Paper I : Menta1 Ability Test
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) In each of the following questions, complete the given series by choosing correct alternative.
1. 2, 5, 9, 14, (?), 27
a. 22 b. 18 c. 19 d. 20
2. 1, 6, 13, (?), 33, 46 b. 21 c. 20 d. 23
a. 22
3. 1, 9, 17' 33, 49, 73, (?)
a. 9.7 b. 99 c. 98 d. 96
4. 3, 9, 27, 81, (?) b. 242 c. 241 d. 243
a. 124
5. 19, 2, 38, 3,114, 4, (?) b. 456 c. 116 d. 654
a. 11s
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-8) Choose the word from the given alternatives, which bears the same relationship to the third word as
the first two bears.
6. Reading: Knowledge:: Work:?
a. Expertment b. Employment c. Experience d. Engagement
7. Cricket: Bat:: Hockey:?
a. Field b. Stick c. Rod d. Player
8. Tea : Cup :: Tabacco :?
a. Cheroot b. Hookah c. Leaves d. Toxin
Directions (Q. Nos. 9-12) Find out the odd one from the given alternatives.
9. a. Sun b. Moon c. Earth d. Universe
d. Cottage
10. a. Palace b. School C. Hut d. Geography
d. Brick
11. a. Zoology b. Botany c. Chemistry
12. a. Spade b. Club c. Heart
13. Thirty students were there in a mental ability test. 5 students did not qualify, out of remaining
Shanu ranked 13th from the last. What was his rank from top?
a. 12th b. 13th c. 1oth d. 11th
14. In a row of 19 boys, Anuj is 13th from the top and Sachin in 15th from the last, find out how
many boys are between Anuj and Sachin?
'a. 7 b. 8 c. 10 d. 9
Directions (Q. Nos. 15-17)/nsert the missingnumber in the fallowing questions.
1y 1y2 Oy315.
120 96 ? c. 90 d. 27
a. 81 b. 72
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·0 ,0· "0'16. 4
80
.. ': _,:·~·
7 42
a. o b. 2 c. 11 d. 12
17. ~A~2 4
35
a. 140 b. 280 c. 875 d. 925
Directions (Q. Nos. 18-20) In each ofthe following questions, choose the correct water image for the figure x:
18. Problem Figure Answer Figures
~ a. c.
X
19. Problem Figure iXI>a+IXI -·GdST :: Q•
a. b. c. d.
[6]
X
20. Problem Figure a. b. c.
~~~~
X
Directions (Q, Nos. 21-23) In each of the following questions, choose the correctmirrorimage for the figure x·.
21. Problem Figure Answer Figures d.J£1 b9>!£IS'<
rl!.
~ ~
X a. b. c. d. eno:·
tJsd g·rs a'{C
22. Problem Figure ~ i e iAnswer Figures •J )•,•
a. b. c. d.
X
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23. Problem Figure Answer Figures
.~...~. ''
'' ' a. c.
'
''
X
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-26) Arrange the words in ameaningfulsequence and choose the most appropriate sequence from the
given options.
24. 1. Village 2. State 3. World 4. Country 5. District
a. b.(1), (5), (3), (4). (2) (1), (5), (2), (4), (3) c. (1). (5), (3). (2). (4) d. (1), (2), (5), (4), (3)
25. 1. Post-box 2. Delivery 3. Letter 4. Envelope 5. Clearance
a. b.(4), (3). (1), (5), (2) c.(4), (1). (3), (2), (5) d.(4), (2). (3), (5), (1) (4), (3), (5), (2), (1)
26. 1. Child 2. Play way 3. College 4. School S.Job
b.a. (2), (1), (3), (4). (5) c. d.(1), (5), (3), (2). (4)
(1), (2), (4), (5), (3) (1), (2), (4). (3). (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-28) Select the figure from option figures which will continue the same series as given in the problem
figures.
Zl. Problem Figures Answer Figures
1DI01Ci ? ID~DID!D!
