Multiple Choice Questions on IPC - eBOOK

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First Edition 2021

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

ON

INDIAN PENAL CODE

1. For a person to raise defence of intoxication to escape criminal
liability, the intoxication:

A. Should be self-administered
B. Should not be self-administered
C. Should be administered without his will or knowledge
D. All of the above

2. ‘A’ beat his wife. She fell down and became unconscious. Believing
her to be dead and to save himself from being arrested for murder ‘A’
hanged her in the fan with rope. Post-mortem report disclosed her
death from hanging. ‘A’ is liable for—

A. Murder
B. Culpable homicide
C. Hurt
D. Grievous hurt

3. ‘A’ finds a purse with money, not knowing to whom it belongs; he
afterwards discovers that it belongs to ‘B’ and appropriates to his own
use. ‘A’ is guilty of-

A. Theft
B. Criminal misappropriation
C. Criminal breach of trust
D. Cheating

4. Section 82 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence which is done by
a child under:

A. Five years of age
B. Six years of age
C. Seven years of age
D. Twelve years of age

5. A person is stated to have ‘qualified immunity‘ under section 83, IPC
if he is aged:

A. above seven years and under eighteen years
B. above five years and under ten years
C. above seven years and under sixteen years
D. above seven years and under twelve years

6. A, an adult, had sexual intercourse with a widow below 16 years of age
with her consent-

A. A has not committed any offence
B. A has committed rape
C. A has committed adultery
D. None of the above

7. In which of the following cases the Privy Council made a distinction
between ‘common intention’ and ‘similar intention’?

A. Mayer Hans George v. State of Maharashtra
B. Srinivasmal Barolia V/s Emperor
C. Mahboob Shah V/s King Emperor
D. Bonda Kui V/s Emperor

Page | 2

8. A hangman who hangs the prisoner pursuant to the order of the judge,
enjoys the exemption for his act under which provision of Indian Penal
Code?

A. Section 78
B. Section 79
C. Section 81
D. Section 92

9. Suresh, 17, and Raina, 16, were in love. Suresh entices Raina for
marriage and takes her to another city. What offence has been
committed by Suresh?

A. Suresh has committed abduction
B. Suresh has committed kidnapping
C. Suresh hasn’t committed any offence as B has gone with her own

consent
D. Suresh is himself minor. Hence no offence has been committed

10. Insanity as a defence under Section 84, IPC, means that a person at
the time of doing an act, by reason of unsoundness of mind is
incapable of knowing:

A. the nature of the act
B. that what he is doing is wrong
C. that what he is doing is contrary to law
D. either (a) or (b) or (c)

Page | 3

11. Which of the sections deals with “intoxication’?

A. section 85 of IPC
B. section 86 of IPC
C. both (a) & (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)

12. Which section of the Indian Penal Code deals with the maxim ‘De
minimis non curat lex’ ?

A. Section 84
B. Section 85
C. Section 92
D. Section 95

13. The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 is:

A. Section 34 creates a specific offence while Section 149 does not
B. Active participation is required for Section 34 and no for Section 149
C. B0th A and B
D. Neither A nor B

14. Sudhir intentionally causes Vineet’s death, partly by illegally
omitting to give Vineet food, and partly by beating Vineet. Sudhir has
committed the offence of:

A. Grievous Hurt
B. Culpable Homicide Not Amounting to Murder
C. Attempt to Murder
D. Murder

Page | 4

15. As per Section 97, Every person has a right, subject to restrictions
contained in Section 99, to defend:

A. His Own Body or Property
B. Body or Property of any other person
C. Neither A or B
D. Both A and B

16. The Indian penal code is divided into...

A. XIXIII Chapters and 512 Sections
B. XXIXII Chapters and 511 Sections
C. XIIXVI Chapters and 501 Sections
D. XXIII Chapters and 511 Sections

17. Under IPC, the Right to private defence is available:

A. Under all circumstances
B. Where there is time to have the recourse to the protection of public

authorities
C. Where there is no time to have recourse to the protection of public

authorities
D. All of the above

18. As per Section 98, the right to private defence is available even
against:

A. Person with unsound mind
B. Intoxicated person
C. A person who does not have maturity of understanding
D. All of the Above

Page | 5

19. Omkar dies in possession of furniture and money. His servant
Pyarelal, before the money comes into the possession of any person
entitled to such possession, dishonestly misappropriates it. Pyarelal
has:

A. Committed an offence under section 378
B. Committed an offence under section 404
C. Committed an offence under section 405
D. Committed an offence under section 408

20. A, being executor to the will of a deceased person, dishonestly
disobeys the law which directs him to divide the effects according to
the will, and appropriates them to his own use. A has committed the
offence under:

A. Section 404
B. Section 405
C. Section 407
D. Section 408

21. The ingredients of section 34 of the IPC are-

A. A criminal act is done by several persons
B. The criminal act must be to further the common intention of all
C. There must be participation of all the persons in furthering the

common intention
D. All of the Above

Page | 6

22. Section ______ of the Indian Penal Code deals with the
commencement and continuance of the Right to Private Defence of
Property.

