following three questions (1–3) Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these ques-
tion should be based on the passage only.
Like many people I was convinced that the broad range of health benefits that physical actively offers including weight loss, lower blood
pressure and cholesterol levels and hardier immune system. So three times a week I sweated on a treadmill and exercise bicycle at my
local gym. At the end of two months, I was trimmer, more energetic, and felt fitter. It I could accomplish this by working three times a
week, I reasoned, the more exercise should bring me even greater benefits.
In the next six months I included an hour long running six times a week and initially felt an improved fitness level. However, soon
I was plagued by muscular soreness and aching knees. I felt fatigued rather than fresher after a workout. What is more? I found myself
suffering from frequent colds. Wasn’t the exercise meant to protect me from all this?
Exercise only up to a point. A prescription of exercise does not mean running to the point of lameness or swimming endless laps
until yours arms cramp. So, forget ‘no pain, no gain’. The key to maximizing the benefits of exercise is a safe and sensible programme.
Choose exercises that are safe and enjoyable and will stay with you a life time. The initial enthusiasm of high impact exercises gives
way to diminishing enjoyment.
1. To get maximum benefits of exercise one must
(a) follow a rigid fitness routine (b) do high impact exercises
(c) exercise infrequently (d) follow a guided exercise schedule
2. ‘Work out’ in this passage means
(a) A cessation of physical exercise (b) to work outdoors
(c) a session of physical exercise (d) anything that works eventually
3. One feels fatigued because of
(a) over-exercising (b) long working hours
(c) poor diet (d) lack of exercise
4. Given the correct meaning of the work ‘osmosis’
(a) Burning off of impurities (b) Movement of underground water in an oasis
(c) lowering of the freezing point (d) lowering of the freezing point
5. Transform the following sentence without a change of meaning.
‘Besides being poor he is in debt’
Choose your answer from the following:
(a) He is poor in spite of his debt (b) He is poor so he is in debt
(c) He is poor yet he is in debt (d) He is poor as well as in debt
6. Which one of the following is the correct active voice of the sentence given below?
‘Wasn’t he rebuked by his of ficer?’
(a) His officer rebuked him (b) Did his officer rebuke him?
(c) Didn’t his officer rebuke him? (d) Was not his officer rebuke him?
7. Which of the following is the correct indirect form of the sentence given below?
I said to you, ‘You can see my shop tomorrow’.
(a) I told you to see my shop tomorrow.
(b) I told you that you could see my shop next day.
(c) I said to you that you can see my shop next day.
(d) I said to you that you could see my shop tomorrow.
8. Which one of the following is the correct transformation of the sentence given below without a change of meaning?
‘None but a fool would say this’
(a) A foolish person would say this. (b) Only a fool would say this.
(c) None despite a fool would say this. (d) Neither except a fool would say this.
9. Which of the following would you associate with the word ‘gregarious’ correctly?
(a) A little tipsy (b) Egocentric
(c) Fond of company (d) Markedly rude
10. The phrase ‘Palmy days’ means
(a) Old days (b) Middle ages
(c) Bad days (d) Prosperous days
11. Fill in the blanks in the following sentence an choose your answer from the option given below the sentence:
‘John got … the examination’
(a) up (b) at
(c) down (d) through
550 Objective English
12. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(a) embarrass (b) embarrass
(c) embarrass (d) embaras
Answers 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (a)
1. (d)
PUNJAB PCS EXAMINATION
Grammatical
Logical Order Correct Analogy Fill in the Blanks
2 4 2 Order Form 2
3% 7% 3% 1
2%
4%
One Word
Substitution Type of Questions No. of MCQs
2
2 Logical Order 4
4% Grammatical Correct 2
1
Antonyms Analogy 2
2 Order form 2
4% Fill in the Blanks 2
2
Reading Test of Spellings One Word Substitution 38
Comprehension 2 Antonyms 55
4% Test of Spellings
38 Reading Comprehension
69% TOTAL
PART I
Directions for questions 1 and 2: A number of sentence are given below, which when properly sequenced, from a coherent paragraph.
Choose the most logical order of sentences form the choices given to construct a coherent paragraph.
1. I. Have you ever gone through a book that was so good you kept hugging yourself mentally as you read?
II. Now, notice the examples I have used.
III. Have you ever seen a play or motion picture that was so charming that you felt sheer delight as you watched?
IV. I have not spoken of books that grip you emotionally of plays and movies that keep you on the edge of your seat in surprise,
or of food that satisfies a ravenous hunger.
V. Or perhaps you have had a portion of pumpkin pie, light and airy and mildly flavored, and with a flaky, delicious curst, that
was the last word in gustatory enjoyment?
(a) I, V, III, IV, II (b) III, V, II, IV, I
(c) IV, II, I, III, V (d) I, III, V, II, IV
2. I. All these help hasten download and optimize the farmer’s usage of the internet within the available bandwidth.
II. ITC has learnt invaluable lessons from finding creative local solutions on the ground, to some of these apparently intractable
problems.
III. Solutions include the use of RNS kits in the telephone and using solar power as the back-up source of electricity.
IV. It has also adopted special imaging techniques.
V. It has applied the template approach to manage content.
(a) V, IV, I, II, III (b) V, IV, III, I, II
(c) II, IV, I, V, III (d) II, III, V, IV, I
UPSC Tests 551
Directions for questions 3 and 4: In each questions a sentence is written in four different ways, choose the option which gives the most
effective and grammatically correct sentence. Pay attention to grammar, word choice and sentence construction.
3. (a) It was though that freedom and prosperity would spread gradually throughout the world through an orderly process, and it
was hoped that tyranny and injustice would continually diminish.
(b) It was gradually thought that throughout the world, freedom and prosperity would spread through an orderly process, and it
was hoped that tyranny and injustice would continually diminish.
(c) Through an orderly process, was thought that freedom and prosperity would spread injustice would continually diminish.
(d) It was thought, through an orderly process that freedom and prosperity would spread gradually throughout the world and it
was hoped that tyranny and injustice would continually diminish.
4. (a) He must again learn to invoke the energy of growing things and to recognize that one can be taking from the earth and the
atmosphere only so much as one puts back into them, as did the ancient in India centuries ago.
(b) As did the ancient in India centuries ago, he must again learn to invoke the energy of growing things and to recognize that
one can take from the earth and the atmosphere, only so much as they put into them.
(c) He must again learn to invoke the energy of growing things and to recognize, as did the ancient in India centuries ago, that
one can take from the earth and the atmosphere, only so much as one puts back into them.
(d) He must again learn, as did the ancient in India centuries ago, to invoke the energy of growing things and to recognize, that
one can be taking from the earth and the atmosphere only so much as one puts back into them.
Directions of questions 5 and 6: From the choice provided identify the pair of words with a relationship similar to that of the given word pair.
5. INDEFATIGABLE : INVETERATE (b) Tired : Habitual
(a) Tireless : Tired (d) Impoverished : habitual
(c) Tireless : Habitual
(b) Misogynist : Women
6. MISANTHROPE : HUMANITY (d) Witch : Magic
(a) Chauvinist : Patriot
(c) Agnostic : God
Directions for questions 7 and 8: Choose the option which gives the correct meaning the same order as the words.
7. 1. Arrogate i. Clinch or seize without right
2. Arraign ii. Embarrassment due to disappointment
3. Chagrin iii. To enroll for compulsory service
4. Conscript iv. to swing back and forth
5. Vacillate v. To bring before court of law
(a) 1.-v, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii, 5-ii (b) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii, 5-v
(c) 1-iv, 2-v, 3-i, 4-ii, 5-iii (d) 1-ii, 2-v, 3-i, 4-iii, 5-iv
Directions for questions 8 and 9: Each questions has five sentence. Identify the sentence which is grammatically correct.
8. (a) Each of the six boys in the class has finished their task.
(b) One must finish his task in time
(c) Either Ram or Shyam will give their book
(d) Each of the girls must carry her own bag.
9. (a) The reason why he missed his classes was that he overslept.
(b) Before the rain would stop, they would have reached home.
(c) When you will come to see me, we go to Mumbai.
(d) I have written both to their branch office and head office.
Directions for questions 10 and 11: Choose the most appropriate option in the blanks. The sequence of words in the correct option should
sequence of the sentence in which they should be used.
10. i. There is so much love …… the two of them.
ii. I have not seen Aditi …… Friday.
iii. I started my exam preparations …… Jaunary.
iv. The three sister did not look for new friends as they were playing …… Themesleves.
v. I have not seen Mohan …… six months.
(a) between, from, since, among, for (b) among, from, for, between, since
(c) among, since, for, between, from (d) between, since from among, for
11. i. He succeeded …… Perseverance and sheer hard work
ii. …… the power vested in me, I hereby declare the deal sealed.
iii. …… his illness he could not finish his work in time
iv. …… need, please contact me at the emergency number indicated
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(a) by virtue of, by dint of in case of , in consequence of
(b) by dint of, by virtue of, in consequence of, in case of
(c) by virtue of, in consequence of, by dint of, in case of
(d) by dint of, in consequence of, by virtue of, in case of
12. Which of the following is a metaphor?
(a) he fought like a lion (b) She is as cool as a cucumber
(c) Man proposes, God disposes (d) He was a lion in the fight
13. Which of the following is an oxymoron?
(a) She accepted it, as the kind cruelty of a surgeon’s knife
(b) The camel is the ship of the desert
(c) Art lies in concealing art
(d) Death lays his icy hands on Kings.
Directions for questions 14 and 15: Pick the correct antonym for the word given
14. PUERILE (b) Servile
(a) Adult (d) Ambiguous
(c) Peaceful
(b) Useful
15. PROSAIC (d) Mundane
(a) Predisposed
(c) Interesting
Directions for question 16 and 17: Pick the word with the correct spelling
16. (a) Perilous (b) Precarious
(c) Hazardous (d) Copious
(b) Appreciate
17. (a) Propitiate (d) Conciliate
(c) Appease
PART II
Directions for questions 18–33: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions at the end of each passage.
Passage I
Asked what a business is, the typical businessman is likely to answer, ‘An organization to make a profit.’ The typical economist is likely
to give the same answer. This answer is not only false, it is irrelevant.
The prevailing economic theory of the mission of business enterprise and behavior, the maximization of profit—which is
simply a complicated way of Phrasing the old saw of buying cheap and selling dear-may adequately explain how Richard
Sears operated. But it cannot explain how Sears, Roebuck or any other business enterprise operates, or how it should operate. The
concept of profit maximization is, in fact, meaningless. The danger in the concept of profit maximization is that it makes profitability
appear a myth.
Profit and profitability are, however, crucial—for society even more than for the individual business. Yet profitability is not the
purpose of, but a limiting factor on business enterprise and business activity. Profit is not the explanations, cause, or rationale of business
behavior and business decisions, but rather the test of their validity. If archangels instead of businessmen sat in directors’ chairs, they
would still have to be concerned with profitability, despite their total lack of personal interest in making profits.
The root of the confusion is the mistaken belief that the motive of a person—the so called profit motive of the business man—is an
explanation of his behavior or his guide to right action. Whether there is such a things as a profit motive at all is highly doubtful. The idea
was invested by the classical economists to explain the economic reality that their theory of static equilibrium could not explain. There
has never been any evidence for the existence of the profit motive, and we have long since found the true explanation of the phenomena
of economic change and growth which the profit motive was first put forth to explain.
It is irrelevant for an understanding of business behavior, profit, and profitability, whether there is a profit motive or not. That Jim
Smith is in business to make a profit concerns only him and the Recording Angel. It does not tell us what Jim Smith does and how he
performs. We do not learn anything about the work of a prospector hunting for uranium in the Nevada desert by being told that he is trying
to make his fortune. We do not learn anything about the work of a heart specialist by being told that he is trying to make a livelihood, or
even that he is trying to benefit humanity. The profit motive and its offspring maximization of profits are just as irrelevant to the function
of a business, the purpose of business, and the job of managing a business.
In fact, the concept is worse than irrelevant: it does harm. It is a major cause of the misunderstanding of the nature of profit in our
society and of the deep-seated hostility to profit, which are among the most dangerous diseases of an industrial society. It is largely
UPSC Tests 553
responsible for the worst mistakes of public policy—in this country as well as in Western Europe—which are squarely based on the
failure to understand the nature, function, and purpose of business enterprise. And it is in large part responsible for the prevailing belief
that there is an inherent contradiction between profit and a company’s ability to make a social contribution. Actually, a company can
make a social contribution only if it is highly profitable.
To know what a business is, we have to start with its purpose. Its purpose must lie outside of the business itself. In fact, it must lie
in society since business enterprise is an organ of society. There is only one valid definition of business purpose: to create a customer.
Markets are not created by God, nature, or economic forces but by businesspeople. The want a business satisfies may have been felt
by the customer before he or she was offered the means of satisfying it. Like food in a famine, it may have dominated the customer’s life
and filled all his waking moments, but it remained a potential want until the action of business people converted it into effective demand.
Only then is there a customer and a market. The want may have been unfelt by the potential customer; no one knew that he wanted a
Xerox machine or a computer until these became available. There may have been no want at all until business action created it—by
innovation, by credit, by advertising, or by salesmanship. In every case, it is business action that creates the customer.