(A) (B) (C) (D) a. b. c. d.
D.fe28. Problem.:•F:.ig-·u-·r·e;:s:t Answer Figures
Vl!~vt~ ?
}' 1',:·, I ietL+~te! tvelvi~:
(A} '·~ '(ll)"' - (C) (D) a. h. c. d.
Directions (Q. Nos. 29-31) In each ofthe following questions, find outwhich ofthe answerfigure is complete the figure matrix?
29. Problem Figures
isC:DrI ~&-I EEI
i&iLri(JJ
Answer Figures
I~©?
a. b. c. d.
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30. Problem Figures Answer Figures
XXX XX X [111[11'[1111[11111[
b. c. d.
0000 000 00
IIIII II II ?
31. Problem Figures
AA BB cc
Aa Bb Cc
Answer Figures
aa bb ? b. c. d.
•
Directions (Q. Nos. 32-33) As per given relationship between figure (A) and (B), find'I:Jie figure which establish o similar
relationship between (Q and(D).
32. Problem Figures
[()[()[()[ ?
(A) (B) (C) (D) a. b. c.
s IVll B33. Problem Figures ? Answer Figures
I 8 leN I 9' I'Sa I
(A) (B) (C) (D) a. h. ~./ i \if:
,L~·:~:".~
34. If.(a 'b) stands for(a + b)2 and (a (l) b)stands for(a- b)2, then tne iili!Ue of(a' b)+ (a e b), is
U-tJLa. 2 (a2 + b2)
b.. a2 + 2b2 c. 2a2 + b2 d. None of these
35. If9' 4; 169, then what is the value of 14 '1? / ;_ \!' ~ -~~ ' j .
i
a. 144 b. 169 c. 125 d. 225
j
36. If'A' denotes'+\ tB' denotes'+', 'C' denotes'-' and (D' denotes 'x'. then
SA 14B 2D 2C2
a. 20 h. 17 c. 19 d. 16
37. The length of a rectangle is 10 em more than its breadth. If its perimeter is 84cm, then what is
the length of the rectangle?
a.m~ lm= ~~~ ~21=
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38. Divide ~ 640 among A, B and C, so that A may have 30%, B may have 45% and C have the
remaining amount. How much among C may have?
a. ~160 b. ~232 c. ~212 d. ~200
39. Mona wants to go home. At present she is facing North. If she moves 90° clockwise and
135° anti-clockwise, find out in which direction her home is, if she goes in that particular
direction after the last tum?
a. East b. South-East c. North-West d. South-West
40. Akansha walks 4 km East turns South-West and walks another 4 km. She again takes a turn
towards North-West and walks another 4 km. In which direction she is from her starting
point.
a. West b. East c. South-West d. North
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-46) Study the following information and answer the questionsgiven below.
• There are 8 members in a family A, B, C, D, E, G, H and I.
• C and A are brothers.
• H and I are cousins and both are males.
Cis the son ofE and D.
• Gis the wife of C.
• B is the wife ofA.
• D is the grandmother of H and I.
41. How is A related to G?
a. Brother b. Sister-in-law c. Sister d. Brother-in-law
c. Husband d. Brother
42. How is C related to D?
a. Sister b. Son
43. What is the relationship between Eand D?
a. Brother-Sister b. Son-Mother c. Husband-Wife d. Daughter-Father
44. How is C related to l?
a. Uncle b. Nephew c. Niece d. Son
c. Brother
45. How isH related to A? d. Father-in-law
a. Nephew b. Son
46. How many male candidates are there in the family?
&4 ~2 ~5 d. 3
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-48) On the basis of the following Venn- diagram, answer the questions given below.
The rectangle represents artists, the circle represents palyers and the triangle represents doctors.
