18 Centuries of Physical Education and Sports Sciences

(c) Articles that discuss theories or concepts and their application to

practice

(d) Published studies that used qualitative methodology

1525. In critically reviewing a report of a quantitative study the area of
1526.
1527. the report you would focus on to appraise credibility is the.
1528.
(a) Introduction (b) Methodology
1529.
(c) Ethical issues (d) Report of the analysis
1530.
Constraints or problems in a study are known as.

(a) Assumptions (b) Generalizations

(c) Concepts (d) Limitations

The section/sentence that includes the aim or purpose of the study

is found in the. (b) Methodology
(a) Literature review

(c) Introduction (d) Theoretical framework

When evaluating the research study results you would consider all

of the following as important except.
(a) The author's qualifications and experience

(b) The design and methodology for the study

(c) The significance of the findings for nursing practice

(d) The discussion of results and recommendations for practice

When appraising the statistical results of a study you need to.

(a) Not worry about understanding the results as the researcher has

analyzed them for the reader

(b) Assume that the right statistical tests have been used to answer the

research question

(c) Just understand what the p-value means

(d) Search for the researcher's rationale for the statistical tests & results

In critiquing a qualitative research report you would expect to find

information that would assist you in assessing the credibility of the

study in the. (b) Discussion of analysis of the
(a) Literature review

data

(c) Methodology (d) Philosophical integration

244

1531. The final paper of a critical review of literature contains.
1532. (a) A summary of each author's work you have read
1533.
1534. (b) A description of the findings in each piece of research
1535.
(c) A synthesis of the analysis of the information in the reviewed
papers

(d) Your analysis of each piece of literature

In making a decision about which appraisal tool to use when
undertaking a critical review of six phenomenological studies, the
best action is to.
(a) Select a generic tool that will cover general aspects

(b) Use the steps of the research process as your guideline

(c) Follow the example of a previously written critique of qualitative
research

(d) Select a specific tool for the study design you are critiquing

A systematic review is best described as a critical analysis of.
(a) All available literature on a specific topic

(b) Current clinical guidelines

(c) All available research studies on a specific topic

(d) All validation studies

Systematic reviews involve a structured process similar to that used
in primary research. For a successful systematic review the most
important factor is that.
(a) Multiple data bases and search engines are available

(b) There is a clear and well-defined research focus and question

(c) There is a large team with different expertise to carry out the
review

(d) Members of the team can be released to work on the project

A systematic review differs from a literature review in that
eligibility criteria are developed based on.
(a) Population and outcome of interest, and intervention

(b) Interventions and comparisons the question is concerned with

(c) Population, outcomes of interest and comparisons

(d) Population and outcomes of interest, interventions & comparisons

245

1536. Literature collected for a systematic review differs from a literature

1537. review as it includes relevant.
1538.
1539. (a) Randomised controlled trials published in high impact journals
1540.
1541. only

(b) Articles published about studies found by a data base search

(c) Published and unpublished studies, papers and reports

(d) Literature obtained from two nursing data bases

Including grey literature in the review reduces.

(a) Publication bias (b) Validity of the studies

(c) The need to do a manual (d) Labour intensity of the

search search

The decision about which literature to include is performed through

a two-stage process, checking the studies.

(a) Against specific exclusion criteria

(b) By the team leader reading the abstracts

(c) Against specific inclusion and exclusion criteria

(d) By the journal of publication

In assessing the methodological quality of the studies being

reviewed, one of the factors examined is the method used to select

and allocate subjects to groups. This is to identify if there is a

possibility of.

(a) Performance bias (b) Systematic bias

(c) Attrition bias (d) Detection bias

To synthesize findings by performing a meta-analysis the studies

analyzed need to be homogenous. This means they have similar.

(a) Populations and varied designs

(b) Designs with varied groups and outcomes

(c) Populations, designs and outcomes

(d) Outcomes with different populations

A systematic review of qualitative studies can be undertaken by a.

(a) Statistical test for (b) Statistical test for

homogeneity heterogeneity

(c) Meta-analysis (d) Meta-synthesis

246

1542. Meta-aggregation refers to the process used in.
1543.
1544. (a) Searching for common metaphors and themes across different
1545.
studies
1546.
(b) Synthesizing similar categories from different studies

(c) Recording supportive data from the original studies

(d) Relating themes across the studies

Which of the following do we recommend as ways to build your

general knowledge of a topic area?
(a) Read a good recent textbook chapter
(b) Look for the most recent ‘in press’ publication before reading any

other material

(c) Find and use a reader on the topic in question

(d) Answers A and C

Which of the following are relevant databases for most psychology

dissertation topics? (b) Web Of Science
(a) PsychINFO

(c) ACEA (d) Answers A and B

Which of the following is the sequence in which you should use a

database?
(a) Limit dates of papers; print out full text papers; read abstracts;

enter search terms

(b) Print out papers; read abstracts; limit dates; think of search terms

(c) Think of search terms; enter terms into database; limit dates of

papers; read abstracts; print out full text papers

(d) None of the above

Which of the following are top tips we offer to help you improve

your use of the literature?

(a) Keep a research notebook

(b) Sort your references in a spreadsheet
(c) Apply Fisher’s notation to the arguments you encounter

(d) All of the above

247

1547. Which of these describes our advice on using internet search
1548. engines?
1549. (a) Engines such as Yahoo and Google are much more efficient and
1550.
1551. effective than databases such as PsychINFO
(b) Web addresses ending in .ac.uk, or Edu are generally bona fide

academic sources
(c) Wiki entries are more up to date and accurate than journal articles

(d) None of the above

Which of the following are ways in which we suggest you might
maximize your marks?
(a) Using the internet to find key researchers

(b) Review notes you made on editorial and overview papers and
chapters

(c) Be as critically evaluative of your own study as you were of other
people’s

(d) All of the above

Which of the following steps are likely to help you avoid accidental
plagiarism?
(a) Cut and paste accurately from published works

(b) Make superficial changes to the words used in published papers

(c) Make short bullet point notes in your own words

(d) Answers A and B

To be original a study must be.

(a) Radically different from previous research

(b) Conducted with a sample that has never been studied before

(c) Addressing a gap in the existing research literature

(d) All of the above

What do you need to be able to provide in order for your research
to pass the ‘so what?’ test?
(a) Reasons why the research is important

(b) Implications of answering the research question

(c) Proof that no-one has ever conducted a similar study

(d) Answers A and B

248

1552. …………. tend to be generally expressed; a …………. is a specific
1553.
1554. prediction about what we will find.
1555.
1556. (a) Hypotheses; research question

(b) Research questions; hypothesis

(c) Null hypotheses; research question

(d) None of the above

Which of these are reasons why it is so important to get your

research question right?
(a) The RQ articulates the gap that you have found in the literature

(b) The RQ will guide the design of the study

(c) The RQ will inform the content of your discussion section

(d) All of the above

How do we suggest you deal with competing/alternative theoretical

frameworks?
(a) Choose the one that has been used most often in published papers

(b) Ensure that you only refer to papers from your chosen theoretical

framework

(c) Evaluate the quality of evidence for each

(d) Choose only frameworks that have been developed in the past ten

years

………… are typically peer reviewed, which means that the
published work is guaranteed to be flawless; ………… are usually

subjected to less stringent evaluation.