A. 102
B. 103
C. 104
D. 105

23. What is true with respect to Section 34 IPC?

A. Every person who is a part of the group should do something so as to
participate in the commission of the act.

B. The persons cannot be held liable if they have decided what to do and
then they have not done that thing

C. Only A and not B
D. Both A & B

24. The main essence of conspiracy that is embodied in section 120A of
Indian Penal Code is:

A. Agreement to do an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means
B. Some overt act in furtherance of the agreement made
C. Object for which the conspiracy was made should be achieved
D. All of the Above

Page | 7

25. Which of the following Principles runs through Section 32 to 38 of
IPC:

A. In certain circumstances some part of the act is attributed to a person
who may have performed only a fractional part of it.

B. In certain circumstances an entire act is attributed to a person who
may have performed only a fractional part of it.

C. In certain circumstances an entire act is attributed to a person who
may have performed the whole of it.

D. In certain circumstances no act is attributed to a person who may
have performed only a fractional part of it

26. ‘Abetment’ under section 107 includes:

A. Provoking
B. Encouraging
C. Aiding
D. All of the Above

27. Which of the following is true for holding a person guilty for
abetment?

A. It is not necessary that the act abetted is committed or not.
B. It is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law

of committing an offence, or have the same guilty intention or
knowledge as that of the abettor.
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B

Page | 8

28. A quarrel arose between X on the one side and Y & Z on the other. X
abused Y, whereupon Y struck him with a stick, and Z struck him
down with an axe on the head and other parts of the body. X died. As
per doctors, any one of the three axe wounds was sufficient enough
to cause death, especially the one on the head. Choose the
appropriate statement:

A. Y is guilty of culpable homicide, while Z is guilty of voluntarily
causing hurt

B. Z is guilty of culpable homicide, while Y is guilty of voluntarily
causing hurt

C. Z is guilty of Murder, while Y is guilty of causing grievous hurt
D. Both Y and Z are guilty of culpable homicide

29. ‘P’ with a guilty intention, abets a lunatic person to commit an act
which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law
of committing an offence, and having the same intention as ‘P’.
Here ‘P’ can be held guilty of:

A. Fraud
B. Conspiracy
C. Abetting an Offence
D. No Offence

Page | 9

30. Whenever an abettor abets the commission of any offence for which
the punishment provided by the Code is either death or life
imprisonment, and that offence is not committed in consequence of
the abetment and the Indian Penal Code does not provide expressly
about its punishment, the penalty for such an abetment may extend
to simple or rigorous imprisonment for _______ years and he shall
also be liable to fine.

A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 14

31. Which section deals with abetting commission of an offence by the
public or by more than ten persons?

A. Section 117
B. Section 118
C. Section 149
D. Section 120

32. Offences by or relating to Public Servants are enumerated under
chapter______ of the IPC:

A. IX
B. XI
C. XII
D. XIII

Page | 10

33. Shaurya was having sufficient food but he did not provide some food
to a beggar who dies of hunger. Shaurya is guilty of:

A. Murder
B. Attempt to murder
C. Causing death by rash or negligent act
D. No offense

34. Mukesh threatens to publish a defamatory Picture concerning Anil
unless Anil gives Rs. 25000 to Mukesh. He thus induces Anil to give
him money. Here Mukesh has committed the offense of:

A. Extortion
B. Criminal Intimidation
C. Mischief
D. Dacoity

35. Some terrorists were hiding in a house occupied by an individual.
They opened fire on the Police. The Police Officers, in defending
themselves, fired towards the house and the innocent person in the
house gets hit by the bullet and dies as a result. The police persons
are guilty of:

A. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
B. Murder
C. Death by rash or negligent act
D. No Offence

Page | 11

36. Ravi takes away a golden chain of his wife, given by her father as
Streedhan, without her consent and pledges it to raise money for
domestic use. Choose the right Statement:

A. Ravi is guilty of theft
B. Ravi cannot be held guilty of theft as the chain was their joint

property
C. Ravi is guilty of Criminal Misappropriation
D. Ravi has Committed No Offence

37. Steve, cut down a tree on Bill's land with the intention of dishonestly
taking the tree out of Bill's possession without Bill's consent. Here
Steve commits:

A. Criminal breach of trust
B. Theft as soon as the tree is severed from the ground.
C. Criminal misappropriation of property
D. No offense until the tree is taken away

38. Govinda instigates his 6-year-old son Krushna to take away from
Kareena, a purse containing Rs 5500. In this case which one of the
following statements is correct?