47. How many artists are players but not doctors? d. 30
a. 25 b. 20 c. 10
d. 25
48. How many artists are neither players nor doctors?
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a. 40 b. 10 c. 30 ·
49. If 19th April of a year was Friday, what will be the day on 28th September of the same year.
a. Tuesday b. Wednesday c. Thursday d. Saturday
50. If day before yes.terday was Tuesday, what day will fall on day after tomorrow?
a. Saturday h. Thureday c. Friday d. Sunday
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-53) From the given alternatives, complete the problem figure
51. Problem Figure Answer Figures
~ ~[~9~~~9---="71~
~
X a. h. c. d.
52. Problem Figure Answer Figures
m E?ltl \IDI
X a. h. c. d.
53. Problem Figure Answer Figures
m a. b. c. d.
X
Directions (Q: Nos..54-56) Find which ofthe alternative from the answer figures will follow, ifthe problem figure is folded
in a certain defined pattern along the dotted line?
54. Problem Figure Answer Figures
~~ []a~. [--1]~J[~]~l_d]. ~
X
55. Problem Figure
X a. b. c. d.
56. Problem Figure Answer Figures
E§j ~l~~~
I II 11 11 I
X I JU ll !II __II
I______ - • - - - - - - -~~ - - - - ___ , - - - - -
a. b. c. d.
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57. How many 8's are there in the following number sequence, which are immediate preceding?
but not immediately followed by 4?
78438786584785378487858
a. One b. Three c. Two d. Four
58. Rajeev was counting down from 34. Sangeeta was counting upwards the numbers starting from
1 and she was calling out the odd digits/numbers. What common number will they call out at
the same time, if they were calling out at the same speed?
a.16 b.17
c. 18 d. They will not call out the same number
59. How many number$ are amongst the number 12 to 156 which are exactly divisible by 12 but not
by 9 and 10?
a. Twelve b. Five c. Nine d. Seven
60. If a clock shows 1: 30 in a mirror, then what will the actual time in normal clock?
a. 11 : 30 b. 1:. so c. 1o so d. 8: 30
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-62) Find the odd one {rom the given alternatives.
61. iDJ~I0\01
a. b. c. d.
62.
a. c.
63. Which number is opposite to face 4?
@@@
a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. a
64. If 2 dots are marked on the bottom, then how many dots will appear on the top?
®
a.s l4 ~6 d.s
65. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
a. 17 b. 18 c. 19 d. 20
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a. 1s c. 21 d. 12
Directions (Q. Nos. 67-70) Find out the figure ()() is embedded in which option figures.
67. Problem Figure ;s: %1Answer Figures1
[] L41~~
a. b. c. d.
X
68. Problem Figure Answer Figures
0 [qrl~i~lffil
X
a. h. c. d.
69. Problem Figure Answer Figures
C8JX :rnb<1+1><J
a. b. c. d.
70. Problem Figure Answer Figures
~ lul~l~l~l
X a. b. c. d.
71. What is the number of straight lines in the following figure?
a. 13 h. 15 c. 17 d. 19
d. bcaab
Directions (Q. Nos. 72-76) Complete the given series as per the relatedpattern follows.
72. ~bbca~bcca_cc_a_cb b. acbab c. bacab
a. abcba
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73. _bcc_ac_aabb_ab_cc h. abaca c. bacab d. bcaca
a. aabca c. accab d. bacaa
c. cabac d. cbbac
74. a_bccb_ca_cca_baab_c c. acbaa d. cbaac
a. ababa h. abcaa
75. ab_aa_caab_c_abb_c h. bcbca
a. bbcaa
76. baa_aca_cacab_acac_bca
a. bccba b. cbbaa
Directions (Q. Nos. 77-80) In each ofthe following questions, there is o diagrom(X) in 'which one or more points have been
placed In cermin positions. Examine the placement ofthese points careful/'! From the four choices, select the one in which the
placement a{points Is similar to thatin the diagram.
71. Problem Figure Answer Figures
L~SJ i@bi~!EfiiJ
X a. h. c. d.
78. Problem Figure Answer Figures
~ i~![ll~i@i
X a. b. c. d.
79. Problem Figure Answer Figures
1~~1 lw!ZPI4>i®i
X a. b. c. d.