18. The author of this passage is of the that profits and profitability are:
(a) The purpose of setting up a business.
(b) The sole goal and responsibility of a businessman
(c) The test of validity of business existence
(d) The guiding factor for a businessman’s actions and decisions
19. This passage highlights that the theory of profit maximization and profit motive.
(a) Is largely responsible for the worst mistakes in public policy
(b) Is a synchronized goal with a company’s ability to make a social contribution.
(c) Is the main purpose and job of managing a business
(d) Was an idea not invented by classical economists.
20. As stated in this passage, the purpose of a business is to
(a) Make Profits (b) Increase Wants
(c) Create customers (d) Mange Demand
21. Acceding to the author of this passage, what comes first?
(a) want (b) Market
(c) Demand (d) Customer
Passage II
The first thing I learned at school was that some people are idiots: the second thing I learned was that some are even worse. I was still
too young to grasp that people of breeding were meant to affect innocence of this fundamental distinction, and that the same courtesy
applied to any disparity that might rise out of religious, racial, sexual class, financial and (latterly) cultural difference. So in my innocence
I would raise my hand every time the teacher asked a question, just to make it clear I knew the answer.
After some months of this, the teacher and my classmates must have been vaguely aware I was a good student, but still I felt the
compulsion to raise my hand. By now the teacher seldom called on me, preferring to give other children a chance to speak, too. Still my
hand shop up without my even willing it, whether or not I knew the answer. If I was putting on airs, like someone who even in ordinary
clothes, adds a gaudy piece of jewellery, it’s also true that I admired my teacher and was desperate to cooperate.
Another thing I was happy to discover at school was the teacher’s ‘authority’. At home, in the crowded and disordered Pamuk
Apartments things were never so clear; at our crowded table, everyone talked at the same time. Our domestic routines, our love for one
another, our conversations, meals and radio hours; these were never debated—they just happened. My father held little obvious authority
at home, and he was often absent. He never scolded my brother or me, never even raised his eyebrows in disapproval. In later years, he
would introduce us to his friends as ‘my two younger brothers’, and we felt he had earned the right to say so. My mother was the only
authority I recognized at home. But she was hardly a distant or alien tyrant: her power came from my desire to be loved by her. And so
I was fascinated by the power my teacher wielded over her twenty-five pupils.
Perhaps I identified my teacher with my mother, for I had an insatiable desire for her approval. ‘Join your arms together like this
and sit down quietly,’ she would say, and I would press my arms together like this and sit down quietly,’ she would say, and I would press
my arms against my chest and sit patiently all through the lesson. But gradually the novelty wore off; soon it was no longer exciting
to have every answer or solve an arithmetic problem ahead of everyone else or earn the highest mark; time began to flow with painful
slowness, or stop flowing altogether.
Turning away from the fat, half-witted girl who was writing on the blackboard, who gave everyone—teachers, school caretakers
and her classmates—the same vapid, trusting smile, my eyes would float to the window, to the upper branches of the chestnut tree that I
could just see rising up between the apartment buildings. A crow would land on a branch. Because I was viewing it from below, I could
see the little cloud floating behind it—as it moved, it kept changing shape: first a fox’s nose, then a head, then a dog. I didn’t want it to
554 Objective English
stop looking like a dog, but as it continued its journey it changed into one of the four-legged silver sugar bowls from my grandmother’s
always—locked display case, and I’d long to be at home. Once I’d conjured up the reassuring silence of the shadows of home, my father
would steps out from them, as if from a dream, and off we’d go on a family outing to the Bosporus. Just then, a window in the apartment
building opposite would open, maid would shake her duster and gaze absentmindedly at the street that I could not see from where I was
sitting. What was going down there? I’d wonder. I’d hear a horse cart rolling over the cobblestones, and a rasping voice would cry out
‘Eskiciiiiii!’. The maid would watch the junk dealer make his way down the street before pulling her head back inside and shutting the
window behind her, but then, right next to that window, moving as fast as the first cloud but going in the opposite direction, I’d see a
second cloud. But now my attention was called back to the classroom, and seeing all the other raised hands, I would eagerly raise my hand
too: long before I worked out from my classmates’ responses what the teacher had asked us, I was foggily confident I had the answer.
It was exciting, though sometimes painful, to get to know my classmates as individuals, and to find out how different they were from
me. There was that sad boy who, whenever he was asked to read out loud in Turkish class, would skip every other line: the poor boy’s
mistake was as involuntary as the laughter it would elicit from the class. In first grade, there was a girl who kept her red hair in a ponytail,
who sat next to me for a time. Although her bag was slovenly jumble of half-eaten apples, simits, sesame seeds, pencils and hair bands,
it always smelled of dried lavender around her, and that attracted me; I was also drawn to her gift for speaking so openly about the little
taboos of daily life, and if didn’t see her at the weekend, I missed her, though there was another girl so tiny and delicate that I was utterly
entranced by her as well. Why did that boy keep on telling lies even knowing no one was going to believe him? How could that girl be
so indiscreet about the goings on in her house? And could this other girls be shedding real tears as she read that poem about Ataturk?
Just as I was in the habit of looking at the fronts of cars and seeing noses, so too did I like to scrutinize my classmates, looking for
the creatures they resembled. The boy with the pointed nose was a fox and the big one next to him was, as everyone said, a bear, and the
one with the thick hair was a hedgehog…. I remember a Jewish girl called Mari telling us all about Passover—these were days when no
one in her grandmother’s house was allowed to touch the light switches. Another girls reported that one evening, when she was in her
room, she turned around so fast she glimpsed the shadow of an angel—a fearsome story that stayed with me. There was a girl with very
long legs who wore very long socks and always looked as if she was about to cry; her father was a government minister and when he died
in a plane crash from which Prime Minister Menderes emerged without a scratch, I was sure she’d been crying because she had known
in advance what was going to happen. Lots of children had problems with their tech; a few wore braces. On the top floor of the building
that housed the lycee dormitory and the sports hall, just next to the infirmary, there was rumored to be a dentist, and when teachers got
angry they would often threaten to send naughty children there. For lesser infractions pupils were made to stand in the corner between
the blackboard and the door with their backs to the class, sometimes one leg, but because we were all so curious to see how long someone
could stand on one leg, the lesions suffered, so this particular punishment was rare.
22. The synonym for the term ‘vapid’ is
(a) Lively (b) Original
(c) Lackluster (d) Spicy
23. Who is the least talked about character in this passage?
(a) Mother (b) Classmates
(c) Grandmother (d) Teacher
24. Which among the following cannot be concluded from this passage?
(a) The author was a good student but sometimes felt bored in class
(b) The author got along fairly well with his classmates
(c) The author came from a very authoritarian home environment
(d) The author had an imaginative mind
25. What did teachers do when they got angry?
(a) Sent the students to the infirmary
(b) Denied them a chance to answer questions
(c) Made them join their hands together and sit quietly
(d) Threatened to send them to the dentist
Passage III
Not many people saw it coming. It had seemed that the time for Kaun Banega Crorepati had come and gone. This column argued as much
a few years ago, when Shah Rukh Khan took over the reigns of the show. He did well enough, but it still seemed that the time for the
genteel game of knowledge had passed. There was too much blood in reality television, and KBC simply did not have enough platelets
for it. it had no backbiting intrigue. It lacked a cast of almost-losers and missed the low-life loquaciousness of other reality shows and
nothing ever needed to be beeped out on it, a sure touch that it was out of touch with the times.
And yet, not only is KBC back, but it is back in a very real sense not just as a TV show that gets good ratings, but as an idea that
connects with something deep and real in our lives. What makes this particularly interesting is that not very much had changed in the
show. Its focus has shifted to smaller towns and an ‘aadmi’ more ‘aam’ and the prize money has gone up over the years, but these are
minor adjustments, not major departures. The format is pretty much the same and the return of Amitabh Bachchan restores to the show
UPSC Tests 555
both the gravitas and the empathy that has been its hallmark.
Perhaps KBC works because it reconciles many competing ideas for us. For a show that bestows undreamt of wealth on people
who win, and does so with reasonable regularity, KBC manages somehow to rise above the money it throws around. By looting money
squarely in the context of small dreams, family and community, KBC shows us a face of money that is ennobling. The money of KBC
is treated not as a jackput but as a ‘vardaan’, a gift from divinity life, the images that surround the winners are not big cars fancy brands
but houses made ‘pukka’ and IAS dreams pursued. The winners have been remarkable ambassadors for the show, focusing not what the
money buys them but what it enables them to work at in the future. Money speaks in the language of responsibility, not indulgence and
steeps a larger collective in its pleasing warmth.
The format of the show ensures that we see people as they are, rather than the usual sight of raw innocents losing their transparent
naivete in a haze of hair dye and exfoliation. On other reality shows, fame and money are insistent in transforming those that they favour
and what they tell us is that success must put distance between destination and sources. Between who we are and what we must become.
On KBC, it is the innocence that is spoken to and as an audience it is this quality we respond to. When a Sushil Kumar describes his life
and attributes his success to his wife, who in turn is quick to shyly shrug off the credit, we see, for once, something that smacks of the
real on a reality show.
As the reality show evolved, it found reality too boring and vapid. It was so much for fun to manufacture it by making people act
in unpleasant ways, and say unsavory things to each other. Now no reality show can really bring us reality; any act of representation and
framing creates its own version of reality in many different way—by aesthetic zing it, emotionalizing moments, dramatizing revelations,
withholding information selectively, or by imbuing some moments with significance, while ignoring others and even KBC uses these
techniques. The difference is that it uses these to drive us towards the central premise of the show rather than see those as individual
‘masala’ elements. In a world where television is racked by anxiety about itself, and where every new season is an exercise in renewed
desperation, KBC stands apart by continuing to tell a human story about dreams and their fulfillment and doing so without trying too hard.
There is no question that KBC rests on the persona of Amitabh Bachchan for he reconciles for us the ideas of fame and humility, of
achievement and empathy in the way he treats the participants. He has a special ability to look into the ordinary and inf something special
and the humility to be awed by it. He is simultaneously. The Amitabh Bachchan, the sympathizer and co-traveller on the journey called
life. As a carrier of life-altering destiny, he underplays his role to perfection, acknowledging the enormity of what wining means for the
participant while revealing the wisdom that knows that it is only money. Under his steerage money is no longer cold with acquisitive
urgency but warm with Unfolding possibility.
KBC shows us, close-up and in slow motion, the act of a miracle colliding with a dream. In doing so, it tells us that money can
change things for the better, when it finds the right home, by applying good fortune to good intention, it keeps the miracle alive, well
after the moment of impact. As the winners no doubt find out, one can never have enough money, and that relative scale makes everyone
a relative pauper. In the final analysis, Kaun Banega Crorepati reveals both the nobility and the eventual poverty of money, no matter if
it comes in eight figures.
26. According to the autho’s opinion a few years before writing this artcle, which of the following appeared to be in store for KBC?
(i) The show’s time was over
(ii) The show was too refined to compete with other reality shows
(iii) Shah Rukh Khan as the show host would take it to new heights
(iv)The show’s viciousness was leading it to ends
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
27. Unlike most reality shows, KBC has gained viewership on television by
(a) Using glamorous participants on the show
(b) Getting participants to say unpleasant things about the truth of life
(c) Making major adjustments to its format time and again
(d) Connecting with the depth and reality of lives of peoples
28. According to the author, KBC presents the prize money as
(a) a means for indulgence (b) a jackpot
(c) a reward for relentless work (d) a reason for changing the real person
29. In what context does the author use the phrase ‘a relative pauper’?
(a) No one can ever have enough money
(b) Money can change who we are
(c) Money is cold and has materialistic importance
(d) Money is can change things for better only if it finds the right home
Passage IV
Babur’s head was throbbing with the persistent ache that dogged him during the monsoon. The warm rain had been falling for three days
now but the still, heavy air held no promise of relief. The rains would go on for weeks, even months, lying back against silken bolsters in
556 Objective English
his bedchamber in the Agra fort, he tired to imagine the chill, thin rains of Ferghana blowing in over the jagged summit of Mount Beshtor
and failed. The punkah above his head hardly disturbed the air. It was hard even to remember what it was like not to feel hot. There was
little pleasure just now even in visiting his garden—the sodden flowers, soggy ground and overflowing water channels only depressed him.
Babur got up and tried to concentrate on writing an entry in his diary but the words wouldn’t come and he pushed his jewel-studded
inkwell impatiently aside. Maybe he would go to the women’s apartments. He would ask Maham to sing. Sometimes she accompanied
herself on the round—bellied slender-necked lute that had once belonged to Esan Dawlat. Maham lacked her grandmother’s gift but the
lute still made a sweet sound in her hands.
Or he might play a game of chess with Humayun. His son had a shrewd, subtle mind—but so, he prided himself did he and he could
usually beat him. It amused him to see Humayun’s startled look as he claimed victory with the traditional cry shah mat—‘Check-mate’,
‘the king is at a loss’. Later they would discuss Babur’s plans to launch a campaign when the rains eased against the rulers of Bengal. In
their steamy jungles in the Ganges delta, they thought they could defy Moghul authority and deny Babur’s over lordship.