A. Krushna abets theft and Govinda comits theft
B. Govinda abets theft and Krushna commits theft
C. Both Krushna and Govinda have committed theft
D. Krushna does not commit any offense but Govinda commits

abetment of theft

Page | 12

39. Berlin makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box.
He finds after so opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. Berlin
has:

A. Committed Mischief
B. Committed theft
C. Committed Attempt to Theft
D. Committed no offence

40. Sheetal invited Rajkamal for a cup of tea. While Sheetal is in the
kitchen preparing tea, Rajkamal finds a Diamond ring on the table.
He picks it up places it somewhere in the room with the intention of
dishonestly taking it away some time later. Rajkamal has committed:

A. Attempt to commit theft
B. Theft
C. Extortion
D. No offense

41. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the
Indian Penal Code 1860?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six

Page | 13

42. “Active concealment of fact” is associated with which one of the
following?

A. Misrepresentation
B. Fraud
C. Mistake
D. Undue influence

43. Minimum punishment as imprisonment provided under IPC is:
A. 24 hours
B. 72 hours
C. 7 days
D. 15 days

44. Indian Penal Code received the assent of the Governor General on:

A. December 26th, 1859
B. January 1st, 1860
C. October 6th, 1860
D. July 6th, 1863

45. The causing of death of child in the mother’s womb is not homicide
under:

A. Indian Law
B. English Law
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above

Page | 14

46. Which one of the following is not essential for an offence?

A. Intention
B. Motive
C. Prohibited act
D. Punishment for act

47. Common Intention means–

A. Similar intention
B. Same intention
C. Common plans
D. Sharing of intention by all persons

48. Any hurt is grievous if it causes sufferer to be in severe bodily pain or
unable to follow his ordinary pursuits during space of–

A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 30 days

49. For abduction, the abducted person should be–

A. Below 16 years of age
B. Below 18 years of age
C. Insane person
D. Of any age

Page | 15

50. Making preparation to commit dacoity is punishable in the Indian
Penal Code 1860 under:

A. Section 399
B. Section 398
C. Section 395
D. Section 393

51. The term “unlawful assembly” means:

A. An assembly of five or more persons
B. An assembly of five or more persons armed with lethal weapons
C. An assembly of five or more persons with a common object of doing

a crime
D. An assembly of minimum two persons having common intention to

commit a crime.

52. If a person, with a knowledge that the feelings of a group of people
is likely to be wounded trespasses a place set apart for the
performance of funeral rights, he commits a crime described under:

A. Section 298 Indian Penal Code
B. Section 297 Indian Penal Code
C. Section 295 Indian Penal Code
D. Section 296 Indian Penal Code

Page | 16

53. A person held guilty for commission of an offence described under
Section 326-A of the Indian Penal Code, is liable to be punished with
imprisonment which shall not be less than ten years, but which may
extend to imprisonment for life with fine, required to be paid to the
victim. Such fine shall be:

A. Not less than Rs.1,00,000/-
B. Not more than Rs.5,00,000/-
C. Just and reasonable to meet the medical expenses of the treatment of

victim
D. Determined by the Court but in no case shall be less than

Rs.5,00,000/-

54. Hotel Jal-Jeevan, situated at the bank of a water reservoir, despite
objection, discharges its polluted water in the reservoir, causing fouls
to reservoir water. For which offence under Indian Penal Code the
Manager of the Hotel can be charged?

A. Section 276
B. Section 277
C. Section 278
D. None of the Above

55. Actus reus includes:

A. Act as well as Omission
B. Only Act and not Omission
C. External as well as Internal (Mind) Acts
D. Both A & C

Page | 17

56. Section 76 and 79 of the Indian Penal Code provide General
Exceptions with respect to:

A. Mistake of Fact
B. Mistake of Law
C. Both A & B
D. Either A or B

57. ‘A’ with an intention to kill, shoots aiming at ‘B’, instead ‘C’ gets
killed. The principle of holding ‘A’ liable is known as:

A. Doctrine of transfer of malice
B. Doctrine that no one can escape
C. Doctrine of Intent
D. None of the above

58. Section 511 of the Indian Penal Code doesn’t apply in the case of:

A. Attempt to theft
B. Attempt to Riot
C. Attempt to Murder
D. Attempt to Affray

59. The essence of Sedition is:

A. Intention
B. Result
C. Both Intention and result
D. None of the Above

Page | 18

60. Under the Indian Penal Code, there can be Abetment to:

A. Person with Unsound mind
B. An Infant
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above

61. Misconduct in public by a drunken person is ___________ and is
punishable with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend
to __________ or with fine.