80. Problem Figure Answer Figures
~ I~I~I&JI~i
X a. b. c. d.
Directions (Q, Nos. 81-85) Find out the answer figure which exactly similar to problem figure.
81. Problem Figure 1_,__,,____,.,__Answer Figures
I~ (
r ~I ---+--1+--< I
X~ ~~~~~!~!
a. b. c. d.
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82. Problem Figure Answer Figures
X0 X X0 0 ~~m~·~·po~
XXX X0 X
0 X0
00 X Q X0
•X X
"0 0 00 X X0 X
X a. c. d.
m83. Problem Figure Answer Figures _. ._, ' -~
X
a. b. c. d.
84. Problem Figure
Answer Figures
CiEJ a. c.
X
Answer Figures
85. Problem Figure
m~mm
~ a. l ~ d.
X
Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) Select the answer from the alternatives, which wouldmost closetvresemble the third figure, when it
is unfolded.
86. Problem Figures Answer Figures
A £A'' &'
(x) (y) (z) a. c.
.87. Problem Figures Answer Figures
~ /• /0' \
-:_._.,! --J,.. .....
7l •O,
(x) (y) (z}I ' '
88. Problem Figures a. Lib.
(+lL!~J "117
(x) (y) (z)
c. d.
89. Problem Figures Answer Figures
IBJI6IE:jl l6idl~l~l~l
a. h. c. d.
(x) (y) (z)
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90. Problem Figures Answer Figures
I/?t<1-Fv~~,, a. h. c. d.
(x) (y) (z)
'.{f'
Paper II : Scholastic Aptitude Test
91. The acceleration of a train between two stations is shown in the figure. The maximum speed of
the train is
ts
a
0 4 8 12 16 t(s)
LJ
-5
a. 60 m/s b. 30m/s c. 120 m/s d. 90 m/s
92. The orbital speed ofJupiter is h. less than the orbital speed of the Earth
d. zero
a. greater than the orbital speed of the Earth
c. equal to the orbital speed of the Earth
93. An instruement used to measure humidity is
a. Anemometer b. Hygrometer c. Thermometer d. Pyrheliometer
94. The lines of force of uniform magnetic field
a. must be conuergent b. must be divergent c. must be parallel to each other
d. interesect
95. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f 1 and f2 are placed in contact. The focal length of the
composite lense will be
a. r, + '" c. .[i,t;
2
96. Given three equal resistors, how many different combinations ofall three resistors can be made?
ft. Six b. Fwe c. Four d. Three
97. A current flows in a conductor from East to West. The direction of the magnetic field at a point
above the conductor is
a. towards North b. towards South c. towards East d. towards West
98. Which of the following is the most suitable material for making permanent magnet?
a. Steel b. Soft iron c. Copper d. Nickel
99. Above the Curie temperature, the susceptibility of a ferromagnetic sul)stance varies
a. directly as the absolute temperature
b. inversely as the absolute temperature
c. inversely as the square of absolute temperature
d. directly as the square of absolute temperature
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100. In a transformer, number of turns in the primary are 140 and that in secondary are 280. If