‘Send for my son Humayun and fetch my chessmen,’ Babur ordered a servant. Trying to shake off his lethargy he got up and went
to a casement projecting over the riverbank to watch the swllen, muddy waters of the Jumna rushing by. A farmer was leading his bony
bullocks along the oozing bank.
Hearing footsteps Babur turned, expecting to see his son, but it was only the white-tunicked servant.
‘Majesty, your son begs your forgiveness but he is unwell and cannot leave his chamber.’
What is the matter with him?’
‘I do not know, Majesty.’
Humayun was never ill. Perhaps he, too, was suffering from the torpor that came with the monsoon, sapping the energy and spirit
of even the most vigorous.
‘I will go to him.’ Babur wrapped a yellow silk robe around himself and thrust his feet into pointed kidskin slippers. Then he hurried
from his apartments to Humayun’s on the opposite side of a galleried courted, where water was not shooting as it should, in sparkling
arcs from the lotus-shaped marble basins of the fountains but pouring over the inundated rims.
Humayun was lying on his bed, arms thrown back, eyes closed forehead beaded with sweat, shivering. When he heard his father’s
voice he opened his eyes but they were bloodshot, the pupils dilated. Babur could hear heavy wheezing breathing. Every intake of air
seemed an effort which hurt him.
‘When did this illness begin?’
‘Early this morning, Father.’
‘Why wasn’t I told?’ Babur looked angrily at his son’s attendants. ‘Send for my hakim immediately!’ Then he dipped his own silk
handkerchief into some water and wiped Humayun’s brow. The sweat returned at once—in fact, it was almost running down his face and
he seemed to be shivering even more violently now and his teeth had begun to chatter.
‘Majesty, the hakin is here.’
Abdul Malik went immediately to Humayun’s bedside, laid a hand on his forehead, pulled back his eyelids and felt his
pulse. Then, with increasing concern, he pulled open Humayun’s robe and, bending, turned his neatly turbaned head to listen to
Humayun’s heart.
‘What is wrong with him?’
Abdul Malik paused. ‘It is hard to say, Majesty. I need to examine him further.’
‘Whatever you require you only have to say…’
‘I will send for my assistants. If I may be frank, it would be best if you were to leave the chamber, Majesty. I will report to you when
I have examined the prince thoroughly—but it looks serious, perhaps even grave. His pulse and heartbeat are weak and rapid.’ Without
waiting for Babur’s reply, Abdul Malik turned back to his patient. Babur hesitated and, after a glance at his son’s waxen trembling face,
left the room. As attendants closed the doors behind him he found that he, too was trembling.
A chill closed round his heart. So many times he had feared for Humayun. At Panipat he could have fallen beneath the feet of one
of Sultan Ibrahim’s war elephants. At Khanua he might have been felled by the slash of a Rajpur sword. But he had never thought that
Humayun—so healthy and strong—might succumb to sickness. How could be face life without his beloved eldest son? Hindustan and
all its riches would be worthless if Humayun died. He would never have come to this sweltering, festering land with its endless hot rains
and whining, bloodsucking mosquitoes if he had known this would be the price.
30. Babur was feeling depressed because…
(a) the rulers of Bengal were defying Moghul authority
(b) he could not usually beat Humayun at chess
(c) he did not like the warm rains and the heaviness of monsoon air
(d) Maham could not play the lute as well as her grandmother.
31. Which among the following things did Babur not consider doing to relieve himself of depression?
(a) go to the women’s apartments (b) Visit his garden
(c) Play a game of chess with Humayun (d) Listen to Maham sing
UPSC Tests 557
32. What was it Babur Currently feared for Humayun?
(a) Humayun could fall beneath the feet of war elephants.
(b) Humayun could be felled by the slash of a sword
(c) Humayun may be treated properly by the Hakim
(d) Humayun might succumb to sickness
33. According to this passage, which of the following has not been used to describe Humayun?
(a) shrewd and subtle minded (b) Healthy and strong bodied
(c) Neatly turbaned head (d) Father’s beloved
Read the passage and answer the questions 34 to 40 given below.
Have you ever noticed strange bumps on stems, leaves, flowers, or tree branches? Well, they are part of the plant and grown by the plant,
but they are homes for tiny insects! These bumps are called galls. Insects form gall. The plant does not decide to grow them. Typically, a
female insect lay her eggs on a plant. After baby insects hatch special chemical are left on the plants. These special chemicals cause the
plant to bubble up and form a gall. Once a gall has grown, the insects have a safe place to live and eat, or do they?
Other animals, besides insects benefit from gall. Galls are also great places for birds and small animals to find a meal. Woodpeckers,
squirrels, mice and bats all use galls as a source for a tasty insect snack. If a gall has a large hole poked into it, a larger creature may
have stopped for a bite.
Now that you know what a gall is, you will probably begin to notice them everywhere. Look around. You may even decide to break
open a gall and take a peek inside. If the gall has a little hole, the owner has probably left. Can you believe it? a little house for an insect
made by a plant.
34. Based on information given in the passage, it can be understood that an unhatched insect egg laid on a plant would most likely
cause:
(a) the plant to die (b) no gall to form
(c) a large gall (d) a bird to eat the egg
35. Which statement from the passage best describes how galls are formed?
(a) ‘Once a gall has grown, the insects have a safe place to live and eat, or do they?’
(b) ‘These bumps are called galls’
(c) ‘These special chemicals cause the plant to bubble up and form a gall.’
(d) ‘Typically, a female insect lays her eggs on a plant.’
36. In the passage the author asks the question ‘or do they?’ The author does this to:
(a) explain why insects may not be safe inside their galls.
(b) ask the reader if the insects are safe inside their galls.
(c) admits that he or she does not really know the answer.
(d) encourage us to keep reading to discover the answer.
37. Benefit belongs to which of the following word groups?
(a) love, adore, like (b) hurt, offend, upset
(c) teach, instruct, direct (d) gain, advantage, profit
38. If a gall has a large hole in it, this means that:
(a) a larger creature may have stopped for a bite.
(b) the owner has probably left.
(c) special chemicals are left on the plant.
(d) they are homes for tiny insects.
39. This passage is mostly meant to:
(a) entertain (b) inform
(c) persuade (d) describe
40. The information presented in the passage most likely resulted from the work of which of the following types of scientist?
(a) a zoologist (b) an ecologist
(c) an entomologist (d) a chemist
Read the passage and answer the questions 41 to 45 given below.
In his thought-provoking work, Philosophical Investigations, Ludwig Wittgenstein uses an easily conceptualized scenario in an attempt
to clarify some of the problems involved in thinking about the mind as something over and above the behaviors that it produces. Imagine,
he says, that everyone has a small box in which they keep a beetle. No one is allowed to look in anyone else’s box, only in their own.
Over time, People talk about what is in their boxes and the word ‘beetle’ comes to stand for what is in everyone’s box.
Through this curious example, Wittgenstein attempts to point out that the beetle is very much like an individuals mind; no one can
know exactly what it is like to be another person or experience things from another’s perspective—look in someone else’s ‘box’—but
is generally assumed that the mental workings of other people’s mind are very similar to that of our own (everyone has a ‘beetle’ which
558 Objective English
is more or less similar to everyone else’s) However, it does not really matter- he argues—what is in the box or whether everyone indeed
has a beetle, since there is no way of checking or comparing. In a sense, the word ‘beetle’—if it is to have any sense or meaning—simply
means ‘what is in the box’. From this point of view, the mind is simply ‘what is in the box’, or rather ‘what is in your head.’
Wittgenstein argues that although we cannot know what it is like to be someone else to say that there must be special mental entity called
a mind that makes our experiences private, is wrong. His rationale is that he considers language to have meaning because of public usage.
In other words, when we talk of having a mind—or a beetle—we are using a term that we have learned through conversation and public
discourse (rooted in natural language). The word might be perceived differently in each of our minds, but we all agree that it signifies some-
thing; this allows us to develop language for talking about conceptualizations like colour, mood, size and shape. Therefore, the word ‘mind’
cannot be used to refer specifically to some entity outside of our individualized conception, since we cannot see into other people’s boxes.
41. Based on information in the passage, Wittgenstein apparently believes that
I. It is best to think of mental states as nothing over and above the behaviours they produce.
II. the public use of language is responsible for misconceptions about the mind.
III. through the use of precise language, it is possible to accurately describe the shared properties of the mind
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) I and II only (d) II and III only
42. Which of the following literacy devices best describes Wittgenstein’s use of the ‘beetle in a box’ scenario?
(a) Authorial intrusion, characterized by a point at which the author speaks out directly to the reader.
(b) Aphorism, characterized by the use of concise statement that is made in a matter of fact tone to state a principle or an opinion
that is generally understood to be a universal truth.
(c) Amplification, characterized by the embellishment or extension of a statement in order to give it greater worth or meaning.
(d) Allegory, characterized by the use of symbolic representation to convey the meaning of an often abstract concept.
43. Wittgenstein would most likely disagree with which of the following statements?
(a) it is impossible to know another person’s thoughts.
(b) The mind is a special mental substance.
(c) The colour green may actually look different to everybody.
(d) Words do not always accurately represents the things they symbolize.
44. Which is the best synonym of discourse?
(a) exchange (b) conversation
(c) announcement (d) knowledge
45. Based on his use of the ‘beetle in a box’ comparison in the passage, it can be inferred that Wittgenstein might similarly compare
a room full of people to a
(a) deck of cards (b) box of chocolates
(c) collection of rocks (d) library of books
Read the passage and answer the questions 46 to 47 given below.
When it comes to work boots, durability is paramount. The hard workers at Rival know that ; we pride ourselves on creating boots that
last a lifetime. That’s why we’re making the following offer to all new customers; buy any new pair of Rival boots and get yourself a
second pair at half price. Because that’s the Rival way.
46. As used in the passage, which is the best antonyms for paramount?
(a) inferior (b) boring (c) pathetic (d) trivial
47. What logical weakness is present in the offer as stated in the passage?
(a) It is irresponsible to make an offer that logically can not be upheld.
(b) It is contradictory to maintain that Rival boots last a lifetime while simultaneously offering a second pair.
(c) It is financially unsound to offer a product a half price simply as an incentive to buy another pair.
(d) it is wrong to assume that a construction worker would only be able to afford a single pair of boots in his or her entire life.
Read the passage and answer the questions 48 to 56 given below.
A new discovery has prompted astronomers to rethink one of their most basic assumptions regarding the types of solar systems that can
support life. Previously, astronomers believed that any solar system containing more than one sun would produce an orbit too volatile to
support an Earth-like planet. However, recent image from the Kepler spacecraft have uncovered evidence of a two-star system—what
astronomers call a binary system- with a stable orbit containing at least one planetary body.
48. The target audience for this passage would most likely include a(n)
(a) scientist who wants to evaluate a peer’s recent research
(b) dentist who has a general interest in science and astronomy
(c) third grade student who is learning the basics of astronomy
(d) government official who is assessing the success of the Kepler project
UPSC Tests 559
49. As used in the passage, it can be inferred that volatile belong to which of the following word groups?
(a) dangerous, hazardous, troubling
(b) explosive, charged, detonative
(c) irregular, abnormal, weird
(d) unstable, unpredictable, uneven
50. Based on information presented in the passage, it can be concluded that
(a) solar systems must mirror our own in order to support life
(b) life likely exists outside our own solar system
(c) binary solar systems may harbour life
(d) the Kelper space program has been largely successful
51. Spot correctly spelt word:
(a) Greatful (b) Grateful (c) Greatfull (d) Gratefull
52. Spot the correctly spelt word:
(a) Withdrawl (b) Withdrawl (c) Withdrawl (d) Withdrewl
53. Spot the odd word:
(a) Sift (b) Select (c) Choose (d) Mix
54. Spot the odd word:
(a) Autumn (b) Summer (c) Winter (d) Rain
55. Most suitable opposite word of ‘Petite’ is
(a) Small (b) Ugly (c) Tall (d) Dainty
56. Which word is not a synonym of ‘Thrust’?
(a) Strike (b) Force (c) Aloft (d) Hit
Answers 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (d)
14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c)
1. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (d)
13. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (b)
25. (d) 50. (c) 51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c)
37. (d)
49. (d)
COMBINED DEFENCE SERVICES EXAMINATION (CDS)
Synonyms Reading
22 Comprehension
18%
20
Jumbled Words 17%
25
21% Jumbled
Sentences
8
6%
Error Identification Antonyms Type of Questions No. of MCQs
25 20 Reading Comprehension 20
21% 17% Jumbled Sentences 8
Antonyms 20
Error Identification 25
Jumbled Words 25
Synonyms 22
TOTAL 120
560 Objective English
Comprehension
Directions (For the 20 items which follow) In this Section you have four short passages. After each passage, you will find some questions
based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the
contents of the passage and opinions of the author only.