A. Public Mischief, 15 Days
B. Annoyance, 24 Hours
C. Insult, 7 Days
D. None of the Above

62. The word “takes” in Section 361 IPC signifies:

A. Taking by Fraud
B. Taking by Force
C. Physical taking
D. All of the above

63. Who amongst the following is NOT a “Public Servant”?

A. A Liquidator
B. A Civil Judge
C. A member of Panchayat assisting Court of Justice
D. Secretary of a Cooprative Society

Page | 19

64. The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of the Indian
Penal Code is:

A. In Section 34 there must be at least 5 persons, whereas section 149
requires 2 persons

B. Section 149 is only a rule of Evidence whereas Section 34 creates
specific offence and provides for its punishment

C. Section 34 requires active participation in action whereas Section 149
requires mere passive membership of the unlawful assembly

D. All of the Above

65. Uttering of words with deliberate intentions to wound religious
feelings is dealt with in which section of the Indian Penal Code?

A. Section 296
B. Section 297
C. Section 298
D. None of the Above

66. A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is
standing by. Here, if there was no want of proper caution on the part
of A, his act is excusable and not an offence under which section of
the IPC?

A. Section 80
B. Section 87
C. Section 88
D. Section 99

Page | 20

67. A, a police-officer, without warrant, apprehends Z, who has
committed murder. Here A has:

A. Committed offence of Wrongful Confinement
B. Criminal Intimidation
C. Criminal Defamation
D. None of the above

68. The word “man” under the Indian Penal Code denotes:

A. Male human being above 18 years of age
B. Male and Female human being above 18 years of age
C. Male human being of any age
D. Male and Female human being of any age

69. The word “Judge” as defined under Indian Penal Code, denotes:

A. A person officially designated as a Judge
B. A person empowered by law to give, in any legal proceeding, civil or

criminal, a definitive judgment, or a judgment which, if not appealed
against, would be definitive, or a judgment which, if confirmed by
some other authority, would be definitive
C. A person who is one of a body of persons, which body of persons is
empowered by law to give such a judgment.
D. All of the Above

Page | 21

70. A attacks Z under such circumstances of grave provocation that his
killing of Z would be only culpable homicide not amounting to
murder. B, having ill-will towards Z and intending to kill him, and
not having been subject to the provocation, assists A in killing Z.
Choose the appropriate statement:

A. Both A and B are guilty of Culpable Homicide
B. Both A and B are guilty of Murder
C. A is guilty of Culpable Homicide, B is guilty of Abetment
D. A is guilty of Culpable Homicide, B is guilty of Murder

71. “injury” denotes any harm whatever illegally caused to any person’s:

A. Body
B. Body or Property
C. Body, Property or Mind
D. Body, Property, Mind or Reputation

72. Under the Indian Penal Code, wherever the word “year” or the word
“month” is used, it is to be understood that the year or the month is
to be reckoned according to:

A. Pakuwon Calendar
B. British Calendar
C. Indian Calendar
D. Ethiopian Calendar

Page | 22

73. In all cases in which judgment is given that a person is guilty of one
of several offences specified in the judgment, but that it is doubtful
of which of these offences he is guilty, the offender shall be punished
for the offence for which the ______________ is provided if the
same punishment is not provided for all:

A. Lowest punishment
B. Highest punishment
C. Simple imprisonment
D. Rigorous imprisonment

74. Ronaldo, the captain of a steam vessel, suddenly, and without any
fault or negligence on his part, finds himself in such a position that,
before he can stop his vessel, he must inevitably run down a boat ‘B’,
with twenty or thirty passengers on board, unless he changes the
course of his vessel, and that, by changing his course, he must incur
risk of running down a boat ‘C’ with only two passengers on board.
Ronaldo, without any intention to run down the boat ‘C’ and in good
faith for the purpose of avoiding the danger to the passengers in the
boat ‘B’ alters his course and run down boat ‘C’. Here, Ronaldo is:

A. Guilty of Culpable Homicide
B. Guilty of causing death due to rash and negligent act
C. Guilty for intentionally causing Grievous Hurt
D. Not guilty of any offence

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75. A instigates B to burn Z’s house. B sets fire to the house and at the
same time commits theft of property there.