current in primary is 4 A, then current in secondary is
a. 4A b. 2A c. 6A d. lOA
101. Image is formed for the short sighted person at
a. retina b. before retina
c. behind the retina d. image is not formed at all
102. Figure shows when the as shown two rays A and Bbeing reflected by a mirror and going as A'
and B'. The mirror is plane mirror
a. is plane b. is convex
c. is concave d. may be any spherical mirror
103. The chemical name of Mg3 (P04h and oxidation number ofMg is.
a. magnesium phosphite and three b. magnesium phosphate and two
c. magnesium phosphide and two d. magnesium phosphotite and three
104. Boyle suggested some properties of add, choose the correct set of them.
a. Sour taste, corrosive change litmus from red to blue
..•. •. b. Sour taste, corrosive change litmus from blue to red
c, §Clur .taste, sjjppery change litmus from blue to red
.d. &..~set ·fuSte~1ippery cHange litmus from blue to red
105. When a nuclear change occurs, what happens to the energy?
a. It is destroyed b. It is released c. It remains unchanged d. None of these
106. Which of the following substances is essential solute in saline water?
a. Salicylic acid b. Acetic acid c. Sodium chloride d. Ammonium chloride
107. Complete the following reaction fH +tH ....,.._,
a. ~0Be b, ~He c. ~He d. ~Be
108. Consider the following statements II. Group 16 elements are called halogens.
I. Group 3 elements are called pnicogens.
Which of the aboue statement (s) is /are correct?
a. Only I b. Only II c. Iandi! d. Neither I nor II
109. The kinetic energy of the particle increases on increasing the
a. pressure h. humidity c. temperature d. None of these
110. An electron dot structure for an element shows that element's symbol and an arrangement of
dots that indicates the
a. atomic number b. atomic mass
c. total number of electrons d. number of electrons in the outer energy level
111. When you are finished using a bunsen burner you should
a. leave it on for the next person to use. It's the only considerate choice
b. pull off the hose connecting tt1e burner to the gas. The burner won't have gas so it won't be on fire
c. cover the burner with an inverted beaker to suffocate the flame
d. turn off the gas
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112. The chemical name ofCd (Mn04h and Fe3(P04b are
a. cadmium manganate ; Iron (II) phosphHe
113. b. cadmium permanganate ; Iron (II) phosphate
c. cadmium permanganate ; Iron (Ill) phosphide
114.
115. d. cadmium manganale ; Iron (Ill) phosphate
116.
117. Consider the information given below regarding atomic radius.
118. I. It is the half of the distance between the centers of two atoms of an element that are just
119. touching each other.
120. II. It decreases across a period and increases on going down a group.
121.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
122.
a. Iand II b. Only II c. Only I d. Neither I nor II
Froth- floatation process is used for the concentration of
a. oxide ore b. sulphide ore c. carbonate ore d. anyone
Which one among the following industries produces the most non-biodegradable wastes?
a. Thermal Power Plant b. Food Processing Unit
c. Textile Mills d. Paper Mills
Advancement in genetic engineering has been possible due to discovery of
a. oncogenes b. lransposons
c. restriction endonuclease d. exonuclease
'Teressa' is a breed of goat which is found in b. Lakshadweep
d. Southam parts of coastal Tamil Nadu
a. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
c. Coastal Andhra
Consider the following diseases
I. Yellow fever II. Plantar wart Ill. HIV/AIDS N. Rubella
Which ofthe disease(s) given above is/are caused by virus? d. All of these
a. Iand II b. II and Ill c. I, II and Ill
Ozone layerin the upper parts ofthe atmosphere serves as a protective shield againstharmful
a. C02 in the air radiation b. S02 in the air radiation
c. solar ultraviolet d. solar infrared
How do marine animals survive in water without air contact?
a. They do not r~quire any oxygen
h. They take oxygen from water
c. They only produce oxygen in their body d. They get oxygen from water plants
Assertion (A) Red blood cells burst when placed in water.
Reason (R) Due to the phenomenon of osmosis, water enters into red blood cells.
a. II A and R are tnue and R is the correct explanation of A
b. If A and Rare true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true, but R is false
d. A is false, but R is true
Which one among the following is the hardest part of our body?