(a) Journal articles; book chapters

(b) Book chapters; journal articles

(c) Conference papers; journal articles

(d) None of the above

Which of the following would you do if you applied Fisher’s

notation technique to a chapter or paper?
(a) Underline any conclusions (b) Put curly brackets around any

citations to published work

(c) Skim read the text (d) Answers A and C

249

1557. Which of the following do we suggest may be misplaced criticisms
1558.
1559. of published work?
1560.
1561. (a) Criticizing work without considering the date when it was

published

(b) Criticizing work on the basis that the sample was not truly random

(c) Criticizing studies for their small sample size without considering

the difficulty of accessing the population

(d) All of the above

Which of the following is recommended as a first step in abstracting

a reference?

(a) Read the entire article and highlight potential direct quotes

(b) Record all bibliographic information

(c) Summarize the article

(d) Read the abstract and/or skim the article

A literature review is characterized by all of the following Except.

(a) Summarize and report each article

(b) Use important topics as the organizational structure of the review

(c) Analyze all articles for similarities and differences related to major

topics

(d) Discuss implications relative to the research problem

Which of the following is a major characteristic of a meta-analysis?

(a) The review includes as many studies as is possible

(b) The results of each study are translated statistically into an effect

size

(c) The average of all effect sizes provides a summary of the

occurrence of effects of the studies

(d) All of the above

Dr. Kirby computed an effect size of .83 for her study comparing

the effectiveness of a computerized algebra program to that of a

traditional instructional approach. This effect size is best described

as.

(a) Small (b) Moderate

(c) Large (d) It is not possible to interpret

an effect size

250

1562. The three Nobel prize winners whose research work involved

1563. muscle or muscular exercise were.
1564.
1565. (a) A.V. Hill, August Krogh and Otto Meyerhof
1566.
(b) J.S. Haldane, Christian Bohr and C.G. Douglas
1567.
1568. (c) D.B. Dill, L.J. Henderson and van Slyke

(d) Steven Horvath, Sid Robinson and E. Asmussen

The term “maximal oxygen uptake” was introduced in 1924 by.

(a) Rudolpho Margaria (b) D.B. Dill

(c) A.V. Hill (d) Otto Meyerhof

Otto Meyerhof is recognized for his work on.

(a) Metabolism of citric acid (b) Fat metabolism during long-

term work

(c) Metabolism of glucose (d) Maximal oxygen uptake

An exercise physiology institute in Denmark bears the name of this

Nobel prize winner.

(a) Rudolpho Margaria (b) August Krogh

(c) A.V. Hill (d) Otto Meyerhof

Two European scientists who did pioneering work in the role of O2

and lactic acid in the control of breathing during exercise were.

(a) Peter F. Scholander and Dr. Dudley Sargent

(b) Steven Horvath and Thomas K. Cureton

(c) C.G. Douglas and J.S. Haldane

(d) Dr. Bruno Balke and T.H. Huxley

The Harvard Fatigue Laboratory was open from.

(a) 1927 to 1980 (b) 1927 to 1947

(c) 1947 to 1980 (d) 1927 to 1937

Dr. D.B. Dill's classic exercise physiology text is.

(a) Life, Heat and Altitude

(b) The Harvard Fatigue Laboratory

(c) Maximal Oxygen Uptake

(d) Physiology of Bodily Exercise

251

1569. A fellow of the Harvard Fatigue Laboratory who developed the
1570.
1571. chemical gas analyzer was.
1572.
1573. (a) Peter F. Scholander (b) Rudolpho Margaria
1574.
1575. (c) Dr. Bruno Balke (d) Otto Meyerhof

1576. President Kennedy expressed concerns about the nation's fitness in

an article called.

(a) “President’s Council on (b) “The Soft American”

Physical Fitness”

(c) “AAHPERD's Physical Best” (d) “Corporate Fitness”

The Healthy People 2000 Health Objectives was concerned with.

(a) Increasing exercise (b) Reducing dietary fat intake

(c) Decreasing tobacco use (d) All of the above

In 1950, the number of colleges or universities that had research

laboratories in departments of physical education was.

(a) 151 (b) 68

(c) 58 (d) 16

Paralleling the interest in the physical fitness of America's youth in

the 1960's was the rising concern about.

(a) Infectious disease (b) Contagious disease

(c) Fitness testing (d) Heart disease

By 1969, how many Ph.D. students had completed their work under

the direction of Thomas K. Cureton?

(a) 16 (b) 68

(c) 58 (d) 30

The acronym ACSM stands for.

(a) The American College of Sports Medicine

(b) The Association of Cardiovascular and Sports Medicine

(c) The American Cardiovascular and Sports Meeting

(d) The Association of Chemistry and Sports Medicine

Which journal did the American Physiology Society publish in 1948

to bring together work in exercise and environmental physiology?

(a) Journal of Biological Chemistry

(b) Medicine Science Sports and Exercise

252

(c) International Journal of Sports Medicine

(d) Journal of Applied Physiology

1577. In 1969, ACSM first published the research journal.
1578.
(a) Sports Medicine
1579.
1580. (b) Journal of Clinical Investigation
1581.
(c) Medicine and Science in Sports and Exercise

(d) Journal of Applied Physiology

Three professional organizations that support the work of exercise

physiology are.

(a) American College of Sports Medicine, American Physiology

Society, American Association of Health Physical Education and

Recreation

(b) American College of Sports Medicine, American Physiology

Society, Medicine and Science in Sports

(c) American Physiology Society, American Association of Health,

Physical Education and Recreation, Harvard Fatigue Laboratory

(d) Medicine and Science in Sports, Journal of Applied Physiology,

American College of Sports Medicine
The term “basic research” usually refers to.

(a) Describing the responses of persons to exercise

(b) Describing the responses of persons to environmental factors

(c) Examining the mechanisms underlying a physiological issue

(d) Examining the responses of persons to nutritional factors

The term “applied research” usually refers to.

(a) Describing the responses of persons to exercise

(b) Describing the responses of persons to environmental factors

(c) Describing the responses of persons to nutritional factors

(d) All of the above

Exercise physiology research is moving along a continuum to the

domain of. (b) Epidemiology
(a) Cell biology

(c) Whole body metabolism (d) Role of exercise in disease

prevention

253

1582. How would you define ‘the research processes?

1583. (a) The researcher's plan of action to be followed when carrying out

1584. research
1585.
1586. (b) A method of collecting research data

(c) The stages or steps the researcher follows in carrying out a research

project

(d) The account of a study the researcher will write at the end of the

study ready for publication

Why does a researcher write a research proposal at the start of a

study?

(a) So they will not forget what they are doing during the study

(b) So they can advertise for people to take part in the study

(c) To make sure they have not left any part of the study out when they

are planning it

(d) To apply for ethical approval and to gain permission to access

participants or sources of data

The research process can be compared to which of the following?

(a) A train timetable (b) The spine of a skeleton

(c) The problem-solving process (d) Academic theories

How does audit differ from research?

(a) It does not need as many people to collect the information

(b) It can be carried out on inanimate objects

(c) It is more likely to be applicable to nursing

(d) It does not increase our understanding of the topic itself or allow

us to transfer the results to other situations

When might a researcher not carry out a full review of the literature

at the start of a study?