A. A is guilty of abetting the burning of house and theft
B. A is guilty of abetting burning of house only
C. A is guilty of abetting the theft only
D. None of the above

76. Whoever, with the intention of inducing or compelling the President
of India to exercise or refrain from exercising in any manner any of
the lawful powers, assaults the President, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
________ years, and shall also be liable to fine:

A. 5 years
B. 7 years
C. 10 years
D. 14 years

77. Minimum ________ persons are required to commit an affray?

A. Two
B. Five
C. Seven
D. Twelve

Page | 24

78. Whoever pretends to hold any particular office as a public servant,
knowing that he does not hold such office or falsely personates any
other person holding such office, and in such assumed character does
or attempts to do any act under colour of such office, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to _____ years, or with fine, or with both.

A. Two
B. Three
C. Five
D. Seven

79. A, being legally bound to appear before the High Court at Calcutta, in
obedience to a subpoena issuing from that Court, intentionally omits
to appear. A has committed the offence defined in Section ______?

A. 172
B. 173
C. 174
D. None of the above

80. An order is promulgated by a public servant lawfully empowered to
promulgate such order, directing that a religious procession shall not
pass down a certain street. X knowingly disobeys the order, and
thereby causes danger of riot. X has committed the offence defined
in _____:

A. Section 187
B. Section 188
C. Section 189
D. Section 190

Page | 25

81. As per Section 232, whoever counterfeits, or knowingly performs any
part of the process of counterfeiting Indian coin, shall be punished
with ___________, or with imprisonment of either description for
a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.

A. Imprisonment for life
B. Death
C. Either A or B
D. None of the Above

82. A, a coiner, delivers counterfeit Company's rupees to his accomplice
B, for the purpose of uttering them. B sells the rupees to C, another
utterer, who buys them knowing them to be counterfeit. C pays away
the rupees for goods to D, who receives them, not knowing them to
be counterfeit. D, after receiving the rupees, discovers that they are
counterfeit and pays them away as if they were good. D is guilty of an
offence punishable under Section:

A. 237
B. 241
C. 242
D. 246

83. Rash driving or riding on a public way is punishable with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
____________, or with fine which may extend to one thousand
rupees, or with both.

A. One month
B. Three months
C. Six months
D. Nine months

Page | 26

84. A is lawfully arrested by Z, a bailiff. A is excited to sudden and violent
passion by the arrest, and kills Z. Here, A is guilty of:

A. Culpable Homicide not amounting to Murder
B. Murder
C. Causing Death by Negligence
D. No offence

85. A, knowing that he is likely to cause the death of a pregnant woman,
does an act which, if it caused the death of the woman, would amount
to culpable homicide. The woman is injured, but does not die; but the
death of an unborn quick child with which she is pregnant is thereby
caused. A is guilty for an offence under section:
A. 302
B. 312
C. 315
D. 316

86. Which of the following kinds of hurt are NOT designated as
“grievous”:

A. Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth
B. Temporary privation of the hearing of either ear
C. Emasculation
D. Privation of any member or joint

Page | 27

87. A, a police-officer, tortures Z in order to induce Z to confess that he
committed a crime. Here A is:

A. Guilty of an offence under section 321
B. Guilty of an offence under section 327
C. Guilty of an offence under section 330
D. Guilty of No Offence

88. A meets Z and Z's child on the high road. A takes the child, and
threatens to filing it down a precipice, unless Z delivers his purse. Z,
in consequence, delivers his purse. Here A:

A. Committed Theft
B. Committed Extortion
C. Committed Robbery
D. Committed Dacoity

89. Y takes property belonging to Z out of Z's possession, in good faith
believing at the time when he takes it, that the property belongs to
himself. If Y, after discovering his mistake, dishonestly appropriates
the property to his own use, he is guilty of an offence under:

A. 378
B. 390
C. 403
D. 405

Page | 28

90. Whoever dishonestly receives or retains any stolen property,
knowing or having reason to believe the same to be stolen property,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to ________ years.

A. Two
B. Three
C. Five
D. Seven

91. A causes cattle to enter upon a field belonging to Z, intending to cause
and knowing that he is likely to cause damage to Z's crop. A has
committed:

A. Criminal Trespass
B. Mischief
C. Breach of trust
D. No offence

92. Whoever, having a husband or wife living, marries in any case in
which such marriage is void by reason of its taking place during the
life of such husband or wife, shall be punished with imprisonment
of either description for a term which may extend to _______ years,
and shall also be liable to fine.

A. Three
B. Five
C. Seven
D. Fourteen

Page | 29

93. Whoever, intending to insult the modesty of any woman, utters any
words, makes any sound or gesture, or exhibits any object, intending
that such word or sound shall be heard, or that such gesture or object
shall be seen, by such woman, or intrudes upon the privacy of such
woman, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may
extend to _______ years, and also with fine.