a. Skull bones of head b. Thumb nails
c. Enamel of teeth d. Spinal vertebra
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A
B. Yellow Revolution Oil seeds
c. Blue Revolution Milk --,,- ic .-:;
D. White Revolution · 4. Fish
Codes ABCD ABC D ABC D
C.1432 d.2314
ABCD b.3 1 4 2
a. 1 2 4 3
124. What will happen if, one kidney is removed from the body of a human being?
a. Death due to poisoning
b. Uraemia and death
c. Stoppage of urination
d. Nothing, the person will survive and remain normal
;
125. Carbohydrates are stored in plants and animals in the form of
a. cellulose and glucose, respectively b. starch and glycogen, respectively
c. starch and glucose, ·respectively d. cellulose and glycogen. respectively
126. ABandCD are parallel straight lines of lengths 5 em and 4 em, respectively. AD and BCintersect at
a point 0 such that AO ~ 10 em, then OD equals to
a. 7 em b. 8 em c. 5 em d. 6 em
127. The average score of boys in an examination of a school is 71 and that of the girls is 73. The
average score of the school in the examination is 71.8. Then, the ratio of the number of boys to
the number of girls appeared in the examination is
&~ l~ &~ d. 3.
3
128. If aandj3 are the roots of the quadratic equation 2x2 -4x+1=0. Then, the value of
1 ,., 1 is equal to
a+2j3 p+2a
a. !3. b. 17 c. 11 d. 13
17 12 17 17
129. A solid sphere of radius 6 ctn is melted into a hollow cylinder of uniform thickness. If the
external radius of the base of the cylinder is 5 em and its height is 32 ern. The uniform thickness
ofthe cylinder is
a. 1.5 em b. 3 em c. 1.2 em d. 1 em
130. Let D and E be the points on sides AB and AC, respectively of a MBC such that DE is parallel to
BC. LetAD=2cm, DB= lorn, AE=3cm and area of MDE=3cm2. What is the value ofEC?
a. 1.5 em b. 1.6 em c. 1.8 em d. 2.1 em
131. If one of the interior angles of a regular polygon is found ~o be ~ times of one of the interior
angles of a regular hexagon, then the number of sides ofthe polygon is
a. a b. 14 c. 12 d. 10
132. ACB is a tangent to a circle at C. CD and CE are chords such that LACE> LACD. If LACD
~LBCE=SO", then b. ED is not parallel to AB
a. co~cE
c. ED passes through the centre o! the circle d. !J.CDE is a right angled triangle
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133. If the geometric mean of three observations 40, SO and xis 10, then the value of xis
~! l4 ~6 ~2
2
134. A dealer buys an article listed at~ 100 and gets,two successive discounts of 10% and 20%. He
spends 10% of t:Ht! 'cost pnce on transport etc. At what price should he sell the article to earn a
profit of 15%?
a. <90 b. <91 c. <91.08 d. <91.10
135. In the adjoining figure AB =a AD = a/2 Pis the mid-point ofAD. The area ofthe shaded region is
b• !2 £11-
136. Out of the letters E, T andN, a 3-letterword is formed at random using all the 3letters. What is
the probability that the word formed is TEN?
a. 1/6 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 2/3
137. If the 3consecutiveverticesofa squareare(-1, 4), (-3, O)and(1, -2), whichofthefollowingcan
be its fourth vertex? h. (2, 3) ~ (1, 2)
a. (3, 2)
138. 3 L ofwater is added to 5L of a 20% solution of alcoholin the water. The strength ofthe alcoholis
now
~ 12,5% h. 27.5% c. 28.5% ~20%
139. The speed of three cars are in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2. What is the ratio between the times taken by the
cars to cover the same distance?
~2:3:4 0.3:4:6 C.1:2:3 d.4:3:2
140. !fa+ b + c=6 and a2 + b2+c2 =26, then what is the value ofab+ be+ ca?
~0 l 2 ~4 ~5
141. Ifx andy denote respectively, the area and the sum ofthe length ofdiagonals of a rectangle with
length 1 unit and breadth~ unit, then which one of the following is correct?
a. xand yare rational h, xis rational and y is irrational
d. x and y are both irrational
c. x is irrational and y is rational
142. IfA+ B= 45°, then (1 + tan A) (1 + tan B) is equal to ~ -2
a.1 h.-1 c.2
143. Two posts are K m apart and the height of one is double that of the other. If from the middle
point of the line joining their feet, an observer finds the angular elevation of their tops to be
complementary, then the height (in m) of the shorter post is
a. -f3K b. 2~ c. 2K d. ·52
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144. Ravi can build a wall in the same time in which Mahesh and Suresh together do it. If Ravi and
145.