(a) In the case of some qualitative research designs so that the

researcher is not influenced or biased by the ideas that already exist

(b) To save time

(c) To save money

(d) If the literature is old and will not provide a firm basis for the study

254

1587. What is a hypothesis?

1588. (a) A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data
1589.
1590. collected in a study

1591. (b) A research question the results will answer
1592.
(c) A theory that underpins the study
1593.
(d) A statistical method for calculating the extent to which the results

could have happened by chance

Which one of the following is not a qualitative approach to

research?

(a) Grounded Theory (b) Philanthropy

(c) Ethnography (d) Phenomenology

Which of the following is not a quantitative approach to research?

(a) Statistics (b) Quasi-experiment

(c) Survey (d) Randomized Control Trial

What does the term ‘reliability’ indicate?

(a) We can trust that the research has being carried out to a high

standard

(b) That the results are accurate

(c) That the researcher can be trusted

(d) That the tool of data collection can be regarded as measuring

accurately and consistently

What is a pilot study?

(a) A small scale study (b) A study involving pilots

(c) A study to test the tool of (d) A study that is the first of its

data collection type

A good qualitative problem statement.

(a) Defines the independent and dependent variables

(b) Conveys a sense of emerging design

(c) Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested

(d) Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher

expects to find
The “tool” function of theory is to.

(a) Summarize existing knowledge

255

1594. (b) Summarize existing hypotheses
1595.
(c) Suggest new relationships and make new predictions
1596.
1597. (d) Suggest new theories

The statement of purpose in a research study should.

(a) Identify the design of the study

(b) Identify the intent or objective of the study

(c) Specify the type of people to be used in the study

(d) Describe the study
Why is the statement “What are the effects of extracurricular
activities on cognitive development of school age children” not a
good statement of a quantitative research Question?
(a) Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities

and cognitive development
(b) Because there are not enough school age children engaged in

extracurricular activities to conduct the study
(c) Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the

different extracurricular activities
(d) Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an

understanding of the variables being investigated
A qualitative research question.

(a) Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be
explored

(b) Is generally an open-ended question

(c) Both the above

(d) None of the above

According to the text, which of the following orders is the
recommended in the Flowchart of the development of a research
idea?
(a) Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research

question, hypothesis
(b) Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research

question, hypothesis
(c) Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research purpose,

research question

256

(d) Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question,
research purpose

1598. It is essential that you evaluate the quality of internet resources
1599. because information obtained via the internet ranges from very
1600.
poor to very good. (b) False
(a) True

(c) Partially True (d) Partially False

One step that is not included in planning a research study is.

(a) Identifying a researchable problem

(b) A review of current research

(c) Statement of the research question

(d) Conducting a meta-analysis of the research

(e) Developing a research plan

Sources of researchable problems can include.

(a) Researchers’ own (b) Practical issues that require

experiences as educators solutions

(c) Theory and past research (d) All of the above

257

1501. B 1521. D Answers 1561. C 1581. A
1502. A 1522. C 1562. A 1582. C
1503. B 1523. B 1541. D 1563. C 1583. D
1504. A 1524. C 1542. B 1564. C 1584. B
1505. A 1525. B 1543. D 1565. B 1585. D
1506. A 1526. D 1544. D 1566. C 1586. A
1507. B 1527. C 1545. C 1567. B 1587. A
1508. B 1528. A 1546. D 1568. A 1588. B
1509. C 1529. D 1547. B 1569. A 1589. A
1510. C 1530. B 1548. D 1570. B 1590. D
1511. B 1531. C 1549. C 1571. D 1591. C
1512. A 1532. D 1550. C 1572. D 1592. B
1513. A 1533. C 1551. D 1573. D 1593. C
1514. B 1534. B 1552. B 1574. B 1594. B
1515. B 1535. D 1553. D 1575. A 1595. D
1516. C 1536. C 1554. C 1576. D 1596. C
1517. D 1537. A 1555. D 1577. C 1597. A
1518. B 1538. C 1556. D 1578. A 1598. A
1519. C 1539. B 1557. D 1579. C 1599. D
1520. B 1540. C 1558. D 1580. D 1600. D
1559. A
1560. D

258

1601. Unit 17

a. If the event of interest is A, then which of the following
b. statements is correct?
the probability that A will not occur is 1 – P(A)
c.
the probability that A will not occur is the probability of the
complement of A
the probability that A will occur is zero if event A is impossible

d. the probability A will occur is one if event A is certain
e. all of the above statements are correct
1602. Which of the following definitions is correct?
a. an activity, which results in an outcome, is called an event
b. the probability of an event is expressed in decimal form
ranging from -1 to +1
c. the sample space refers to all possible outcomes of an
experiment
d. the probability that an event will occur is called the experiment
e. an event is the combination of all possible outcomes
1603. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. if only one of the two events A and B can occur, in other
words, the occurrence of one excludes the occurrence of the
b. other event, then events A and B are mutually exclusive
if events A and B can occur at the same time, then A and B
c. intersect
if event A does not occur, then its complement, Ā, will also
d. not occur
a union of two events (eg: A or B) occurs when at least one of
e. the two events occurs
If all possible outcomes of an experiment are represented in a
1604. set, the set is considered to be exhaustive
If a contingency table shows the gender and year of study
a. of BusSci students (i.e.: first year, second year, third year
or fourth year) in your statistics class, which of the
following statements is/are true?
the events “male student” and “female student” are mutually
exclusive events

259

b. because of the fact that your stats class is a BusSci course only,

c. all the events are exhaustive, in other words, each student must

d. fall into one of the classifications

e. an example for the intersection of events (eg: A and B) would
1605.
a. be of male students who are in first year
c.
e. an example for the union of events (eg: A or B) would be
1606.
a. students who are female or in second year
c.
e. all of the above statements are correct
1607.
Two events, A and B, are said to be mutually exclusive if:
a.
c. P(A | B) = 1 b. P(B | A) = 1
e.
1608. P(A and B) = 1 d. P(A and B) = 0

a. none of the above
c.
e. Two events, A and B, are said to be independent if:
1609.
P(A and B) = P(A).P(B) b. P(A and B) = P(A) + P(B)
a.
c. P(A | B) = P(B) d. P(B | A) = P(A)

none of the above

Fill in the missing word in the following statement with one

of the options listed below: Events are ___________ when

the occurrence of one event has no effect on the probability

that another event will occur.

mutually exclusive b. independent

exhaustive d. dependent

simultaneous

Fill in the missing word in the following statement with one

of the options listed below: Events are ___________ when

the occurrence of one event changes the probability that

another event will occur.

mutually exclusive b. independent

exhaustive d. dependent

simultaneous

In the notation below, X is the random variable, c is a

constant, and V refers to the variance. Which of the

following laws of variance is not correct?

V(c) = 0 b. V(X + c) = V(X)

V(X + c) = V(X) + c d. V(c X) = c2 V(X)

260

e. all of the above are
1610.
a. correct
c.
e. You are given the following: P(A and E) = 0.17, P(Ā and E)
1611 = 0.32, P(A and Ē) = 0.17 and P(Ā and Ē) = 0.34. Which of
a.
the following statements about A and E is correct?

A and E are mutually b. A and E are mutually exclusive

exclusive and and dependent

independent

A and E are not d. A and E are not mutually

mutually exclusive but exclusive and are dependent

are independent

None of the above

statements is correct
You are given the following: P(A and E) = 0.20, P(Ā and E)
= 0.32, P(A and Ē) = 0.15 and P(Ā and Ē) = 0.33. Which of

the following statements about A and E is correct?