A. Two
B. Three
C. Five
D. Seven

94. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is punishable
offence under:

A. Section 354A
B. Section 354B
C. Section 354C
D. Section 354D

95. Section 34 of IPC:

A. Creates a substantive offence
B. Is a rule of evidence
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)

Page | 30

96. ‘Voluntarily’ has been defined as an effect caused by means whereby
a person intended to cause it or by means, at the time of employing
those means, know or had reason to believe to be likely to cause it
under:

A. Section 39
B. Section 38
C. Section 37
D. Section 40

97. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes:

A. Death of a human being
B. Death of an animal
C. Death of a human being and of an animal both
D. Death of either human being or an animal

98. “Illegal” signifies:

A. Everything which is an offence
B. Everything which is prohibited by law
C. Everything which furnishes ground for civil action
D. All the above.

99. Under section 65 of IPC sentence of imprisonment for non-payment
of fine shall be limited to:

A. one-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the
offence

B. one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the
offence

C. one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
D. equal to the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence

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100. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is
sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding Rs. 100 but exceeding Rs.
50, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not
exceed________ months:

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Six

101. As per Section 73 of IPC, the maximum limit of solitary confinement
is to be:

A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three months
D. Six months

102. As per Section _______ of the IPC, Nothing is said to be done or
believed to be done in good faith which is done or believed without due
care & intention:

A. 29
B. 29A
C. 52
D. 52A

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103. Putting or attempting to put a person in fear of death or grievous
hurt in order to commit extortion is dealt under-

A. Section 385 of IPC
B. Section 386 of IPC
C. Section 387 of IPC
D. Section 388 of IPC

104. Defamation against the President or the Governor of a State or
Administrator of a Union Territory or Minister in respect of his
conduct in the discharge of his public functions when instituted
upon a complaint made by the Public Prosecutor is dealt under:

A. Section 126 of IPC
B. Section 170 of IPC
C. Section 484 of IPC
D. Section 500 of IPC

105. Grievous hurt caused whilst committing lurking house trespass or
house breaking is dealt under-

A. Section 458 of IPC
B. Section 459 of IPC
C. Section 460 of IPC
D. Section 461 of IPC

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106. Wearing the dress or carrying any token used by a soldier, sailor or
airman with intent that it may be believed that he is such a soldier,
sailor or airman is punishable with:

A. Imprisonment of 3 Months or Fine or Both
B. Imprisonment of 6 Months or Fine or Both
C. Imprisonment of 2 Years or Fine or Both
D. Imprisonment of 7 Years or Fine or Both

107. Hiring, or conniving at hiring, of persons to join unlawful assembly
is an offence under Section:

A. 149
B. 150
C. 151
D. 158

108. Punishment for committing Affray is:

A. Imprisonment of 1 Month or Fine or Both
B. Imprisonment of 3 Months or Fine or Both
C. Imprisonment of 6 Months or Fine or Both
D. Imprisonment of 2 Years or Fine or Both

109. Non-treatment of victim by hospital is a ________________
offence:

A. Cognizable and Bailable
B. Non-Cognizable and Bailable
C. Cognizable and Non-Bailable
D. Non Cognizable and Non-Bailable

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110. Mahesh, a Public Servant, legally bound not to engage in trade,
engages in trade. He has committed an offence under Section:

A. 167
B. 168
C. 169
D. None of the above

111. Whoever refuses to bind himself by an oath or affirmation to state
the truth, when required so to bind himself by a public servant
legally competent to require that he shall so bind himself, shall be
punished with:

A. Simple Imprisonment for 1 Month or Fine or Both
B. Simple Imprisonment for 3 Months or Fine or Both
C. Simple Imprisonment for 6 Months or Fine or Both
D. None of the above.

112. The plea of sudden and grave provocation as an exception of murder
is:

A. Question of Fact
B. Question of Law
C. Both A and B
D. Presumption under law

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113. P inflicts one spear thrust in the abdominal region of Q which
penetrates deep with the result that three coils of intestine come
out when he takes out spear. Q dies next day. It is proved in evidence
that P did not want to kill Q outright but only intended to cause
bodily injury. P is guilty of:

A. Causing death by negligence
B. Grievous Hurt
C. Attempt to Murder
D. Murder

114. A with an intention to kill B by poisoning, mixes the poison with a
glass of milk and gives the glass to C to serve it to B. C not knowing
that it had poison, drinks the milk and dies. Which one of the
following statements is correct in this situation?