146. Mahesh together could do it in 10 days and Suresh alone in 15 days.In what time Mahesh alone
147.
148. do it?
149.
150. a. 30 days b. 40 days c. 50 days d. 60 days
151.
A sum amount to~ 9680in 2 yr and to~ 10648 in 3 yr cowpqupded annually. Then, the sum and
152.
rate ofinterest respectively are
153.
a. '!' sooo. tO"h b. ~ 8500, 10% c. '!' 8500, 9% d. '!' sooo. 9%
Pitt's India Act of 1784 was a/an b. Whit paper
d. Ordinance
a. Resolution
c. Regulating Act
A set of norms and guidelines to be followed by political parties and contesting candidates
during election time.
a. Code of conduct b. Election norms
c. Conduct of elections d. None of these
The Election Commission is a/an b. consttiutional body
a. legal body d. executive committee
c. informal body
The basic tenet of secularism as enshrined in the Constitution of India is
a. propagation of all religions by the state b. propagation of atheism
c. non-propagation of any religion by the state d None of these •
The party system in India can be described as
a. single party b. bi-party c. multi-party d a mixture of all these
The Constitution of India draws its authority from
a. the Indian Independence Act, 1947
b. the constituent assembly which represents all sections of people of the society
c. the people of India
d. the President and the Supreme Court
Match the following
Usll !· Li.stll
(Mines) (Mi~erals) •
A Singhbhum . 1. Copper
B. Khetri
!! Bauxite
C. Amarl<antak plateau Iron-ore
Coal
D. Raniganj
Codes ABCD ABCD ABCD
d.3421
ABCD b.2 1 3 4 c. 4 3 2 1
a. 1 2 3 4
The magnitude of population growth refers to
a. the total population of an area
b. the number of persons added each year
c. the rate at which the population increases
d. the number of females per thousand males
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154. Population density is the number ofpeople living in a unit area of Earth's surface. It is normally
expressed as
a. per square km b. per thousand c. per square metre d. None of these
155. The difference between the export and import of a country is known as
a. trade value .. , ., b. bilateral trade c. foreign trade deficit d. balance of trade
156. Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well protected port along the
East coast?
a. Chennai b. Tuticorin c. Paradeep d. Visakhapatnam
157. Consider the following statements.
I. Cheque is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the persons account
to the person whose name the cheque has been issued.
II. The facility ofcheque makes it possible to directly settle payments without the use ofcash.
lll. They constitute money in the modem economy.
Which of the above statements is/are true about the cheque?
a. Only I b. Only II c. I and Ill d. All of these
158. The banks use the major portion of the deposits to
a. increase their capital wealth
b. to extend loans
c. to help the government by gMng it to the government
d. All of the above
159. Which one ofthe following is not the feature of unorganised sector?
a. Rules and regulations are not followed
b. There is no provision of paid holidays
c. Employment is secure
d. Employment Is depends on the whims of the employer
160. Per capita income is calculated in which of the following currency?
a. Dollars b. Euro
c. Pond d. Currency of respective country
161. People of which of the following places live in famine like conditions even today?
a. Kalahandi b. Kashipur c. Palamau d. All of these
162. The Provincial Governors of Delhi Sultanate were known as
a. Shiqdar b. Walis or Muqtas c. Jagirdars d. Sunan-1- Kaffar
163. Consider the following statements Bhakti teachers imphasised that the
I. Relationship between man and man should be based on brotherhood.
II. Relationship between man and God should be based on love.
III. They called for the equality of gender.
Which ofthe above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I b. I and II c.landlll d. All of these
164. Assertion (A) The Quit India Movement (1942) was perhaps the most powerful mass movement
faced by the British in India.