. A and E are mutually b. A and E are mutually exclusive

exclusive and and dependent

independent

c. A and E are not d. A and E are not mutually
e.
1612. mutually exclusive but exclusive and are dependent
a.
c. are independent
e.
None of the above

statements is correct
You are given the following: P(A and E) = 0.19, P(Ā and E)
= 0.38, P(A and Ē) = 0.13 and P(Ā and Ē) = 0.3. Which of

the following statements about A and E is correct?

A and E are mutually b. A and E are mutually exclusive

exclusive and and dependent

independent

A and E are not d. A and E are not mutually

mutually exclusive but exclusive and are dependent

are independent

None of the above

statements is correct

261

1613. You are given the following: P(A and E) = 0.17, P(Ā and E)
a. = 0.33, P(A and Ē) = 0.20 and P(Ā and Ē) = 0.3. Which of

the following statements about A and E is correct?

A and E are mutually b. A and E are mutually exclusive

exclusive and and dependent

independent

c. A and E are not d. A and E are not mutually

e. mutually exclusive but exclusive and are dependent
1614.
are independent
a.
None of the above
c.
statements is correct
e. You are given the following: P (A and E) = 0.16, P (Ā and
1615.
a. E) = 0.32, P(A and Ē) = 0.12 and P(Ā and Ē) = 0.40. Which
c.
e. of the following statements about A and E is correct?
1616.
a. A and E are mutually b. A and E are mutually exclusive
c.
e. exclusive and and dependent
1617.
a. independent

A and E are not d. A and E are not mutually

mutually exclusive but exclusive and are dependent

are independent

None of the above

statements is correct

If P (A) = 0.8, P (B) = 0.3 and P (A|B) = 0.6, what is P (A

and B)?

0.18 b. 0.24

0.03 d. 0.30

0.15

If P (A) = 0.7, P (B) = 0.4 and P(A|B) = 0.6, what is P(A and

B)?

0.18 b. 0.24

0.03 d. 0.30

0.15

If P (A) = 0.8, P (B) = 0.3 and P (A|B) = 0.1, what is P (A

and B)?

0.18 b. 0.24

262

c. 0.03 d. 0.30
e.
1618. 0.15

a. If P (A) = 0.1, P (B) = 0.5 and P (A|B) = 0.6, what is P (A
c.
e. and B)?
1619.
0.18 b. 0.24
a.
c. 0.03 d. 0.30
e.
1620. 0.15

a. If P (A) = 0.6, P (B) = 0.3 and P (A|B) = 0.5, what is P (A
c.
e. and B)?
1621.
0.15 b. 0.42
a.
c. 0.27 d. 0.48
1622.
a. 0.15

b. If P (A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.7 and P(A|B) = 0.6, what is P(A and

c. B)?

d. 0.15 b. 0.42
1623.
0.27 d. 0.48
a.
c. 0.15
1624.
The expected value or _______ of a random variable is the
a.
center of its distribution.

Mode b. Median

Mean d. Bayesian inference

Point out the correct statement:

Some cumulative distribution function F is non-decreasing and

right-continuous

Every cumulative distribution function F is decreasing and

right-continuous

Every cumulative distribution function F is increasing and left-

continuous

None of the Mentioned

Which of the following of a random variable is a measure

of spread?

Variance b. Standard deviation

Empirical mean d. All of the Mentioned

The square root of the variance is called the ________

deviation.

Empirical b. Mean

263

c. Continuous d. Standard
1625.
a. Point out the wrong statement:
b.
c. A percentile is simply a quantile with expressed as a percent.

d. There are two types of random variable.

R cannot approximate quantiles for you for common

distributions.

None of the Mentioned.

1626. Which of the following inequality is useful for interpreting

a. variances?
c.
1627. Chebyshev b. Statutory

a. Testory d. All of the Mentioned
1628.
For continuous random variables, the CDF is the
a.
c. derivative of the PDF.
1629.
True b. False
a. Chebyshev’s inequality states that the probability of a “Six
c. Sigma” event is less than :
1630.
10% b. 20%
a.
1631. 30% d. 40%
a.
b. Which of the following random variables are the default
c.
d. model for random samples?
e.
f. iid b. Id
1632.
a. pmd d. All of the above

Cumulative distribution functions are used to specify the

distribution of multivariate random variables.

True b. False

Which of the following points do not reflect statistics?

It describes methods of collecting, quantitative data

It describes ways of analyzing qualitative data

It describes methods for analyzing quantitative data

They can be descriptive

It is a while subject of study

They can be inferential

What is the first stage in statistics?

Summarize data b. Collect data

264

c. Identify the group of d. Analyse data

e. people to be studied
1633.
Review the materials f. Organize data
a.
b. Why must you review the materials produced using
c.
d. statistics?
e.
To organize data
f.
1634. None of these
a.
b. To collect the data in an appropriate way
c.
d. To prove something is true

e. To draw conclusions and attempt to answer the researcher's
f.
1635. question/hypothesis

a. To identify the group to be studied
c.
e. How do statistics inform the reader of the central message?
1636.
Summarizing and creating meaning from aggregated data
a.
b. By saying what is false
c.
d. They don't inform the reader
e.
f. By providing insights into how people construct meaning
1637.
a. through discourse
b.
None of these

By saying what is true

Significance testing is based on which of the following

principles?

Falsification b. Construction

Verification d. Evaluation

Idealism f. Constructivism

Which of these measures can be used to present an average

for data?

Median, range, normal distribution

Alpha, mean and mode

Mode, alpha, range

Mean, beta and normal distribution

Standard deviation, range and mean

Mean, median and mode

What is probability?

Correlation

The likelihood that your results are true

265

c. The likelihood that something occurs due to chance
d.
e. The dispersion of the data
f.
1638. The integrity of the data

a. The central tendency
c.
e. If there is a probability of 5% in how many cases would a
1639.
result arise solely due to chance?
a.
c. 10/100 b. 0.0005
e.
1640. 5/100 d. 50/50

a. 1/50 f. None of these
b.
What is the conventional level of significance typically
c.
adopted in psychology?
d.
P > 0.01 b. P > 0.5
e.
P > 0.005 d. P > 0.001
f.
P < 0.5 f. P < 0.05
1641.
a. If your results say that the p value is < 0.001 what can you

b. conclude?
c.
d. That there was a significant relationship
e.
f. There was a significant result, this would have only arose

10/100 through chance

There was a significant result and this would have only arose

1/100 through chance

There was not a significant result, this would have only arose

10/100 through chance

There was a significant result and this would never have

happened through chance

There was not a significant result and the null hypothesis can

be rejected

Which of these statements reflect a null hypothesis?

There will be a significant difference between group 1 and

group 2

Men will score higher than women on spatial awareness

As temperature increases so too will the level of aggression

Women will score higher than men on empathy

Older adults will have worse memories than younger adults

There will be no relationship between caffeine consumption

and performance

266

1642. Accepting a false null hypothesis is an example of what?
a.
c. Type II error b. Probability testing
e.
1643. Type 1 error d. Chance

a. Experimenter bias f. Significance testing
c.
e. Incorrectly rejecting a true null hypothesis is an example
1644.
of what?
a.
c. Type II error b. Probability testing
e.
Type 1 error d. Chance
1645.
a. Experimenter bias f. Significance testing
c.
e. What name is given to data which is made up of
1646.
frequencies?
a.
c. Interval data b. None of these
e.
1647. Ordinal data d. Categorical data
a.
Normally distributed f. Ratio data
b.
c. data
d.
e. What name is given to data which can be ranked?
f.
1648. Positively skewed data b. Negatively skewed data
a.
b. Ordinal data d. Interval data
c.
Ratio data f. Categorical data

What name is given to data which is on a continuous scale

with a neutral zero?