A. A is guilty of death by rash or negligent act
B. A is guilty of murder
C. A is guilty of Culpable Homicide not amounting to Murder
D. A commits no offence as Z drinks the milk voluntarily

115. Secreting or destroying any document to prevent its production as
evidence is punishable with:

A. Imprisonment for 3 Month or Fine or Both
B. Imprisonment for 6 Month or Fine or Both
C. Imprisonment for 2 Years or Fine or Both
D. Imprisonment for 5 Years or Fine or Both

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116. For a death to be called as Dowry Death, is must have occurred within
________ of marriage:

A. Three Years
B. Five Years
C. Seven Years
D. Nine Years

117. Which of these sections are inserted by the Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2018?

A. 166A, 166B, 326A, 345A,
B. 376A, 376B,
C. 376AB, 376DA
D. All of the above

118. Throwing or attempt to throw acid under section 326B under IPC was
added by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, ______:

A. 2012
B. 2013
C. 2016
D. 2018

119. Dishonestly’ has been defined as doing anything with intention to
cause wrongful gain to one person & wrongful loss to another, under
Section ______:

A. 23
B. 24
C. 25
D. 33

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120. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary
confinement to be:

A. One month
B. Three months
C. Six months
D. 1 year

121. Chapter ______ deals with General Exceptions:

A. III
B. IV
C. V
D. VI

122. According to section 498A of IPC any cruelty for dowry to a woman
by the husband or his relatives is:

A. A Non-bailable offence with up to three years of imprisonment and
fine

B. A bailable offence with up to three years of imprisonment or fine or
both

C. A Bailable offence with fine up to 5 thousand rupees
D. A Non bailable offence with up to seven years of imprisonment and

fine

123. “Crime” is a –

A. Public Wrong
B. Private Wrong
C. Both Public and Private Wrong
D. Neither Public nor Private Wrong

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124. In this case, a five-judge SC bench gave a historic, unanimous
decision on Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, decriminalising
homosexuality:

A. Navneet Singh v. UOI
B. Joseph Shine v. Union Of India
C. Sudarshan Singh Rawat v. UOI
D. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI

125. Joseph Shine v. Union Of India deals with:

A. Section 377
B. Section 497
C. Section 376
D. Section 498

126. The ‘Doctrine of Necessity’ has been elaborately considered and
dealt with in which of the following landmark case?

A. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
B. Bhagwan Das v. State (NCT of Delhi)
C. Regina v. Dudley and Stephens
D. None of the above

127. Dishonest misappropriation of property is an offence relating to:

A. Moveable Property
B. Immovable Property
C. Moveable and Immovable Property
D. Either Moveable or Immoveable Property

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128. The provisions of Indian Penal Code, 1860 apply also to any offence
committed by:

A. Any Person in any place without and beyond India
B. Any Person on any ship or aircraft wherever it may be
C. Any Person in any place without and beyond India committing

offence targeting a computer resource located in India.
D. All of the Above

129. ‘Offence’ is defined under IPC as:

A. An act or omission punishable under any special law
B. An act or omission punishable under any local law
C. An act or omission punishable under IPC
D. All of the above

130. As per Indian Penal Code, a “special law” is a law applicable to:

A. a particular subject
B. a particular class of people
C. a particular state
D. a particular region

131. “Court of Justice” is defined under Section ______:

A. 19
B. 20
C. 21
D. None of the Above

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132. The term ‘OATH’ is defined under:

A. Section 47
B. Section 48
C. Section 51
D. Section 52

133. ‘Punishment’ under IPC does NOT include:

A. Death
B. Forfeiture of Property
C. Transportation for life
D. Imprisonment with hard labour

134. In calculating fractions of terms of punishment, imprisonment for
life shall be reckoned as equivalent to imprisonment for _______
years:

A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 40

135. In the event where no sum is expressed to which a fine may extend,
the amount of fine to which the offender is liable is:

A. Amount not exceeding Rs. 2,00,000
B. Amount not exceeding Rs. 5,00,000
C. Amount not exceeding Rs. 10,00,000
D. Unlimited, but shall not be excessive

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136. The imprisonment imposed in default of payment of a fine shall
terminate when:

A. The term of imprisonment is complete
B. Half of the term of imprisonment is complete and that fine is paid
C. That fine is either paid or levied by process of law
D. None of the above

137. A and B agree to fence with each other for amusement. This
agreement implies the consent of each to suffer any harm which, in
course of such fencing, may be caused without foul play. A while
playing fairly, hurts B in the eye. Here A is guilty of:

A. Simple Hurt
B. Grievous Hurt
C. Attempt to Grievous Hurt
D. No Offence

138. When does the right of private defence of the body commence?

A. As soon as there is actual danger to the body
B. As soon as there is a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body
C. IPC is silent as to commencement of such sight.
D. None of the above

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139. Y picks up a gun and, without checking as to whether it is loaded or
empty, pointed it towards Z and pulled the trigger. The gun was
found to be a loaded and because of that gunshot Z died. What
offence (if any) is committed by Y?