Passage I
Literature and history are twin sisters, inseparable. In the days of our own grandfathers, and for many generations before them, the basis
of education was the Greek and Roman classics for the educated, and the Bible for all. In the classical authors and in the Bible, history
and literature were closely intervolved, and it is that circumstance which made the old form of education so stimulating to the thought
and imagination of our ancestors. To read the classical authors and to read the Bible was to read at once the history and the literature of
the three greatest races of the ancient world. No doubt the classics and the Bible were read in a manner we now consider uncritical but
they were read according to the best tenets of the time and formed a great humanistic education. Today the study both of the classics and
of the Bible has dwindled to small proportions. What has taken their place? To some extent the vacuum has been filled by a more correct
knowledge of history and a wider range of literature. But I fear that the greater part of it has been filled up with rubbish.
1. Which of the following statements best reflects the underlying tone of the passage?
(a) Literature and history are mutually exclusive
(b) Literature and history are complementary to each other
(c) The study of literature is meaningless without any knowledge of history
(d) Literature and history are inseparably linked together in the classics and the Bible
2. The author of the above passage says that in the past the basis of education for all people, irrespective of their intellectual calibre, was
(a) Greek and Roman classics (b) The Bible
(c) A correct knowledge of history (d) A wider range of literature
3. The author of the above passage says that the classics and the Bible were read by his ancestors
(a) methodically and with discretion
(b) in a manner that broadened their view of life
(c) with great emphasis on their literary values
(d) without critical discrimination but in the light of their humanistic culture
4. According to the author of the above passage, the old form of education, based on the study of the classics and of the Bible, has
(a) succeeded in creating interest in history (b) laid the basis of human civilization
(c) had a gradual decline in our time (d) been rejuvenated in the context of modern education
5. The author of the above passage fears that the greater part of the vacuum created by lack of interest in the classics and the Bible
has been filled up by
(a) a richer sense of history (b) a wider range of literature
(c) worthless ideas (d) a new philosophy of life
Passage II
During his early days as editor of the popular magazine, Saturday Evening Post, George Lorimer did much of the reading of unsolicited
stories. This meant endless hours of sitting at the desk, pouring over big stacks of manuscripts, trying to decide which were worthy of
publication and which were not. Lorimer became an expert at making these decisions.
One day he received a huffy letter from a would-be writer who had a complaint. ‘Last week you rejected my story,’ she wrote. ‘I am
positive you did not read it, because, as a test, I pasted together pages 14, 15, 16. The manuscript came back with the pages still pasted.
There is no question in my mind but that you are a sham and a disgrace to your profession.’
Lorimer’s reply was succinet: ‘Madam, at breakfast when I crack open an egg, I don’t have to eat the whole egg to know it
is bad.’
6. Lorimer did much reading of the stories
(a) if they were the solicited ones (b) when they appeared to be bad
(c) when they were from women writers (d) when they came unsolicited
7. Lorimer was a good editor because
(a) his reply to the angry writer was polite
(b) he apologized for rejecting the story without reading it
(c) he could find the worth of a story with a little effort
(d) he was prompt in writing letters
8. The lady wrote a huffy letter because
(a) her story was rejected (b) her story was rejected unread
(c) her story was rejected although it was good (d) Lorimer was biased in his decision
UPSC Tests 561
9. Lorimer’s replay was (b) rude
(a) irrelevant (d) funny
(c) witty
(b) in order to publish them
10. Lorimer read the stories (d) in order to review them
(a) because he enjoyed reading them
(c) only to find fault with them
Passage III
As the tortoise tucks its feet and head inside the shell and will not come out even though you may break the shell into pieces, even so the
character of the man who has control over his motives and organs, is unchangeably established. He controls his own inner forces, and
nothing can draw them out against his will. By this continuous reflex of good thoughts and good impressions moving over the surface of
the mind, the tendency to do good becomes strong, and in consequence, we are able to control the Indriyas or sense organs.
11. The author uses the phrase ‘inner forces’ in the passage. Which of the following would be its most correct meaning in the
context?
(a) Emotional disturbances in man (b) Strength of the internal organs
(c) Forces produced by sense organs (d) Reflection of the intellect
12. Which of the following statements would illustrate the metaphor in the passage?
(a) Man is slow-moving and slow-witted
(b) A man of character refuses to be influenced by outside compulsions against his will
(c) Man confines himself to a life of isolation
(d) Man cannot have a good character or strong will
13. Which of the following statements may be assumed to reflect the central theme of the passage?
(a) Good thoughts lead to the control of the sense organs
(b) Control of the sense organs leads to good thoughts
(c) Character, though established, may be disturbed by outside forces
(d) No man can achieve success in destroying the inner forces
14. Which of the following statements would be most correct in explaining the metaphorical meaning of ‘break the shell into
pieces’?
(a) Destruction of the human body (b) Breaking of the physical environment of man
(c) Attempt to destroy man’s character (d) Inflicting physical and mental agony on man
15. The passage consists of two long sentences and a short one. The purpose of this style could be to suggest that
(a) it is impossible for man to attain perfection of character
(b) the attainment of perfect character is the result of a long process of mental discipline
(c) the whole life process is clumsy
(d) there is a lot of confusion in our understanding of sense organs, character, etc.
Passage IV
One of the most serious problems confronting our country is that of a fast-growing population. In fact, it is at the root of many other
problems. At the moment, thanks to planning, we are able to produce food and cloth sufficient for our people and even in some excess.
But if the population continues to grow at this rate, it will not be long before the surplus turns into a bare minimum and even a deficit.
The position in regard to accommodation is even now far from satisfactory in spite of our efforts.
16. ‘It is at the root of many other problems’ means that
(a) it is found along with many other problems (b) it is caused by many other problems
(c) it gives rise to many other problems (d) it is buried under many other problems
17. The present satisfactory position in regard to food and cloth is due to
(a) the fact that the population has been controlled (b) our good luck
(c) good rainfall (d) our economic planning
18. If the population of India continues to increase at this rate, the situation in regard to food and cloth
(a) is likely to remain the same (b) is likely to become less satisfactory
(c) is likely to improve (d) is likely to vary up and down
19. The situation in respect of accommodation
(a) is less than satisfactory (b) is quite satisfactory
(c) is improving rapidly (d) is the result of total neglect
20. At present Indians have
(a) more provision for cloth than accommodation (b) more provision for accommodation than cloth
(c) abundance of cloth and accommodation (d) scarcity of cloth and accommodation
562 Objective English
Ordering of Sentences
Directions (For the following 8 items) In the following items each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences
are given in the beginning as (S1) and (S6). The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P,
Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
21. S1 : Einstein was very simple in his ways of life and indifferent to his astounding fame.
S6 : So they went back to the Queen and informed her that he had not come by the train.
P : They could never imagine that this shabby man would be Einstein himself.
Q : Once the queen of Belgium invited him to Brussels.
R : The officials also expected to see somebody who would appear to be rich and aristocratic before them.
S : When he got down form the train at Brussels, he could not think that there were actually many gorgeously dressed officials
to receive him at the station.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P R S Q (b) R Q P S (c) Q S R P (d) S P R Q
22. S1 : Jagdish was tired after the long walk through the thick jungle.
S6 : Here, to his satisfaction, he found that there were hardly any mosquitoes.
P : As night fell he came to a swampy place near a lake, where he decided to camp.
Q : At last, in despair, he sprang into the branches of a nearby tree and climbed to the top.
R : But the place was so full of mosquitoes that he found it impossible to sleep.
S : He spread a blanket on the ground and stretched himself out on it.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P S R Q (b) P R S Q (c) P S Q R (d) P Q R S
23. S1 : What kind of India are we working for, and what kind of world?
S6 : Some small part of that dream has come true, but not in the manner I had imagined, and so much still remains.
P : Surely not, if there has been any truth in us and in our professions.
Q : Here in this city of Allahabad my boyhood and youth were spent in dreaming dreams and seeing visions of India’s future.
R : Was there any real substance in those dreams, or were they merely the fancies of a fevered brain?
S : Are hatred and violence and fear and communalism and narrow provincialism to mould our future?
The proper sequence should be
(a) P Q R S (b) Q R S P (c) S P Q R (d) S Q R P
24. S1 : Pasteur began his fruitful scientific investigations when he was Professor of Chemistry at Strasburg.
S6 : The pasteurization process which he prescribed for wine and beer is used now to safeguard milk too.
P : He also found how germs causing changes in materials could be controlled by heat.
Q : He made a thorough study of the wine industry in France.
R : He thus saved the wine industry from ruin by his work.
S : After careful and extensive investigation he produced the germ theory of fermentation.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P Q R S (b) Q P S R (c) S Q P R (d) Q S P R
25. S1 : In democratic countries men are equal before law, and have a voice in deciding how and by whom they shall be governed.
S6 : And they live like this not for fun, but because they are too poor to afford another room.
P : While some few people live in luxury, many have not even enough to drink and wear.
Q : But with respect to the sharing of money — which means the sharing of food and clothing, and houses and books and so on
the system is still very unfair.
R : There are many families of five or six persons who live in a single room; they sleep and dress and wash and eat their meals;
in this same room they are born; and in this same they die.
S : Even in the finest of world’s cities thousands of people live in dreadful surroundings.
The proper sequence should be
(a) Q R S P (b) S R P Q (c) Q P S R (d) P Q R S
26. S1 : Mental disability, whether mental retardation or any other developmental disability, is not the same as mental illness.
S6 : And the earlier the better.
P : A person with mental disability can certainly be helped to improve, but mainly in childhood.
Q : But mental disability has no cure.
R : Mental illness has an identifiable cause and may be cured.
S : Not the best doctors nor all the medicines in the world can cure mental disability.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P S Q R (b) Q P R S (c) R Q S P (d) S R P Q
UPSC Tests 563
27. S1 : A devastating earthquake had hit Mexico city.
S6 : The condition of 1000 others was reported unsafe.
P : Fifty more were later judged dangerously close to falling.
Q : The quake’s force was measured at 7.8 on the Richter scale.
R : In four chaotic minutes, an estimated 250 buildings collapsed in downtown Mexico city.
S : It was the world’s most severe quake since the quake in Chile last March.
The proper sequence should be
(a) S R P Q (b) Q S R P (c) P Q S R (d) R P Q S
28. S1 : Undoubtedly, science has done wonders.
S6 : Thus, science, which was once considered a destructive power only in war, must be recognized as one also in its apparently
constructive activities during peace.
P : But in giving such an answer, our attention must not be taken up entirely by the danger from nuclear weapons and chemical
warfare.
Q : The honest answer has to be, ‘Not always’.
R : But has it stopped with wonders which are beneficial to mankind?
S : There is far greater real danger from the damage to the environment arising from the so-called peaceful uses of science.
The proper sequence should be
(a) R Q P S (b) S P Q R (c) S R P Q (d) P Q R S
Antonyms
Directions (For the following 20 items) Each item in this section consists of a word or group of words in capital letters followed by
four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letter.
29. DIMINISH
(a) Enkindle (b) Increase (c) Produce (d) Arouse
(c) Relieved (d) Instigated
30. HAMPERED (c) Agitation (d) Silence
(c) Genuine (d) Interesting
(a) Facilitated (b) Prompted (c) Amended (d) Modified
(c) Aggregated (d) Magnified
31. EQUANIMITY (c) Luxury (d) Explicit
(c) Abandon (d) Shorten
(a) Sorrow (b) Discontentment (c) Heroism (d) Kindness
(c) Usually (d) Rarely
32. SPURIOUS (c) Steady (d) Friendly
(c) Ignominy (d) Criticism
(a) Fresh (b) Modern (c) Plain (d) Higher
(c) Dangerous (d) Active
33. THREW COLD WATER ON (c) Agreed (d) Prepared
(c) Chronically ill (d) Strong
(a) Supported (b) Defeated (c) Common (d) Compound
34. AGGRAVATED
(a) Increased (b) Mitigated
35. DEFICIT
(a) Surplus (b) Sufficiency
36. LENGTHEN
(a) Protract (b) Brighten
37. CRUELTY
(a) Love (b) Efficiency
38. FREQUENTLY
(a) Habitually (b) Commonly
39. HOSTILE
(a) Dogmatic (b) Easy going
40. PUBLIC HONOUR
(a) Accusation (b) Punishment
41. SUBTLE
(a) Distant (b) Gross
42. TAME
(a) Wild (b) Clean
43. DECLINED
(a) Inclined (b) Liked
44. ILL AT EASE
(a) Easy to deal with (b) Comfortable
45. COMPLEX
(a) Ordinary (b) Simple
564 Objective English
46. ABOLISHED
(a) Continued (b) Established (c) Encouraged (d) Revived
47. OFFENCE
(a) Preference (b) Vengeance (c) Defence (d) Negligence
48. IRREMEDIABLE
(a) That which can be avoided (b) Incurable
(d) That which can be corrected
(c) Profitable
Spotting Errors
Directions (For the 25 items which follow) Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and
(c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your answer in Answer Sheet against
the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your answer should be indicated as (d).
49. Everybody, it must be admitted, has their ups and downs. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
50. When the thief broke into their house, they raised a hue and cry and the thief caught immediately by the people. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
51. I have tried to meet him several times; he isn’t never at home. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
52. This house is mine. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
53. He is proficient in Hindi and can speak English, but he does not know to read and write English. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
54. Every woman in the world fervently hopes that their child will be a normal and healthy baby. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
55. Neither of them send their papers in time for the last seminar. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
56. There is not many traffic along the street where I live. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
57. The front page story was about a schoolgirl, that had hurt herself, while saving a child in an accident. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
58. He took leave of four days. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
59. The police arrived and discovered a large number of hoarded sugar in his shop. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
60. Raju doesn’t come to our house because our dog barks at him and licks him although I have often told him not to afraid of it.