Interval data b. Skewed data

Categorical data d. Ordinal data

Ranked data f. Ratio data

Which of the following findings is not a correlation?

As time spent revising increase the number of fails will

decrease

None of these

As testosterone increases so too does verbal aggression

Women scored higher than men on narcissism

As temperature increases ice-cream sales will also increase

As download prices increase sales will decrease

Which of the following would produce related data?

Comparing matched cohorts on one occasion

Testing the same participants on two occasions

Counter balancing

267

d. Random opportunity sampling
e.
f. Testing two different groups of participants at the same time
1649.
Testing two different groups of participants on two occasions
a.
c. What statistical test would be used with ordinal data
e.
1650. obtained from one sample?

a. Kruskal-Wallis b. Spearman's
c.
e. Related t-test d.. Friedman Anova by ranks
1651.
Mann-Whitney f. Wilcoxon
a.
b. What statistical test would be used with interval or ration
c.
d. data with multiple dependent variables?
e.
f. MANOVA b. Wilcoxon
1652.
a. Mixed ANOVA d. Independent t-tests

c. Related t-tests f. Repeated measures ANOVA

e. What is the correct term for a prediction which states the

1653. direction of an affect or relationship?

a. Two directional null hypothesis
c.
e. One-directional experimental hypothesis

Inferential hypothesis

Two-directional experimental hypothesis

One-directional null hypothesis

A research question

What are the two main quantitative research designs?

Association and b. Association and ethnography

experimental

Thematic and d. Discursive and quantitative

discursive

Correlational and f. Constructivist and

pseudo experimental

What term is given to the variable which is being

measured?

Dependent variable b. Quantitative variable

All of these d. Qualitative variable

Participant f. Independent variable

demographic

268

1654. What term is given to the variable which is manipulated?
a.
Pseudo dependent b. Participant variable
c.
e. variable
1655.
a. Independent variable d. Dependent variable
c.
e. Experimenter variable f. Interim variable
1656.
a. What does S mean?
c.
e. Median b. Number of participants
1657.
a. The sum of d. Mean
c.
e. Mode f. Range
1658.
a. What does S stand for?
c.
e. The sum of b. Mean
1659.
a. Mode d. Skewness

c. Standard deviation f. Range
e.
1660. What does x‾ mean?
a.
b. Range b. Mean
c.
d. Distribution d. Mode
e.
f. Standard deviation f. Median
1661.
a. What is the correct symbol for 'score'?
c. π b. Σ

Ψ d. X
¥ f. x‾

What must data be for parametric testing?

Free from extreme b. Not skewed

scores

Normally distributed d. Homogeneous

All of these f. At least interval level

How would you enter categorical data in SPSS?

It would be an interval scale

All of these are possible

None of these

It would be a ratio scale

You would code it

As words

What does each row in SPSS stand for?

Ordinal data b. One participant

Nominal data d. Interval data

269

e. One independent f. One dependent variable

1662. variable
a.
c. How are words entered into SPSS?
e.
1663. Demographics b. Ratio data
a.
Nominal data d. Interval data
b.
c. Categorical data f. String data
d.
e. Homogeneity of variance refers to what?
f.
The extent to which scores meet the assumption of interval
1664.
level data
a.
c. The extent to which data are positively skewed
e.
1665. None of these

a. The extent to which data are normally distributed
c.
e. To extent to which data are negatively skewed
1666.
The extent to which the distribution of scores varies between
a.
c. group
e.
1667. If you wanted to investigate the relationship between two

a. naturally occurring variables, what would you use?
c.
Experimental b. Associational

Content analysis d. Quasi-experimental

Interviews f. Discursive

If you wanted to investigate the quantitative effects of

premature birth on cognitive performance, what would

you use?

Associational b. Experimental

Correlational d. Discursive

None of these f. Quasi-experimental

Graphs which present the values on the horizontal axis and

the number of times this occurs on the vertical axis are

known as what?

Frequency distribution b. Box-plot

Line graph d. None of these

Cluster graph f. Scatter graph

What would you use to compare the frequency

distributions of more than one set of data?

Scatter graph b. Bar chart

Frequency distribution d. Frequency polygon

270

e. Line graph f. Box-plots
1668.
a. What shape is a normal distribution?
c.
e. Flat b. Inverted (U)
1669.
Ascending line d. Bi-modal
a.
b. Bell shaped f. Descending line
c.
d. What type of distribution is observed when most of the
e.
f. scores cluster around the lower end of the scale?
1670.
A bi-modal distribution
a.
b. A negatively skewed distribution
c.
d. A positively skewed distribution
e.
f. A normal distribution
1671.
a. A flat distribution
b.
c. A related distribution
d.
e. What type of distribution is observed when most of the
f.
1672. scores cluster around the higher end of the scale?

a. A bi-modal distribution
c.
e. A negatively skewed distribution

A positively skewed distribution

A normal distribution

A flat distribution

A related distribution

What type of distribution has two peaks?

A bi-modal distribution

A negatively skewed distribution

A positively skewed distribution

A normal distribution

A flat distribution

A related distribution

Which measure of central tendency is derived from the

most common value?

Variance b. Range

Median d. Mode

Distribution f. Mean

271

1673. Which measure of central tendency is obtained using the

a. middle score when all scores are organized in numerical
c.
e. order?
1674.
Variance b. Range
a.
c. Median d. Mode
e.
1675. Sum f. Mean

a. Which measure of central tendency is obtained by
c.
e. calculating the sum of values and dividing this figure by
1676.
the number of values there are in the data set?
a.
c. Dispersion b. Range
e.
1677. Median d. Mode

a. Sum f. Mean

c. Which measure is the most unreliable indicator of central
e.
tendency if data are skewed?
1678.
a. Dispersion b. Range

b. Median d. Mode
c.
Sum f. Mean

Calculating the difference between the largest and smallest

figure produces which figure?

Dispersion b. Range

Median d. Mode

Sum f. Mean

Which two measures use the mean as a baseline and

identify the extent to which scores differ from this?

Standard deviation and b. Standard deviation and median

range

Sum and variance d. Mode and median

Variance and standard f. All of the above

deviation

What does a large standard deviation suggest?

Scores are widely distributed and that the mean may not be a

reliable measure of central tendency

All of the measures of central tendency would be reliable

The scores are not widely distributed and the median would be

an unreliable measure of central tendency

272

d. Scores are not widely distributed and the mean is a reliable

e. measure of central tendency
f.
1679. Scores are not normally distributed

a. Scores are bi-modal
c.
e. Which percentage of scores falls within 1 standard
1680.
deviation from the mean?
a.
c. 50% b. 30%
e.
1681. 68% d. 9%

a. 99.7% f. 95%
c.
e. What percentage of scores falls within three standard
1682.
a. deviations from the mean?
c.
e. 99.7% b. 95%
1683.
50% d. 15%
a.
c. 68% f. None of These
e.
1684. By which other name is the chi-square goodness of fit test
a.
b. known?
c.
Chi-square Anova b. Wilcoxon
d.
e. Directional chi-square d. Two sample chi-square

One-sample chi-square f. None of these

What type of data do you need for a chi-square test?