A. Murder
B. Culpable Homicide
C. Death caused by rash or negligent act
D. No Offence

140. If a robbery is committed on the highway between sunset and
sunrise, the imprisonment may be extended to:

A. Twelve Years
B. Fourteen Years
C. Fifteen Years
D. Life Imprisonment

141. In which Section of the IPC, does the word ‘Stolen Property’ is
defined?

A. Section 410
B. Section 411
C. Section 412
D. Section 413

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142. ‘A’ had an illegal portion constructed on the roof of his house. B, a
Municipal Officer in his official capacity, ordered for its
demolition. Accordingly, the illegal structure was broken down.
While doing so, a heavy stone slab fell on C, a pedestrian, causing
his death. Choose the appropriate statement:

A. B is guilty of Death by Rash and Negligent Act
B. B is guilty of Culpable Homicide
C. B is guilty of Murder
D. B has committed no offence

143. ‘Abettor’ has been defined under Section:

A. 107
B. 108
C. 109
D. 110

144. The term ‘Good Faith’ is defined under:

A. Section 50
B. Section 51
C. Section 52
D. Section 52(A)

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145. The right of private defence of property does not extend to the
voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the wrong-doer,
where the offence is:

A. House-breaking by night
B. Mischief by Fire
C. Theft
D. Robbery

146. The right of private defence of the body extends, under the
restrictions mentioned in the section 99, to the voluntary causing
of death or of any other harm to the assailant, except in case of:

A. An assault with the intention of committing rape
B. An attempt to throw or administer acid
C. An act of throwing or administering acid
D. An assault with the intention of wrongfully confining a person

147. In which of the following cases does Section 511 apply:

A. Attempt to commit murder
B. Attempt to commit theft
C. Attempt to throw acid
D. Attempt to commit robbery

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148. ‘Life imprisonment’ means imprisonment for a term of:

A. Fourteen Years
B. Twenty Five Years
C. Forty Years
D. Remaining life

149. ‘Thug’ is defined under:

A. Section 189
B. Section 230
C. Section 310
D. Section 311

150. ‘Trafficking of Person’ would mean recruiting, transporting,
harbouring, transferring, or receiving, a person or persons, for the
purpose of exploitation, by use of:

A. Threats
B. Abduction
C. Force
D. All of the above

151. Trafficking of a minor is punishable with:

A. Simple imprisonment for a term not less than seven years, and fine
B. Simple imprisonment for a term not less than ten years, and fine
C. Rigorous imprisonment for a term not be less than seven years, but

may extend to ten years, and fine
D. Rigorous imprisonment for a term not be less than ten years, but may

extend to life imprisonment, and fine

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152. When did the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018 came into force?

A. 18th May, 2018
B. 15th January, 2018
C. 21st April, 2018
D. 26th August, 2018

153. Which of the following sections have been inserted by the Criminal
Law (Amendment) Act, 2018?

A. 354A, 354B, 354C and 354D
B. 376AB, 376DA, 376DB
C. 326A, 326B, 166A
D. All of the above

154. A is attacked by a mob who attempt to murder him. He cannot
effectually exercise his right of private defence without firing at the
mob, and he cannot fire without risk of harming young children who
are mingled with the mob. A fired at the mob and a child was hurt.
Choose the appropriate statement:

A. A is guilty of voluntarily causing hurt
B. A is guilty of an attempt to culpable homicide
C. A is guilty of causing grievous hurt
D. A is not guilty of any offence

155. When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the
public peace, they are said to commit:

A. Nuisance
B. Roiting
C. Affray
D. Assault

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156. The offence of giving false evidence may also be called as:

A. Forgery
B. Perjury
C. Cheating
D. Fraud

157. Whoever wrongfully confines any person for ten days, or more, shall
be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to:

A. One year or with fine or both
B. Two years, and shall also be liable to fine
C. three years, and shall also be liable to fine
D. Five years, and shall also be liable to fine

158. A with an intention to hurt B, prepares a glass of Juice for him and
added poison in it. C was observing A all this time. While A was
away, C threw the glass of juice prepared by A and replaced it with a
new glass of fresh juice which later A administers to B. Choose the
correct option:

A. A is guilty of no offence
B. A is guilty of attempt to cause hurt, C has committed no offence
C. A is guilty of causing hurt, C is guilty of abatement
D. Both A and C are guilty of attempt to cause Hurt

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