(a) (b) (c)
No error.
(d)
61. Running across the playground, my pen fell in the mud; fortunately, I noticed it and picked it up. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
62. The last thing that the fond mother gave her only son was his blessing. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
63. To his innovative ideas and practices in farming he was given the Krishi Pandit Award last year. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
64. As a dramatist, Shaw is superior than any other twentieth century writer. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
65. Molly speaks French well, isn’t it? No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
66. Mutton is more hard to digest than vegetables. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
67. I have found that he is neither willing or capable. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
68. For times immemorial, sea shells have been used by man in many ways. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
69. He will not listen what you say. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
UPSC Tests 565
70. I have done my best; the whole thing is now in the hands of the Gods. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
71. Oh for God sake leave me alone and go away from here. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
72. This is a strange world where each one pursues their own golden bubble and laughs at others for doing the same. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
73. Each of the boys were to blame for the accident. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ordering of Words in a Sentence
Directions (For the 25 items which follow) In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required
to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R, and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in
your Answer Sheet accordingly.
74. If you buy the economy pack the manufactures, wanting to promote the sales which is quite cheap have devised a number of
P QR
schemes and to ensure clearance of stocks.
S
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q P S R (b) P Q R S (c) R S Q P (d) Q R S P
75. Happiness does not consist in rank or position, it is a state of mind who are contended available to those.
P QR S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S (b) Q P R S (c) P Q S R (d) R P S Q
76. A person another’s view point limited in mind and culture who cannot understand is to that extent.
PQ RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q R P S (b) R P S Q (c) P S Q R (d) S R Q P
77. The whole valley with date-palms was pleasantly and was well planted green with crops.
P QR S
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q S R P (b) R S Q P (c) P Q S R (d) S R P Q
78. The extent of social progress in various nation-building activities is an important indicator of women’s participation
PQ RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) P R S Q (b) S Q R P (c) R S Q P (d) Q P R S
79. We intend to shift with our family to Bombay which consists of three persons.
P QR S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S (b) P R Q S (c) Q R P S (d) R Q P S
80. The wings are so small useless for flying of some birds that they are.
PQ RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) R P S Q (b) Q S P R (c) P R S Q (d) S R P Q
81. The person at night next door sings loudly who lives.
PQ R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P R Q S (b) Q S R P (c) S Q R P (d) P Q S R
82. We have to provide both people and ecosystems the ability with the water they need.
PQ RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) R P Q S (b) Q R P S (c) S R P Q (d) R S P Q
83. People from doing something themselves or reading about it usually learn more than by watching someone else.
P QR S
The correct sequence should be
(a) R S Q P (b) R P S Q (c) P R Q S (d) P R S Q
84. The prevention of disease facing the authorities was by far after the earthquake the most urgent problem.
P QR S
566 Objective English
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q S P R (b) R P Q S (c) Q R P S (d) S P R Q
85. They did not grow well although he watered the plants regularly and put manure in them.
PQ R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S (b) Q R S P (c) R S Q P (d) Q P R S
86. On the propagation of the idea of family planning the governments of many countries have been spending a lot of money.
PQ R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S (b) P S Q R (c) S P Q R (d) R S P Q
87. I sat down this morning to write an article but found I could make no progress.
P QR S
The correct sequence should be
(a) S P R Q (b) Q R P S (c) Q P R S (d) R S Q P
88. If it had not been where would I have been today for your timely help five years ago?
PQ RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S (b) Q P R S (c) Q R S P (d) P R Q S
89. It was almost midnight sitting at the table, when I arrived home, but I found them both waiting for me.
P Q RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q R P S (b) R Q P S (c) Q P S R (d) R P Q S
90. Do or die was the call that Gandhiji gave when he asked the British to quit India to all freedom fighters.
PQ R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q P R S (b) P R Q S (c) R S P Q (d) P Q S R
91. The scientist refused to talk to the press who discovered that everyone is talking about the ancient cure.
P QR S
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q R P S (b) R S P Q (c) Q S R P (d) P R S Q
92. His grandmother on all auspicious days was so pious that she would visit the temple without fail.
PQ RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q R P S (b) R Q S P (c) P Q R S (d) S R Q P
93. There are parents who consider a needless luxury in our country the education of their daughters.
PQ R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q R S P (b) P S R Q (c) R P S Q (d) S R Q P
94. Based firmly on current lexical and learning theory not only to present and to explain words ‘English vocabulary in Use’ aims
PQ
and to help them work out the rules themselves but also to show students how to use them.
RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q P R S (b) Q P S R (c) R Q P S (d) P S Q R
95. The budget with high expectations by all types of taxpayers of tax relief is being awaited.
P Q RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) P R Q S (b) Q P R S (c) R P S Q (d) S P R Q
96. I walked on until I reached my house as fast as I could the road which led to.
P QR S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q S R (b) R P S Q (c) R S P Q (d) S R P Q
97. A very old man with a wrinkled face and a long beard a pretty girl of sixteen married.
P Q RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) P S Q R (b) S Q P R (c) S Q R P (d) R P S Q
UPSC Tests 567
98. Shyam took a photograph from the window which was overexposed.
PQ R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) S Q R P (b) R P S Q (c) P R Q S (d) R Q S P
Synonyms
Directions (For the 22 items which follow) Each item in this section consists of a word or group of words in capital letters, followed
by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word or group of words in
capital letters.
99. FLYING COLOURS
(a) Enviable (b) Notable success (c) Being pleasant (d) Highly ambitious
100. SANCTUM
(a) Environment (b) The holy part (c) Corridor (d) Room for pilgrims
101. FRAIL
(a) Unhealthy (b) Weak (c) Ugly (d) Tender
102. HOBNOB
(a) Nagging (b) Friendly chat (c) Quarrel (d) Pestering manner
103. DILLY DALLYING
(a) Quarrelling (b) Arguing with each other
(d) Wasting time
(c) Waiting for orders
104. HUSH UP
(a) Blow up (b) To keep quiet (c) To remove (d) Wind up
105. GRIEVANCES
(a) Complaints (b) Problems (c) Obstacles (d) Hardships
106. AFFINITY
(a) Admiration (b) Adoration (c) Respect (d) Intimacy
107. IGNOMINY
(a) Condemnation (b) Disgrace (c) Failure (d) Criticism
108. ALLEVIATE
(a) Eradicate (b) Remove (c) Understand (d) Lessen
109. IMPERCEPTIBLY
(a) Extremely (b) Invisibly (c) Inconceivably (d) Intensely
110. DOLEFUL
(a) Sobre (b) Depressed (c) Dreary (d) Mournful
111. MODULATE
(a) Set (b) Tune (c) Balance (d) Adjust
112. PRESUMPTUOUS
(a) Bold (b) Egotistical (c) Arrogant (d) Audacious
113. RHYTHM
(a) Flow (b) Measure (c) Tempo (d) Regular pattern
114. PRECIPITATE
(a) Hasten (b) Advance (c) Arrive (d) Instigate
115. OUTLAST
(a) To come to an end (b) To fight till the end
(d) To endure longer than
(c) To make a last attempt
116. INTERREGNUM
(a) Pause (b) Interference (c) Intrusion (d) Prevention
117. DEMOLISH
(a) Abolish (b) Overthrow (c) Destroy (d) Overturn
118. INITIATE
(a) Enlighten (b) Begin (c) Guide (d) Lead
119. STROLL
(a) Exercise (b) Jogging (c) A ride (d) A walk
120. LANGUID
(a) Absent minded (b) Negligent (c) Sluggish (d) Thoughtless
568 Objective English
Answers
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (b)
13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (d)
37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (a) 41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (d)
49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (c) 71. (a) 72. (b)
73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (a) 81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (a)
85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (d) 91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (b)
97. (a) 98. (c) 99. (b) 100. (d) 101. (b) 102. (b) 103. (d) 104. (b) 105. (a) 106. (d) 107. (b) 108. (d)
109. (b) 110. (d) 111. (d) 112. (c) 113. (d) 114. (b) 115. (d) 116. (a) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (d) 120. (c)
NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAMINATION (NDA)
Error Identification Antonyms
10 10
20% 20%
Reading Jumbled Synonyms Type of Questions No. of MCQs
Comprehension Sentences 10 Antonyms 10
20% Synonyms 10
10 10 Jumbled Sentences 10
20% 20% Reading Comprehension 10
Error Identification 10
TOTAL 50
Directions (For the next 10 items that follow) Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of
words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.
1. All care is FUTILE in a cureless case.
(a) waste (b) expensive (c) useful (d) cheap
2. REVELATION of facts became very easy when I investigated the case.
(a) rejection (b) elimination (c) concealment (d) introduction
3. The story you have just told is INCREDIBLE.
(a) credible (b) fantastic (c) probable (d) believable
4. His assignments have taken him to many EXOTIC locations around the world.
(a) wonderful (b) cosmopolitan (c) irrelevant (d) common
5. He has given up his VICIOUS habits.
(a) godly (b) virtuous (c) sublime (d) friendly
6. The doctor found the patient INERT.
(a) active (b) lazy (c) strong (d) resolute
7. The issue was raised TANGENTIALLY in the negotiations.
(a) party (b) forcefully (c) candidly (d) fitfully
UPSC Tests 569
8. ESCALATING prices are causing hardship to the poor.
(a) fixed (b) fluctuating (c) falling (d) reasonable
(d) attraction
9. I have MALICE towards none. (d) backward
(a) sympathy (b) goodwill (c) friendship
10. The boy comes of an AFFLUENT family.
(a) poor (b) ordinary (c) infamous
Directions (For the next 10 items that follow) Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of
words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.
11. The song had a SOPORIFIC effect on the child.
(a) soothing (b) terrific (c) supreme (d) sleep-inducing
12. His ALLEGIANCE to the party was suspect from the very beginning.
(a) servility (b) obedience (c) loyalty (d) passivity
13. Sympathetic criticism has a SALUTARY effect.
(a) premature (b) terrible (c) disastrous (d) beneficial
14. His bad behaviour EVOKED punishment.
(a) escaped (b) called for (c) produced (d) summoned
15. Please do not give any more FLIMSY pretexts for not having done the work.
(a) weak (b) strong (c) justified (d) impulsive
16. He was the court appointed lawyer for fifty-six INDIGENT defendants.
(a) Indian men (b) poor (c) guilty (d) untried
17. The boy said that pain had ABATED.
(a) reduced (b) vanished (c) increased (d) stabilized
18. He became known as an IMPLACABLE foe of fundamentalism.
(a) relentless (b) pleasing (c) dangerous (d) courageous
19. The queen was aware of the INSOLENT behaviour of the lords.
(a) violent (b) polite (c) insulting (d) frivolous
20. Modern man is PRAGMATIC in his dealings.
(a) practical (b) playful (c) causal (d) clever
Rearranging Parts of a Sentence
Directions (For the 10 items which follow) In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required
to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your
Answer Sheet accordingly.
Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
Z. Some people believe that the effect is very bad on children of cinema
PQ R S
The correct sequence should be:
(a) PSRQ (b) SPQR (c) SRPQ (d) QSRP
Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is ‘Some people believe that the effect of cinema on children is very bad’. This is indicated by
the sequence P—S—R—Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
21. In the Middle Ages there was little progress either intellectual or social with the result that teaching became the exclusive
P Q RS
prerogative of the church
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) PQRS (b) SRPQ (c) PRSQ (d) QPRS
22. A scientist has shown that when anyone holds a burning cigarette near their leaves plants react with fear
P QR S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) PQRS (b) QRSP (c) SPQR (d) PQSR
23. because the driver lost control and hit a lamp post the bus fell into a ditch at a turning
P Q RS
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) RQPS (b) RPSQ (c) PQSR (d) SPRQ
570 Objective English
24. We want every country or a foreign policy to have a population policy as it has an economic policy
PQ R S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) PQRS (b) QRSP (c) PRSQ (d) RQPS
25. The teacher and the pupils continued likewise with their repetition read the sentence again the pupils knew the sentence by heart
P QR
until the teacher thought
S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) PQSR (b) PSRQ (c) QPSR (d) QSRP
26. For dropping kilos it is safe to cut your fat intake and maintaining weight loss to 20 per cent of your calories even further
PQ RS
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) PRQS (b) QSPR (c) SPRQ (d) QPRS
27. His uncle after he joined did not send the college money for his expenses
P QR S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) QRSP (b) RSQP (c) QSPR (d) SRPQ
28. Language is to the other person communicating only a means of one’s thoughts and emotions
PQR S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) PQSR (b) RQSP (c) QRSP (d) SPQR
29. Whenever I see the model who started it is the face of the man of our factory what comes to my mind
PQ RS
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) SRQP (b) RSQP (c) QPRS (d) PQRS
30. I bought from your shop a week ago to send the books you have not cared
P QR S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) QPSR (b) QPRS (c) SRPQ (d) PQSR
Comprehension
Directions (For the 10 items which follow) In this section, you have 03 short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions
based on the passage. First, read a passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based
on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Examples ‘I’ and ‘J’ have been solved for you.