Ratio b. Parametric

Categorical d. Interval

Ordinal f. Scales

How many variables do you need to run a one-sample chi-

square analysis?

At least 5 b. At least 3

At least 4 d. At least 2

You should only have 1 f. There are no restrictions

What is the purpose of a goodness-of-fit test?

To extract factors from the data

To assess whether several categorical variables are related

To assesses whether the central tendency, variability and

distribution of sample is different from that of the population

To identify significant effects

To find relationships in the data

273

f. To assess whether there is a significant difference between a

1685. collection of categorical data

a. How many cases need to appear in one category for chi-
c.
e. square?
1686.
a. 3 b. 1
b.
c. 4 d. 6
d.
e. 5 f. 2
f.
1687. How can you deal with low expected values?

a. You can transform your data
c.
You can exclude outliers
e.
1688. You have to redo your experiment
a.
b. You can increase your sample size or combine categories
c.
You can add more of the same number
d.
None of these
e.
f. In which section of the SPSS output will you find the chi-
1689.
a. square analysis?
c.
e. Test statistics box b. Expected N

Between group d. Observed N

comparisons

Anova f. Within group comparisons

What does a significant result in a chi-square test imply?

That homogeneity of variance has not been established

All of these are possible

It implies that the sample is not representative of the

population

That there is a significant difference between the three

categorical variables included in the analysis

That there is a significant negative relationship

That there is a significant positive relationship

What symbol is used to represent chi-square?
F b. χ2

R d. P
π f. Ψ

274

1690. What would a chi-square significance value of P > 0.05
suggest?
a. That there is a significant relationship between categorical
variables
b. That there is no significant difference between the sample and
the population
c. That there is no significant difference between categories
d. That there is a significant relationship between the sample and
the population
e. That there is no significant difference between time 1 and time
2
f. That there is a significant difference between the sample and
the population
1691. By which other name is a chi-square contingency table
analysis known?
a. Directional chi-square test
b. One-sample chi-square
c. Paired samples chi-square test
d. Chi-square test for independence
e. Directional chi-square
f. Independent samples chi-square test
1692. Chi-square test for independence assesses which of the
following?
a. It assesses whether there is a relationship between two
categorical variables
b. It assesses whether the minimum number of cases exceeds
recommended boundaries
c. It assesses whether there is a significant difference between
two categorical variables
d. It assesses whether there is a relationship between the
population and the sample
e. It assesses whether there is significant difference between
scores taken at time 1 and those taken at time 2
f. None of these

275

1693. Which tests could be used if your expected cases were

a. fewer than 5?
b.
c. Anova or Manova
d.
e. Pearson or Spearman's correlations
f.
1694. Paired or independent t-tests

a. Fisher's Exact Probability Test or Yates' Continuity Correction
c.
e. Cronbach's alpha or content analysis
1695.
a. All of these
b.
c. Which row would you normally consult to find your chi-
d.
e. square results in a Chi-square test for independence all
f.
1696. assumptions being met?

a. Fisher's exact test b. Pearson chi-square

c. Continuity correction d. Linear-by-linear association
e.
Likelihood ratio f. N of valid cases
1697.
What is an effect size?
a.
b. The likelihood of type 1 and type 2 errors

c. The variance explained by the measures
d.
e. The number of expected cases

The p value

The magnitude of the relationship between variables

The chi-square value

By what alternative name is Pearson's Correlation

Analysis also known?

Spearman's Correlation b. Kruskal-Wallis Correlational

Analysis Analysis

Mann-Whitney U Test d. Pearson's Product-Moment

Chi-Squared Product- f. None of these

Moment

What does a Pearson's product-moment allow you to

identify?

Whether there is goodness of fit for one categorical variable

Whether there is a significant effect and interaction of

dependent variables

Whether there is a significant difference between groups

Whether there is a significant difference between variables

Whether there is a relationship between variables

276

f. Whether there is a significant effect and interaction of

1698. independent variables

a. What type of data is required for a Pearson's analysis
c.
e. which does not include a dichotomous variable?
1699.
Ratio or nominal b. Interval or ratio
a.
Interval or nominal d. Nominal or ordinal
c.
e. Categorical or ratio f. Ordinal or interval

1700. What type of relationships does a Pearson's product-

a. moment assess?

c. Quadratic relationships b. It finds differences not
e.
relationships

Cubic relationships d. Curvilinear relationships

Bi-modal relationships f. It can only assess a linear

relationship

What must data be in order for a Pearson's product-

moment to be conducted?

Homogeneity of b. Homoscedasticity

variance

Free from outliers d. Parametric

Normally distributed f. All of these

277

1601. E 1621. Answer B 1681. E
1602. C 1622. C 1641. F 1661. F 1682. C
1603. C 1623. D 1642. A 1662. F 1683. E
1604. E 1624. A 1643. C 1663. B 1684. C
1605. D 1625. D 1644. D 1664. F 1685. E
1606. A 1626. C 1645. C 1665. A 1686. D
1607. B 1627. A 1646. F 1666. D 1687. A
1608. D 1628. B 1647. D 1667. E 1688. C
1609. C 1629. D 1648. F 1668. C 1689. B
1610. D 1630. A 1649. B 1669. B 1690. B
1611. D 1631. A 1650. A 1670. A 1691. D
1612. D 1632. B 1651. B 1671. D 1692. A
1613. D 1633. C 1652. A 1672. C 1693. D
1614. D 1634. E 1653. A 1673. F 1694. B
1615. A 1635. A 1654. C 1674. F 1695. E
1616. B 1636. A 1655. C 1675. B 1696. D
1617. C 1637. F 1656. E 1676. E 1697. E
1618. D 1638. C 1657. B 1677. A 1698. B
1619. A 1639. C 1658. D 1678. C 1699. F
1620. B 1640. F 1659. E 1679. A 1700. F
C 1660. E 1680.

278

Unit 18

1701. Homoscedasticity can be checked using which type of graph?
a.
c. Bar chart b. Pie chart
e.
1702. Scatter graph d. Histogram
a.
Line graph f. Box-plot
b.
c. A bell shaped curve to a scatter graph would suggest what?

d. There would be a non-linear relationship and a Pearson's product-
moment should not be used
e.
There is an outlier but a Pearson's product moment can still be used
f.
1703. There would be a linear relationship but a Pearson's product-
moment should not be used
a.
b. There would be a non-linear relationship and a Pearson's product-
c. moment should be used
d.
e. There would be a linear relationship and a Pearson's product-
f. moment should be used
1704.
None of these
a.
b. If all points cluster in an ascending line this would suggest
c. what?
d.
There would be a non-linear relationship

There would be a strong negative relationship

There would be a weak negative relationship

There would be a strong positive relationship

There would be a weak positive relationship

There would be no significant relationship

If most points depict a dispersed descending line this would
suggest what?

There would be a weak positive relationship

There would be a non-linear relationship

There would be no significant relationship

There would be a weak negative relationship

279

e. There would be a strong negative relationship
f.
1705. There would be a strong positive relationship

a. How should a significance level of 0.000 ideally be reported in
c. APA format?
e.
1706. P < 0.05 b. P < 0.5

a. P < 0.001 d. P > 0.01

b. 0.000 f. P > 0.05

c. A Pearson test statistic of .876 with a significance level of P <
0.01 would suggest what?
d.
This would suggest that there is a non-significant, weak, negative
e. relationship

f. This would suggest that there is a significant, weak, positive
1707. relationship

a. This would suggest that there is a non-significant, weak, positive
c. relationship
e.
1708. This would suggest that there is a significant, strong, negative
relationship
a.
c. This would suggest that there is a significant, strong, positive
relationship
e.
None of these

When reporting a Pearson's product-moment in APA format,
what letter do you use to indicate which test you used?

This would be P b. This would be r
This would be Σ d. This would be x

This would be F e. This would be N

What correlation can you use if your data do not meet the
assumptions of normal distribution?

Paired samples t-test b. ANCOVA

Independent samples d. Chi-square
t-test f. Spearman's rho
Mixed ANOVA

280

1709. A Spearman's test statistic of -.207 with a p = 0.057 would
suggest what?
a.
b. This would suggest a weak, significant, positive relationship

c. This would suggest a weak negative relationship which is
d. approaching significance
e.
This would suggest a strong, significant, positive relationship
f.
1710. This would suggest a weak, non-significant, positive relationship

a. This would suggest strong negative relationship which is
c. approaching significance
e.
1711 This would suggest strong , significant, negative relationship

a. When reporting a Spearman's Rho in APA format, what letter
b. do you use to indicate which test you used?
c.
d. This would be P b. This would be r
e. This would be Σ d. This would be x
f.
1712. This would be F e. This would be N

a. What does a partial correlation analysis allow you to do which
b. Pearson's and/or Spearman analyses do not?
c.
d. It allows you to use dichotomous variables
e.
It allows you to control covariates

It allows you to use interval data

It allows you to use data which is not normally distributed

It allows you to use ratio data

None of these

An independent t-test can be used to assess which of the
following?

It assesses relationships between two ratio data sets

It assesses relationships between two interval data sets

It assesses goodness of fit

It assesses differences between two groups of participants

It assesses how many factors there are in questionnaire data

281

f. It assesses differences between scores obtained on two separate
occasions from the same participants
1713.
A repeated measures t-test can be used to assess which of the
a. following?
b.
c. It assesses relationships between two interval data sets

d. It assesses relationships between two ratio data sets
e.
f. It assesses differences between scores obtained on two separate
1714. occasions from the same participants

a. It assesses goodness of fit
c.
e. It assesses differences between two groups of participants
1715.
It assesses how many factors there are in questionnaire data
a.
b. Conducting multiple t-tests increases the likelihood of which of
c. the following?
d.
Type I error b. Finding correct conclusions
e.
f. Homogeneity d. Establishing normality
1716.
Type II error f. Accurate interpretation of the data
a.
b. How can the chance of committing a Type I error be reduced
when performing multiple comparisons?

Transform the data using square root

Check for homogeneity and normal distribution

Remove outliers

Apply the Bonferroni correction to adopt a more stringent
significance criterion or use more appropriate tests for multiple
comparisons

Transform the data using a quadratic equation

None of these

What assumption(s) must be met to conduct an independent-
samples t-test?

There must be random sampling of cases

The data from the dependent variable must be normally distributed

282

c. The data from the dependent variable must be interval or ratio
d.
e. The data from two cases are not linked in any way
f.
1717. There is equal variance in scores between the groups

a. All of these
b.
c. In which of the following cases would an independent-samples
t-test not be appropriate?
d.
Comparing men and women's IQ on one occasion
e.
f. Comparing the attitudes of Eastern and Western individuals

1718. Comparing the performance of individuals who either consumed
caffeine or did not
a.
c. Comparing students attitude change between the start and end of
e. their degree
1719.
Comparing younger and older adults level of teamwork
a.
b. Comparing levels of aggression between 1 group who experienced
c. high levels of excitation and 1 group who remained calm
d.
e. Which of the following statistics are important when
f. interpreting an independent samples t-test?

Descriptive statistics b. Mean difference

Levene's test d. T scores

Significance level f. All of these

What should Levene's test be in order to use the 'equal variance
assumed' row of a t-test?

It should be significant (P < 0.01)

It should be significant (P < 0.001)

It should be significant (P < 0.05)

Excluded

It should be significant (P > 0.05)

It should be non-significant (P > 0.05)

283

1720. Where would you look on an independent t-test output to
identify whether there was a significant difference between the
a. groups?
b. The F column
c. T-test for equality of mean section
d. The confidence interval columns
e. The correlation coefficient box
f. Levene's test column
1721. The descriptive statistics box
Which of the following formats is correct for reporting an
a. independent samples t-test in APA format?
b. U (22) = 5658, p > 0.05
c. F (17, 24) = 235.98, p < 0.05
d. r(18) = +.987, p = 0.06
e. t(34) = -.478, p < 0.001.
f. N = 22, P = 0.000, T = 1.489
1722. None of the above
a. What is the alternative name for a repeated-measures t-test?
b. Pearson's Product-Moment
c. A Wilcoxon test
d. A paired-samples t-test
e. Unrelated t-test
f. Spearman's Rho
1723. Chi-squared test of difference
In which of the following cases could you use a paired-samples
a. t-test?
b. When comparing two separate groups
c. When assessing goodness of fit
When comparing the same participants performance before and
after training

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d. When assessing relationships between two groups
e. When comparing men and women's scores
f. When assessing three groups or more
1724. Which section of a paired-samples t-test output can be
ignored?
a. The paired-samples b. Descriptive statistics
correlations
c. The t, df and Sig. d. Means
columns
e. The paired differences f. Standard deviations
1725. What are matched cases?
a. A tool for adjusting the alpha criterion
b. A way of transforming data to make it more normally distributed
c. Scores are obtained from a second group of participants who are
matched on vital characteristics with the first group of participants
d. Scores obtained from the same participants at time 1 and time 2 are
not standardized but compared
e. Scores obtained from the same participants at time 1 and time 2 are
standardized and compared
f. Scores are compared across two distinct groups of participants
1726. How should a paired-samples t-test be reported in APA
format?
a. N = 18, P = 0.000, T = 1.489
b. Mean = 90, r = 9.56, p = 0.05
c. Z = 4.87, t (29) = 5.93, p = 0.000
d. F (12, 29) = 9.67, p < 0.001
e. t(37) = +.3.67, p < 0.05
f. r (18) = +8.97, p > 0.005

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1727. What are the two types of variance which can occur in your
data?
a.
Repeated and b. Independent and confounding
c. extraneous

e. Experimenter and d. Personal and interpersonal
participant
1728.
a. Between or within f. Anova and Ancova
c. groups
e.
1729. What do ANOVA calculate?

a. T-scores b. Chi square
c.
e. Z-scores d. F ratios
1730.
R ratios f. Mann Whitney
a.
c. How many levels must there be in one independent variable for
e. an ANOVA to be used?
1731.
6 b. 2
a.
b. 3 d. 4
c.
d. 5 f. 1
e.
f. How many dependent variables must you have for an ANOVA
to be conducted?

3 ordinal variables b. Only 1 continuous variable

3 ratio variables d. 2 nominal variables

3 interval variables f. None of these

Which of the following assumptions must be met to use an
ANOVA?