Passage (Example)
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace,
security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And,
no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily
seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against
dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures.
I. The author’s main point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on the earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the author’s position ?
(a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death
Explanation:
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is ‘peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings’, which is response
(c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is ‘The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace’, which is
response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC Tests 571
Passage I
Gandhi was not born great. He was a blundering boy, a mediocre student, a poor lawyer, an ordinary individual until he remade himself.
He was a self-remade man. He had faith in himself. But above all, he had a deep, touching faith in the peasants, miners, labourers, and
young unformed men and women whom he drew into his work. He fed them all an elixir of growth which often transformed nameless,
uneducated people into leonine heroes. The elixir was fearlessness.
31. Consider the following assumptions:
(1) Gandhi was a great man throughout his life.
(2) Men are not born great, but they are made great by self effort.
(3) Gandhi liked the ordinary people and neglected the rich.
(4) Gandhi transformed the ordinary masses into great heroes.
Which of the above assumptions can be drawn from the above passage?
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) None of the above
32. Gandhi transformed the uneducated people by teaching them
(a) work-mindedness (b) self confidence (c) fearlessness (d) heroism
33. Gandhi’s attitude to the labour class was one of
(a) generosity (b) pity (c) compassion (d) fearlessness
34. The word ‘leonine’ in the passage means
(a) lean (b) courageous (c) timid (d) learning
Passage II
The dog fence in Australia has been erected to keep out hostile invaders, in this case hordes of yellow dogs called dingoes. The empire it
preserves is that of wool growers. Yet the fence casts a much broader ecological shadow. For the early explorers, a kangaroo or a wallaby
sighting marked a noteworthy event. Now try not to see one. Without a native predator there is no check on the marsupial population.
The kangaroos are now cursed more than the dingoes. They have become rivals of sheep, competing for water and grass. The State
Governments now cull more than three million kangaroos a year to keep Australia’s natural symbol from over running the pastoral lands.
35. The Fence is meant to keep the:
(a) kangaroo in and the dingo out. (b) kangaroo in and the sheep out.
(c) sheep in and the kangaroo out. (d) sheep in and the dingo out.
36. Australia’s national symbol is:
(a) Kangaroo (b) Wallaby (c) Sheep (d) Dingo
37. What has led to the unchecked growth of the marsupial population?
(a) The building of fences (b) The absence of native predator
(c) The culling of kangroos (d) The availability of water and grass
38. The marsupial population is up in Australia because:
(a) both wallaby and kangaroo count as marsupials.
(b) the kangaroo consumes the water and grass of the sheep.
(c) the dingo cannot get at the kangaroo.
(d) the kangaroos are fenced out.
Passage III
Not all nocturnal animals have good eyesight. Many of them concentrate on the other senses for finding their way about and for finding
food. The sense of touch is very well developed in many nocturnal animals, whether they have good eyes or not. The large hair or whiskers
on the faces of cats and mice are sense organs and the animals react rapidly if these whiskers are touched. The sense of smell is also very
important for nocturnal animals such as hedgehogs and field mice. The moist night air holds scent much better than dry air does.
39. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) All nocturnal animals are blind
(b) Many nocturnal animals do not have good eyesight
(c) Most nocturnal animals can not see any thing in the dark
(d) No nocturnal animal has good eyesight
40. The cat’s whiskers are organs associated with the sense of
(a) taste (b) touch (c) hearing (d) smell
Spotting Errors
Directions (For the 10 items which follow)
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled
(a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one
572 Objective English
error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer
Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’
response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer
will be considered wrong.) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a
word which should be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
Examples ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved for you.
P. The young child singed a very sweet song. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q. We worked very hard throughout the season. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Explanation:
In item P, the word ‘singed’ is wrong. The letter under this part is (b), so (b) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the
correct answer, as the sentence does not contain any error.
41. We are meeting today afternoon to discuss the matter and reach a compromise. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
42. Either Ram or you is responsible for this action. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
43. The student flatly denied that he had copied in the examination hall. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
44. By the time you arrive tomorrow I have finished my work. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
45. The speaker stressed repeatedly on the importance of improving the condition of the slums. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
46. The captain with the members of his team are returning after a fortnight. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
47. After returning from an all-India tour I had to describe about it. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
48. The teacher asked his students if they had gone through either of the three chapters included in the prescribed text. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
49. Although they are living in the country since they were married they are now moving to the town. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
50. Do you know how old were you when you came here? No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Answers 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (c)
14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c)
1. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (a)
13. (d) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (c)
25. (c) 50. (a)
37. (b)
49. (c)
UPSC Tests 573
Jumbled SCRA
Sentences
Reading
7 Comprehension
12%
14
23%
Cloze Tests Synonyms Type of Questions No. of MCQs
15 8 Reading Comprehension 14
25% Synonyms 8
14% Antonyms 8
Jumbled Words Jumbled Words 8
8 Antonyms Cloze Tests 15
8 Jumbled Sentences 7
13%
13% TOTAL 60
Comprehension
Directions (For the 14 items which follow) In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, you will find several
questions based on the passage. First, read a passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers
based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Example ‘I’ and ‘J’ have been solved for you.
Passage (Example)
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace,
security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And,
no matter whether they belong to higher groups such as human being or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek
peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against
dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures.
I. The author’s main point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on the earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goal of all living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace
(c) All being are divided into higher and lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death
Explanation:
I. The idea which represent the author’s main point is ‘peace and security are the chief goals of all living being’, which is response
(c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is ‘The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace’, which is
response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.
Passage I
It may seem strange then that there could possibly be any room for pleasure in such a disagreeable task. Still, for every agony there
is at least one pleasure. How can one adequately describe to listeners who have never had such an experience, the satisfaction felt by
574 Objective English
the operator when he rises early and when going outdoors he is greeted by the sparkling freshness of the morning? When he mounts
to the seat of his tractor he is about to know an experience shared only by those who love fine machinery and earn a living with it. It
is the satisfaction of hearing his tractor burst into action with an authoritative roar the instant he pushes the starter button. To listen to
the smooth, flawless operation of machinery which he himself has tuned to perfection is to the ears of the operator as the harmonious
music of an accomplished symphony orchestra is to the lover of fine music. How can one describe the sweetness which rises from the
new-mown hay in the adjacent fields?
1. The given passage deals with
(a) the inability of the writer to express himself (b) the pleasures and pains that he has to endure
(c) the satisfaction he felt in operating a tractor (d) the pleasure of listening to music
2. The writer evidently
(a) considers his task disagreeable
(b) likes to wander around to get the smell of new-mown hay
(c) does not like to get up early in the morning
(d) likes to push the starter button of his machinery
3. The passage conveys the pleasure especially derived from
(a) farms and fields
(b) working with machinery
(c) sights and smells of early morning
(d) harmonious music of an accomplished symphony orchestra
4. The smooth, flawless operation of machinery in the passage refers to
(a) the writer’s love of fine music (b) the satisfaction of rising early
(c) the authoritative roar of the tractor (d) the sweetness of new-mown hay in the adjacent fields
5. According to your reading of the passage, the writer
(a) is only a visitor to the farm
(b) could be one who has come to do some work in the farm
(c) could be one engaged in an unfamiliar task
(d) could be one looking out for the sparkling freshness of the morning
Passage II
It was a pleasure for Dr Watson to find himself once more in the untidy room of the first floor in Baker Street which had been the starting
point of so many remarkable adventures. He looked round him at the scientific charts upon the wall, the acid-charred bench of chemicals,
violin-case leaning in the corner, the coal-scuttle, which contained old pipes and tobacco. Finally, his eyes came round to the fresh and
smiling face of Billy, the young but very wise and tactful page, who had helped a little to fill up the gap of loneliness and isolation which
surrounded the saturnine figure of the great detective.
6. Dr Watson found the room in Baker Street pleasant, because
(a) it was untidy (b) this was the first time he had entered it
(c) it had been the starting point of many adventures (d) he saw Billy in the room
7. Dr Watson looked round the room, but saw
(a) nothing of interest (b) many unpleasant objects
(c) many familiar objects reminding him of his friend (d) nothing he could identify
8. From the description given of Billy, which one of the following attitudes describes Dr Watson’s reaction to him?
(a) Enmity (b) Approval (c) Tolerance (d) Disapproval
9. Dr Watson’s attitude to Billy was the result of his recognition that the young servant
(a) was known to Dr Watson (b) worked very hard
(c) was youthful (d) helped to lessen the loneliness of the great detective
10. It is clear from the passage that the room
(a) was in fact, a laboratory (b) belonged to the great detective
(c) belonged to Dr Watson (d) belonged to Billy
Passage III
History with its flickering lamp stumbles along the trail of the past and kindles with pale gleams the passions of the former days. What is
the worth of all this? The only guide to a man is his conscience, the only shield to his memory is the rectitude and sincerity of his actions.
It is very imprudent to walk through life without this shield, because we are so often mocked at by the failure of our hopes and upsetting
of our calculations; but with this shield, however the fates may play, we march always in the ranks of honour.
11. In the given context, the best meaning of the word ‘conscience’ is
(a) consciousness (b) conformity to what is right
(c) the virtue of being right (d) the scene of right and wrong
UPSC Tests 575
12. The word ‘however’ in the expression ‘however the fates may play’ may be replaced by
(a) yet (b) by whatever means
(c) no matter how (d) nevertheless
13. The author’s suggestion is that rectitude and sincerity of our actions help us ultimately
(a) to walk through life prudently (b) to meet the challenge of fates successfully
(c) to fulfil our hopes and calculations (d) to be remembered as a virtuous and honourable man
14. The extract is taken from the speech of a very eminent person. The language and particularly the metaphors used seem to suggest
that the writer is
(a) a religious preacher attracting his disciples to the paths of virtue
(b) an honest businessman declaring his business policy
(c) a teacher of history addressing his students about the value of history
(d) a great politician inspiring the nation with patriotism
Synonyms
Directions (For the 8 items which follow) Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or groups of words.
Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.
15. He MAGNETIZED the audience by his extraordinary stage performance.
(a) Entertained (b) Strongly attracted (c) Amused (d) Impressed
16. He is known as MISANTHROPE.
(a) A person who hates mankind (b) A person who is charitable
(c) A person who is benevolent (d) A person who is cruel
17. He glared at me, shook off my hand and MUTTERED, “With my ‘guru’ so unhappy, how dare you ask me to drive?”
(a) Stammered (b) Said (c) Stumbled (d) Mumbled
18. He had a heart attack and all attempts to RESUSCITATE him failed.
(a) To begin again after a pause (b) To return like for like
(c) To bring back to consciousness (d) To keep possession of
19. He is a FEMINIST.
(a) Supporter of the cause of women (b) Lover and admirer of woman
(c) Weak-hearted man (d) Very handsome man
20. The United Nations ENDEAVOURS to put an end to all wars.
(a) Attempts (b) Deliberates (c) Struggles (d) Exerts
21. The fugitive ROVED about the countryside, because he was not familiar with the area.
(a) Wandered (b) Took shelter (c) Begged (d) Searched
22. I cast a CURSORY glance over the question papers.
(a) Hurried (b) Timid (c) Meaningful (d) Inquisitive
Antonyms
Directions (For the 8 items which follow) Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words. Select the antonym
of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.
23. The question of funds should not be kept in mind while promoting such VIABLE projects.
(a) Impossible (b) Impracticable (c) Complicated (d) Uncompromizing
24. His MEANNESS is well-known.
(a) Largeness (b) Kindness (c) Timidity (d) Generosity
25. History teaches us that COLONIZATION destroys both the coloniser and the colonized.
(a) Excolonization (b) Postcolonization (c) Decolonization (d) Uncolonization
26. He was often criticized for his FRAUDULENT dealings.
(a) Bogus (b) Honest (c) Frank (d) Open
27. Excessive perspiration SAPS energy.
(a) Restores (b) Releases (c) Fulfils (d) Instils
28. He has a very HOSTILE attitude towards his wife.
(a) Funny (b) Friendly (c) Rigid (d) Kind
29. The officer did not encourage SERVILE behaviour from his subordinates.
(a) Authoritative (b) Unflattering (c) Loyal (d) Obedient
30. His death has left his wife and title children DESTITUTE.
(a) Rich (b) Self-sufficient (c) Independent (d) Happy
576 Objective English
Rearranging Parts of a Sentence
Directions (For the 8 items which follow) In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to
rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your
Answer Sheet accordingly.
Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
Z. Some people believe that the effect is very bad on children of cinema
PQ RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) P – S – R – Q (b) S – P – Q – R (c) S – R – P – Q (d) Q – S – R – P
Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is ‘Some people believe that the effect of cinema on children is very bad’. This is indicated
by the sequence P – S – R – Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
31. We have come to know that the committee always to whoever came first awarded a beautiful silver medal
P QR S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P – Q – R – S (b) R – S – P – Q (c) P – R – S – Q (d) Q – P – R – S
32. Sherlock Holmes is character in fiction than any other more people perhaps known to
P Q RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) S – R – Q – P (b) Q – P – S – R (c) Q – S – P – R (d) R – S – Q – P
33. The visitor said that he saw some people who shouted ‘Long live labour unity’ in the street when he started from home
P Q RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) P – Q – R – S (b) P – S – Q – R (c) S – P – R – Q (d) S – R – P – Q
34. the principal shortcoming of this interpretation of culture lies in its failure to encompass the social nature of culture
P QR
so far as theory and methodology is concerned
S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P – S – Q – R (b) Q – S – R – P (c) S – R – Q – P (d) S – Q – R – P
35. The whole project by drawing about 60000 volunteers students, youth, teachers and retired persons would be completed
P QR
from different groups such as
S
The correct sequence should be
(a) R – S – P – Q (b) R – P – S – Q (c) P – S – Q –R (d) Q – R – S – P
36. it is unity which will generate dissensions rather than disunity that is the need of the hour
P QR S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P – Q – R – S (b) P – S – R – Q (c) R – Q – P – S (d) Q – P – R – S
37. deworming medicine suspected to have worms and were given all the animals were
P Q RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) S – P – R – Q (b) S – Q – R – P (c) P – R – S – Q (d) P – Q –R – S
38. it is obvious that an open mind is a good thing but not outside of them with certain limits
P Q RS
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q – P – S – R (b) P – Q – S – R (c) R – P – Q – S (d) P – R -–Q – S
Directions (For the 15 items which follow) In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of four words marked (a),
(b), (c), (d). Choose the best word out of the four and indicate your choice in the Answer Sheet.
The word ‘music’ brings to our mind melodious sounds which may be produced either by a singer or a player of musical instruments.
Some people feel that music is the 39
(a) source (b) essence (c) substance (d) place
of life. Yet other believe that music 40
(a) elevates (b) brings (c) sensitises (d) elongates
UPSC Tests 577
man to a divine state. A few 41
(a) stress (b) emphasise (c) insist (d) urge
that music can melt stones!
Generally, music is 42
(a) explained (b) defined (c) described (d) shown
as the arrangement of sounds in a pleasing 43
(a) sequence (b) system (c) order (d) arrangement
Like all arts, music speaks to the 44
(a) feelings (b) passions (c) emotions (d) ideas
but the communication is accomplished by the 45
(a) skillful (b) artistic (c) creative (d) passionate
combination of sounds. Just as some colours 46
(a) come (b) go (c) are (d) were
together, and other clash, similarly, all 47
(a) sounds (b) noises (c) cries (d) shouts
are not appealing to the ear. Modern music 48
(a) do (b) does (c) did (d) been
not take note of this. It lacks the 49
(a) basics (b) foundations (c) essentials (d) substance
of harmony. Moreover, it depends heavily on electronic 50
(a) instruments (b) machines (c) gadgets (d) furniture
which, only someone who has the technical 51
(a) expertise (b) knowledge (c) information (d) know-how
can handle. It also relies on visual 52
(a) impressions (b) images (c) expressions (d) feelings
True music appeals to the mind; modern music 53
(a) involves (b) elicits (c) expects (d) derives
only a physical response and therefore, cannot be called true music. Right?!
Rearranging Sentences Into a Paragraph
Directions (For the 7 items which follow) In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the
final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled
P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
Example ‘X’ has been solved for you. (c) Q – P – R – S (d) R – P – S – Q
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack.
S6 : At last she turned him out of the house.
P : So the mother asked him to find work.
Q : They were very poor.
R : He lived with his mother.
S : But Jack refused to work.
The correct sequence should be
(a) R – Q – P – S (b) P – Q – R – S
Explanation:
The proper sequence in this example is R – Q – P – S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
54. S1 : For more than forty countries, the majestic pyramids have dominated the skyline of Egypt.
S6 : Today, several teams of scientists are engaged in research on the pyramids.
P : But at the same time, they were also expressions of religious faith for Egyptians believed in life after death.
Q : The scientists concluded that the pyramids contain important information about an ancient civilization.
R : From 19th century onwards, European scholars began to take interest in them.
S : They found that these structures were basically giant tombs.
The correct sequence should be
(a) P – S – Q – R (b) R – P – S – Q (c) Q – P – R – S (d) R – S – P – Q
55. S1 : He was born in Lahore in a poor family.
S6 : So he joined the correspondence course and got his degree.
P : But he was eager to get a degree.
578 Objective English
Q : Due to poverty he could not join a college.
R : He had his schooling in Delhi.
S : His family moved to Delhi when he was a few months old.
The correct sequence should be
(a) P – Q – R – S (b) S – R – Q – P (c) R – P – S – Q (d) S – Q – P – R
56. S1 : We shut ourselves inside Rock Castle and seized our guns.
S6 : Now the snake was crossing the bridge and making straight for our cave!
P : Now and then it raised itself and we could see that it was at least twenty feet high.
Q : The huge snake, a boa–constrictor, was coming straight towards us.
R : It was a fearful sight.
S : We stood there, at the window, watching in great fear.
The correct sequence should be
(a) R – S – P – Q (b) S – R – Q – P (c) Q – S – P – R (d) S – Q – P – R
57. S1 : ‘I’ll go and tell…’ exclaimed the boy; he got up and started running all of a sudden towards the house, and the teacher started
after him.
S6 : It was a hopeless pursuit; the boy enjoyed it immensely, laughing fiendishly.
P : The teacher looked beaten.
Q : The boy was too fast for him, wheeled about madly, and made the teacher run round the garden thrice.
R : But the moment he went up and tried to put his hand on him, the boy darted through and ran off.
S : The boy took pity on him and stopped near a rose bush.
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q – P – S – R (b) P – Q – S – R (c) P – S – Q – R (d) R – P – S – Q
58. S1 : Throughout the world today, people are faced with a choice between various binds of government.
S6 : He wonders which to choose.
P : Each prescribes his own brand of patent medicines.
Q : There are rival political doctors.
R : And the poor common man feels totally puzzled.
S : Each guarantees to cure us of our ills if only we put ourselves under their treatment.
The correct sequence should be (c) Q – S – P – R (d) Q – P – S – R
(a) P – Q – R – S (b) S – P – R – Q
59. S1 : Freedom ordinarily means power to do what are likes regardless of all conditions.
S6 : In fact, freedom of one cannot be the negation of freedom to another.
P : Unrestricted power given to a person to do as he likes is fraught with dangerous consequences.
Q : Therefore, in order that all enjoy freedom, some restraints have to be put on the freedom of action of every person.
R : It will mean more power for a few and no freedom for the weak.
S : But it is a serious misconception.
The correct sequence should be
(a) R – P – S – Q (b) P – Q – S – R (c) S – P – R – Q (d) Q – S – P – R
60. S1 : Frustration is a global cancer which has spared no country.
S6 : Many reforms have been discussed at length but have come to nothing for one reason or another.
P : And yet no one seems too clear about what can be done to make it more meaningful.
Q : In other countries which are populated by ‘haves’, frustration is among them also because they do have.
R : As far as India is concerned, its education system is breeding more and more frustration among both students and
teachers.
S : In some countries, frustration exists because these countries are populated by ‘have nots’.
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q – R – P – S (b) S – R – Q – P (c) P – R – Q – S (d) P – S – R – Q
Answers 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (c)
14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d)
1. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (b)
13. (d) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b)
25. (c) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b)
37. (b)
49. (c)
UPSC Tests 579
ENGINEERING SERVICES EXAMINATION (ESE)
Reading Sentence
Comprehension Improvement
9 10
15% 17%
Antonyms Error Type of Questions No. of MCQs
11 Identification Sentence Improvement 10
18% Error Identification 10
10 Fill in the Blanks 8
Synonyms 17% Synonyms 12
12 Antonyms 11
20% Fill in the Blanks Reading Comprehension 9
8
TOTAL 60
13%
Sentence Improvement
Directions (For the following 10 items): Look at the underline part of each sentence: Below each sentence, three possible substitutions
for the underlined part are given. If one of them (a), (b)or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer
Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on
the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
1. The girl has passed the B.A. examination in 1972.
(a) the girl passed (b) the girl had passed
(c) the girl was passed (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
2. I hope you will look me up when you come to Delhi.
(a) look at me (b) look me
(c) look upon me (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
3. The clerk asked the peon that why has he come to the office so late.
(a) that why had he (b) that why he had
(c) does not act (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
4. They went to the cinema and has got back to their house at nine o’clock.
(a) returned (b) turning back
(c) come back (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
5. Which of the two boxes more preferable?
(a) more preferred (b) preferable
(c) better preferred (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
6. I think he will ask for a raise into the salary very soon.
(a) for a raise in salary (b) for the raise of salary
(c) for rising the salary (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
7. I have been working in the same factory for the last twenty years now.
(a) will work (b) shall be working
(c) worked (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
8. I must confess that I am very bad in operating machines.
(a) on (b) at
(c) for (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
580 Objective English
9. It was the hottest part of the year and also the busy in the office.
(a) busiest (b) much busy
(c) the busiest (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
10. I am afraid, I don’t know his name.
(a) I fear (b) I feel
(c) I imagine (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
Spotting Errors
Directions (For the following 10 items): Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c).
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against
the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your answer should be indicated as (d).
11. She inquired whether anyone had seen her baby. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12. These are his conclusion remarks. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
13. The shopkeeper offered either to exchange the goods or refund the money. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
14. Churchill was one of the greatest war leaders. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
15. We should keep such people at an arm’s length. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16. He did not know as much as he claimed he knew. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
17. That was very dangerous; you might have got killed. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
18. I started early for the station lest I would miss the train. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
19. I wanted to see if they had actually read the notes. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
20. They made him treasurer because they considered him as honest and efficient. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Filling the Blanks—Simple Sentences
Directions (For the following 08 items): Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given after the sentence.
Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your choice on the Answer Sheet.
21. The completion of the railway line has been ______ owing to the workers’ strike.
(a) off (b) up
(c) on (d) over
22. The pilot was ________ injured, he died within half an hour.
(a) seriously (b) fatally
(c) fatefully (d) vitally
23. His ______ directions misled us, we did not know which road to take.
(a) complex (b) obscure
(c) mingled (d) vague
24. He was very friendly with the press and it really ______ him even for what he did not achieve.
(a) praised (b) lionized
(c) appreciated (d) highlighted
25. Anand was the sort of person who always looked on the ______ side of life.
(a) clear (b) bright
(c) broad (d) illuminated
26. ‘How dare you speak to me like that, you ______ fellow!’ shouted the officer.
(a) impudent (b) impeccable
(c) immutable (d) intricate
27. I refused to ______ his rudeness any longer.
(a) put up (b) put up with
(c) put on (d) put out with
UPSC Tests 581
28. Let us ______ our heads together to solve this difficult problem.
(a) join (b) bring
(c) combine (d) put
Synonyms
Directions (For the following 12 items): Each item in this section consists of a word in capital letters followed by four words or groups
of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.
29. LIVELY (b) lethargic
(a) active (d) ugly
(c) wearisome
(b) holy
30. SACRED (d) truthful
(a) moral
(c) clean (b) sad
(d) serious
31. GRAVE
(a) painful (b) innocent
(c) hopeless (d) unbecoming
32. FOUL (b) objective
(a) dirty (d) painful
(c) foolish
(b) devoted
33. ABJECT (d) sincere
(a) miserable
(c) tortuous (b) improper
(d) arrogant
34. ARDENT
(a) eager (b) attraction
(c) zealous (d) virtue
35. PREPOSTEROUS (b) stalemate
(a) unreasonable (d) status quo
(c) too early
(b) increase
36. BLEMISH (d) reveal
(a) evil
(c) blot (b) immediate
(d) amazing
37. IMPASSE
(a) deadline (b) walk wearily
(c) standstill (d) wade carelessly
38. ENHANCE
(a) embellish
(c) create
39. EPHEMERAL
(a) short-lived
(c) stupendous
40. TRUDGE
(a) prod slowly
(c) trample easily
Antonyms
Directions (For the following 11 items): Each item in this section consists of a word in capital letters followed by four words or groups
of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.
41. LUKEWARM (b) moderate
(a) enthusiastic (d) fervent
(c) friendly
(b) loss
42. ASSET (d) handicap
(a) liability
(c) drag (b) precision
(d) specificity
43. OBSCURITY
(a) clarity
(c) certainty
582 Objective English
44. AMUSED (b) jolted
(a) frightened (d) saddened
(c) astonished
(b) disorderly
45. LOGICAL (d) inconsistent
(a) irrational
(c) inconsiderate (b) heterogeneous
(d) foreign
46. INDIGENOUS
(a) perennial (b) mild
(c) alien (d) understanding
47. STERN (b) momentous
(a) passive (d) significant
(c) forgiving
(b) flow
48. TRIVIAL (d) rush
(a) stupendous
(c) great (b) active
(d) adamant
49. SHRINK
(a) swell (b) familiarity
(c) inflate (d) meeting
50. DORMANT
(a) flexible
(c) hefty
51. ESTRANGEMENT
(a) reunion
(c) gathering
Comprehension
Direction (For the following 9 item): In this section, there are two short passage. Each passage is followed by questions based on the
passage. Read each passage and answer the questions that follow.