There is only one dependent variable

The data must be normally distributed

There is homogeneity of variance

Random sampling of cases must have taken place

The dependent variable must be interval or ratio

All of these

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1732. What must a Levene's test be in order to use an ANOVA?
a.
b. Significant at p < 0.001
c.
d. Non-significant at p < 0.01
e.
f. Non-significant at p < 0.001
1733.
A Levene's statistic of above 0.05
a.
b. Non-significant at or above p > 0.05
c.
d. Significant at p < 0.01
e.
f. Where would you look on an ANOVA output to determine if
1734. there is an overall significant difference?

a. The Sig. column of the multiple comparisons
c.
e. Confidence intervals column
1735.
a. Descriptive statistics box
c.
e. The Sig. column of the ANOVA table
1736.
The Sig. column of the Levene's test
a.
b. None of these
c.
What would you use to determine whether significant
differences were observed between all levels of your
independent variable?

Box-plots b. F statistic

Post-hoc tests d. Confidence intervals

Descriptive statistics f. Histograms

What must you include when reporting an ANOVA?

Standard deviations b. P value

Degrees of freedom d. F statistic

Means f. All of these

How many independent and dependent variables are there in a
One-Way Within Groups ANOVA?

3 independent variable and 2 dependent variable

1 independent variable and 3 dependent variables

1 independent variable and 1 dependent variable

287

d. 2 independent variables and 1 dependent variable
e. 1 independent variable and 2 dependent variable
f. None of these
1737. In which column would you find the F statistic in a One-Way
Within Groups ANOVA output?
a. F column of the tests of within-subjects effects box
b. Sig. column of the tests of within-subjects effects box
c. In the last row of the pairwise comparisons box
d. In the error row
e. Partial eta squared column
f. Sig. column of the pairwise comparisons box
1738. What does partial eta squared tell us?
a. If data from the dependent variable is normally distributed
b. How much of the variance in the independent variable can be
accounted for by the dependent variable
c. How much of the variance in the dependent variable can be
accounted for by the independent variable
d. If homogeneity has been established
e. If there is a significant difference between groups
f. All of these
1739. How many dependent variables are there in a two-way
ANOVA?
a. 2 b. 1
c. 6 d. 5
e. 4 f. 3
1740. What are the two types of effects, you must be able to identify
from an ANOVA?
a. Main effects and interactions
b. Expected and error
c. Intentional effects and accidental findings

288

d. Main effects and serendipitous findings
e.
f. Explorative and intentional
1741.
None of these
a.
c. What type of MANOVA would be used with more than one
e. dependent variable and one independent variable with only
1742. two dichotomous levels?

a. Hotelling's T b. Factorial
c.
e. Bonferroni d. Levene's
1743.
One-way f. Two-way
a.
c. What type of MANOVA would be used with more than one
e. dependent variable and one independent variable with more
1744. than two levels?
a.
Hotelling's T b. Factorial
b.
c. Bonferroni d. Levene's
d.
e. One-way f. Two-way
f.
What type of MANOVA would be used with more than one
dependent variable and more than one independent variable
which all have more than two levels?

Hotelling's T b. Factorial

Bonferroni d. You would not use a MANOVA

One-way f. Two-way

What assumptions must be met for a MANOVA to be used?

You must have more cases in each cell than your number of
dependent variables

The dependent variable data must be interval or ratio

There is homogeneity of variance

There must be more than one dependent variable

The data must be normally distributed

All of these

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1745. In which section of a MANOVA output would you find the test
of covariance matrices?
a. The within-subjects effects box
b. The multivariate tests box
c. The levene's test section
d. The multiple comparisons box
e. The Box's test section
f. The between-subjects effects box
1746.
Which box of a MANOVA output will tell you exactly where
a. the differences in your data arose?
b. Nowhere, you must conduct post-hoc comparisons separately
c. The descriptive statistics tables
d. The tests of between-subjects effects box
e. The Levene's test box
f. The multivariate test box
1747. The Box's test section
a.
What is the purpose of a simple linear regression?
b. To assess whether there is a significant difference between
independent groups
c. To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on
multiple dependent variables
d. To assess whether there is a significant difference between repeated
measures
e. To predict scores on a dependent variable from scores on multiple
independent variables
f. To predict scores on a dependent variable from scores on a single
independent variable
To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on a
single dependent variable

290

1748. What is the purpose of a multiple regression?
a.
b. To predict scores on a dependent variable from scores on multiple
c. independent variables
d.
e. To assess whether there is a significant difference between repeated
f. measures
1749.
To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on
multiple dependent variables

To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on a
single dependent variable

To predict scores on a dependent variable from scores on a single
independent variable

To assess whether there is a significant difference between
independent groups

What does the Adjusted R squared value tell you?

a. The Adjusted R squared value tells you if there is a positive
b. relationship
c.
The Adjusted R squared value tells you if there is a significant
d. relationship
e.
f. The Adjusted R squared value tells you how much of the variance
1750. in the dependent variable can be accounted for by the independent
a. variable
b.
The Adjusted R squared value tells you if there is a negative
relationship

The Adjusted R squared value tells you if there is a significant
difference

None of these

Which of the following points are not true when conducting a
multiple regression?

Data must be normally distributed for multiple regression

Multiple regression can be used to assess quadratic relationships

291

c. The assumption of multicollinearity must be met for a multiple
regression
d. Data must be homogeneous for a multiple regression
e.
f. Multiple regression can be used to assess linear relationships
1751.
Data must be free from outliers for a multiple regression
a.
b. Which of these points reflect the assumption of
multicollinearity?
c.
d. Data must be normally distributed and not skewed
e.
f. The relationship between your independent variables must not be
above r = 0.7
1752. There must not be any extreme scores in the data set
a.
b. None of these
c.
d. The variance across your variables must be equal

e. An independent variable cannot be a combination of other
f. independent variables
1753. What are residuals?

a. Confidence intervals
c.
e. Uncontrolled variables
1754.
a. Serendipitous findings

Residuals are the differences between the observed and expected
dependent variable scores
Extreme scores

Left over scores

The assumption that the variance of the residuals about the
predicted dependent variable scores should be the same for all
predicted scores reflects which assumption?

Multicollinearity b. Homogeneity

Singularity d. Normality

Homoscedasticity f. All of these

What does a Normal P-P plot help you to test?

Independence b. Linearity

292

c. Homoscedasticity d. Normality
e.
1755. None of these f. All of these

a. What do you report in a multiple regression to say whether
c. your model was significant or not?
e.
1756. ANOVA b. Adjusted R squared

a. R squared d. Beta
b.
c. Chi-squared f. Correlation
d.
e. What degrees of freedom do you report in a multiple
f. regression?
1757.
a. Residual degree of freedom
b.
c. Regression degree of freedom
d. Regression and residual degrees of freedom
e.
None
f.
Error and residual degree of freedom
1758. Adjusted R squared and regression degrees of freedom

a. What does a beta of 0.478 mean?
That the correlation is significant
c.
e. That there is no predictive power in your independent variable

That the regression is not significant

That one model is a better predictor than another

This means that for every unit increase in your independent
variable, your dependent variable increases by 0.478 units
That the relationship between the independent and dependent
variables is not linear
What test assesses how well a set of independent variables can
predict a dependent variable while controlling or considering
the influence of other variables?

Hierarchical multiple b. Pearson's correlation
regression

Anova d. Simple multiple regression

Spearman's rho f. Hotellings T

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