Passage I
Jefferson believed in democracy because of his fearless belief in reason. He knew that reason was far from perfect, but he also knew that
it was the best faculty we have. He knew that it was better than all the frightened and angry intolerances with which we fence off our
own back-yards at the cost of injustice. Thought must be free. Discussion must be free. Reason must be free to range among the widest
possibilities. Even the opinion we hate, and have reasons for believing wrong, we must leave free so that reason can operate on it, so
that we advertise our belief in reason and demonstrate a faith unafraid of the consequences – because we know that the consequences
will right. Freedom is really not the aim and end of Jeffersonian democracy : freedom is the means by which democracy can rationally
choose justice for all.
52. Jefferson believed in democracy because (b) he believed in freedom for all
(a) he believed in fearless (d) be believed that reason can act only in freedom
(c) he believed in reason
(b) just and intolerant
53. For Jefferson, reason was (d) tolerant, though not perfect
(a) perfect and tolerant
(c) perfect and intolerant (b) hated
(d) rationally examined
54. A wrong opinion must be
(a) demonstrated (b) discussion
(c) freely propagated (d) fearlessness
55. The aim of democracy is (b) private prejudices
(a) freedom (d) angry intolerances
(c) justice
56. ‘‘Back-yards’’ refers to
(a) yards at the back of houses
(c) fears
Passage II
I was quite happy in my new place, and if there was one thing that I missed, it must not be thought I was discontented; all who had to do
with me were good, and I had a light airy stable and the best of food. What more could I want? Why, liberty ! For three years and a half
of my life I had all the liberty I could wish for; but now, week month after month, and no doubt year after year, I must stand up in a stable
UPSC Tests 583
night and day except when I am wanted, and then I am not complaining. I only mean to say that for a young fellow, full of strength and
spirits, who has been used to some large field or plain, where he can fling up his head, and toss up his tail and gallop away at full speed,
then round and back again with a snort to his companions – I say it is hard never to have a bit more liberty to do as you like.
57. Who is the speaker in this passage? (b) An old and discontented animal
(a) A young stable boy in his new work place (d) An old stable hand in new surroundings
(c) A young and energetic horse
(b) he is quite happy there
58. Referring to his new surroundings, the speaker says that (d) he is more or less happy
(a) he has found peace and happiness
(c) he does not care whether or not he is happy (b) the freedom to speak at will
(d) nothing
59. In his new surroundings, the speaker is denied
(a) the freedom to roam around at will (b) Highly rebellious
(c) the freedom to see who he wills (d) Happy and carefree
60. What is the over-all tone of the speaker?
(a) A complaining attitude
(c) Wistful and longing
Answers 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (c)
15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b)
1. (b) 2. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (c)
13. (a) 14. (d) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (d)
25. (b) 26. (a) 51. (a) 52. (b, c) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (c)
37. (b) 38. (b)
49. (a, c) 50. (b)
CHAPTER 29
SSC Tests
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL TIER I
Cloze Tests Error Identification
10 5
20%
10%
Test of Spellings
5 Fill in the Blanks
5
10%
10%
Synonyms Type of Questions No. of MCQs
5 Error Identification 5
Fill in the Blanks 5
10% Synonyms 5
Antonyms 5
Antonyms Idiom/Phrases 5
5 Sentence Improvement 5
One Word Substitution 5
10% Test of Spellings 5
Cloze Tests 10
One Word Idiom/Phrases
5 TOTAL 50
Substitution
5 Sentence 10%
10% Improvement
5
10%
PART IV
English Comprehension
Directions (1–5): In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has
an error. The number of that part is our answer. If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is (4), i.e, No error.
1. (a) Our history can be seen as a long evolutionary dialectical development
(b) In which there have been
(c) A pains taking forging of rational and moral self
(d) No error
SSC Tests 585
2. (a) Our knowledge of history does not come to
(b) Our help and some times we even fail to
(c) Remember who invented America
(d) No error
3. (a) My grandfather owns
(b) Fifty acre
(c) Of wetland
(d) No error
4. (a) Belgiun chocolate is considered
(b) By many to be finer
(c) Than any others in the World
(d) No error
5. (a) Indian scientists are in no way
(b) Inferior than
(c) Any other scientist in the world
(d) No error
Directions (6–10): In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate words(s). Four alterna-
tives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer:
6. We didn’t _______ the programme to be such a huge success.
(a) except (b) expect
(c) access (d) accept
7. We should _______ opportunities as they arise.
(a) cease (b) size
(c) sneeze (d) seize
8. The students aren’t prepared _______ the examination.
(a) to listen (b) to work
(c) to take (d) to give
9. The government, in a bid to make Bihar, a preferred investment destination, has _______ major schemes to create infrastructure
at different stages.
(a) opposed (b) opened
(c) pushed (d) launched
10. I suffer from no _______ about my capabilities.
(a) doubts
(b) hallucinations
(c) imaginations
(d) illusions
Directions (11–15): In the following questions, out of four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word as
your answer.
11. Inadvertent (b) Unintentional
(a) Unexpected (d) Ignorant
(c) Undisturbed
(b) Protection
12. Fortitude (d) Similarity
(a) Courage
(c) Safety (b) Deceit
(d) Repetition
13. Duplicity
(a) Artlessness (b) Strength
(c) Cleverness (d) Faithfulness
14. Fidelity (b) Flag bearer
(a) Resourcefulness (d) Race driver
(c) Weakness
15. Vanguard
(a) Officer
(c) Pioneer
586 Objective English
Directions (16–20): In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the word opposite in meaning to the given word
as your answer.
16. Taciturn (b) Talkative
(a) Silent (d) Judge
(c) Immense
(b) Learned person
17. Artisan (d) Unskilled labour
(a) Skilled sculptor
(c) Ignorant villager (b) Haughty
(d) Hostile
18. Amicable
(a) Friendly (b) Allay
(c) Unpleasant (d) Abate
19. Mitigate (b) Hatred
(a) Aggravate (d) Avoidance
(c) Alleviate
20. Aversion
(a) Awareness
(c) Liking
Directions (21–25): In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase printed in bold in the sentence. Choose
the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase as your answer.
21. He was out of spirits for a few days after his defeat.
(a) Gloomy (b) Sober
(c) Lifeless (d) Uninvolved
22. When the family in the next house packed off at midnight, I began to smell a rat.
(a) To suspect a trick
(b) To misunderstand
(c) To see hidden meaning
(d) To smell a bad smell
23. At first, there was a show of resistance to the new rule issued by the Government, but the movement had no back bone and speedily
collapsed.
(a) Justification (b) Impact
(c) Strength (d) Support
24. The cops were on their toes throughout the day.
(a) Eager (b) Alert
(c) Harried (d) Quick
25. The minister assured the agitating employees that he would look into their demands sympathetically.
(a) Discuss (b) Watch
(c) Grant (d) Examine
Directions (26–30): In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (1), (2) and (3)
which may improve the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (4).
26. The Prolific writer’s work is published every year.
(a) Exquisite (b) Didactic
(c) Great (d) No improvement
27. Those plucking flowers are liable for punishable.
(a) Are liable for punishable
(b) Are liable for punishing
(c) Are liable to be punished
(d) Are viable for punishment
28. His lust for power brought about his downfall.
(a) Intense desire (b) Desire for power
(c) Desire for sex (d) No improvement
29. I’ II meet the raging of the skies, but not an angry father.
(a) Sunshine (b) Rain
(c) Anger (d) No improvement
SSC Tests 587
30. When we see black smoke near the wing of the plane, we were certain that disaster was imminent.
(a) When we were seeing
(b) When we saw
(c) When we had seen
(d) No improvement
Directions (31–35): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/
sentence.
31. Government by a small group of all powerful persons
(a) Monarchy (b) Democracy (c) Anarchy (d) Oligarchy
(d) Aromantic
32. One indifferent to art and literature is (d) Invincible
(d) Philatelist
(a) Critic (b) Philistine (c) Scholar (d) Peninsula
33. Open to injury or criticism
(a) Vulnerable (b) Naive (c) Sensitive
34. On who collects coins as a hobby
(a) Ornithologist (b) Statistician (c) Numismatist
35. A narrow piece of land connecting two large masses of land
(a) Isthmus (b) Continent (c) Gulf
Directions (36–40): In the following questions, there are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt
word as your answer.
36. (a) Beneficil (b) Beneficial (c) Benifical (d) Benificial
37. (a) Avericious (b) Avaricious (c) Avarisious (d) Averisious
38. (a) Internaly (b) Coldly (c) Fortunately (d) Uniquely
39. (a) Affectionately (b) Afectionately (c) Affectionnality (d) Affactionately
40. (a) Apprehension (b) Apprihension (c) Aprihension (d) Apprehenson
Directions (41–50): In the following questions, you have two brief passages with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages
carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Passage I
Questions (41–45)
If this is so, if to read a book as it should be read calls for the rarest qualities of imagination, in sight and judgment. You may perhaps
conclude that literature is a very complex art and that it is unlikely that we shall be able, even after a life time of reading, to make any
valuable contribution to its criticism. We must remain readers, were shall not put on the further glory that belongs to those rare beings
who are also critics,
41. What is the opinion of most of the people about literature?
(a) That it is not an easy one to contribute anything
(b) That it is the some extent difficult to understand
(c) That no contribution is necessary for literature
(d) That it is very easy to understand
42. The antonym of conclude is
(a) Commence (b) Exclude (c) End (d) Include
43. According to the author
(a) It is not possible for most of us to contribute anything for criticism
(b) It is possible to do something
(c) It is not even easy to understand literature
(d) Most of the people can contribute to criticism of literature
44. The author feels that we cannot have the greatness of
(a) Writers (b) Critics (c) Publishers (d) Readers
45. What are the qualities required for reading a book?
(a) Proper judgement
(b) Imagination
(c) Imagination, insight and Judgement
(d) None of the above
588 Objective English
Passage II
Questions (46–50)
These days not even many politicians deny that the oceans are ill protecting the health of coastal waters is now a matter of national policy
in dozens of countries including the U.S. and world leaders are beginning to prescribe a revolutionary remedy that conservationists have
been promoting for years: marine planning and zoning. The idea is a natural extension of management policies that have guided the
development of cities and landscapes for nearly a century. Zoning advocates envision a mosaic of regional maps in which every watery
space on the planet is designated for a particular purpose. Drilling and mining would be allowed only in certain parts of the ocean; fish-
ing in others. The most critically threatened areas would be virtually off-limits. Whereas people can easily find maps telling them what
they can do where on land, the marine realm is a hodge—podge of rules emanating from an army of agencies, each one managing a
single use or symptom.
46. Marine planning and zoning is a ______ to protect the coastal waters.
(a) Conservationists’discovery
(b) Marine project
(c) Revolutionary remedy
(d) National Policy of the U.S.
47. These days ______ that the oceans are not in good health.
(a) Most of the politicians agree
(b) All politicians agree
(c) Nobody agrees
(d) Everybody agrees
48. ‘Marine realm’ is a hodge—podge of rules means
(a) Seas need to be cleaned
(b) There are no uniform laws governing the seas.
(c) There is total Anarchy
(d) Critical Areas are not being looked after properly.
49. Seazoning is all about ______.
(a) Drilling and sea mining
(b) Conserving the environment
(c) Banning fishing in the sea
(d) Dividing watery space for specific purposes
50. ‘Conservationist’ means ______.
(a) A marine engineer.
(b) One who looks after others
(c) One who prevents something from destruction.
(d) A Proficient speaker
Answers 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (a)
14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b)
1. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b)
13. (b) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (b)
25. (d) 50. (c)
37. (b)
49. (d)
SSC Tests 589
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL TIER II
Error Identification Fill in the Blanks Synonyms Antonyms
Reading 20 5 33
Comprehension 10% 1% 1%
2% Spellings
30
15% 3 Type of Questions No. of MCQs
Cloze Tests Error Identification 20
25 2% Fill in the Blanks 5
13% Synonyms 3
Idiom/Phrases Antonyms 3
10
5% Spellings 3
Idiom/Phrases 10
Jumbled Words Jumbled Words 20
20 One Word Substitution 12
10% Active/Passive Voice 20
Sentence Improvement 22
Direct/Indirect Form Sentence Active/Passive One Word Direct/Indirect Form 27
27 Improvement Voice Substitution Cloze Tests 25
14% 20 Reading Comprehension 30
22 10% 12 TOTAL 200
11% 6%
English Language and Comprehension
Directions (1–20): In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a
sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, then your answer is (4) i.e. No error.
1. (a) I don’t suppose (b) anyone will volunteer.
(c) will they? (d) No error
2. (a) I am
(b) looking forward for
(c) the day of my wedding.
(d) No error.
3. (a) ‘Can you cope up (b) with all this
(c) work ?’ he asked (d) No error
4. (a) He served as President
(b) of the lions Club
(c) since fiftheen years.
(d) No error
5. (a) That was (b) the most unique opportunity
(c) he got in his life (d) No error
6. (a) There is
(b) no place of you
(c) in this compartment.
(d) No error
7. (a) Mother Teresa asked a building
(b) where she and her workers
(c) could care for the poor people always
(d) No error
8. (a) Shelley is
(b) superior than Byron
(c) in his vision of democracy.
(d) No error