Reason (R) The mass upsurge in the Quit India Movement made the British realise the
inevitability of Indian independence.
a. Both are true and R is the correct explanation of A
h. Both are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true, but R is false
d. A is false, but R is true
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165. The demand for labour is called c. Direct demand d. Derived demand
a. Factory demand b. Market demand
166. Consider the following statements
I. The drafting of the document called Constitution was done by an assembly of elected
representatives called constituent assembly.
II. The constituent assembly represented the people oflndia.
Ill. The members of the Constituent Assembly elected mainly by the members of the existing
provincial legislatures.
IV. The drafting committee ofthe ConstituentAassemblychaired by Dr BRAmbedkar prepared
a draft Constitution for discussion.
Which ofthe aboue statement (s) is/arerorrect abaut the constituent assembly?
a. I and IV b. II and Ill c. I, II and Ill d. All ofthese
167. Consider the following statement(s) is/are related to unfair elections.
I. Inclusion of false names and exclusion of genuine names in the voters list.
II. Misuse of government facilities and officials by the ruling party.
III. Excessive use of money by rich candidates and big parties.
IV. Intimidation ofvoters and rigging on poling day.
Which of the above statement{s) is/are correct?
a. I, II and Ill b. II and Ill c. Ill and IV d. All of these
168. Consider the following statements
L President is the head of the state and is the highest formal authority in the country.
II. The Prime Minister is the head of the government and actually exercises all governmental
powers.
III. The Parliament consists of two houses of the Parliament and the President.
Which ofthe above statement (s) is/are corn,<:!?
a. Only I b. Only II c. I and Ill d. All of these
169. Match the following
Wstl Ustll
A. Kharaj 1. Paid by well to do muslims for helping needy
8. Khams
C. Jaziya 2. Tax levied on non·muslim for the protection of life and property
D. Zakat
3. 1/5th of the spoils of war
4. Land tax paid by the Hindus
Codes ABCD ABCD ABCD
ABCD
b. 3 4 2 1 c. 1 2 3 4 d.2134
a.4321
170. The main cause of conflict between the Vijaynagar empire and the Bahmani kingdom was the
control of
a. Krishna-Godavari Delta b. Tungabhadra Doab c. Konkan d. All of these
171. Match the following •. .. List-11
,,_ '
A. Vlsistadvaita
8. Dvaita 1. Vallabhacharya
2. Nimbakacharya
c. Ovaitadvaita 3. Madhvacharya
4. Ramanujacharya
D. Suddhadvaita
Codes ABCD ABCD ABCD
ABCD
b. 3 4 2 1 c. 1 2 3 4 d. 2 1 3 4
a.4321
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172. Which of the following is/are basic or key industries?
173.
174. a. Iron or steel b. Copper smelting
175.
176. c. Aluminium industl)l d. Agro based industries
177. Which of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material?
178.
179. a. Aluminium b. Cement c. Jute d. Steel
180. a:The fast growing industry has been a major foreign exchange earner in the last decade
Information and Technology h. Foreign Investment
c. Business Processes Outsourcing d. None of these
The group of sedimentaxy minerals including, gypsum, potash salt and sodium salt are formed
as a result of which process?
a. Decomposition h. Evaporation c. 'Distilation d. Both 'a' and 'b'
Match the following
~----~---,-------------
LisFl List II
A Nickel 1, Non~metallic
B. Copper
2. Energy resource
C. Natural gas
D. Mica 3, Non-ferrous
, 4. Ferrous -~-----
··-----~---
Codes ABCD ABCD A 8 CD
ABCD h. 3 4 2 1 c. 1 2 3 4 d.2134
a.4321
The headquarters ofthe Asian Development Bank is situated at which of the following places?
a. Washington DC h: Geneva c. San Francisco d. Manila
Which of the following became the India's first women cricket coach?
a. Sunlta Sharma b. Kavita Sharma c. Sunita Aggarwal d. Art! Pradhan
Match the following
A 1st Buddhist Council (Rajglr) List II
B. 2nd Buddhist Council (Valshal~ (Klngs)
C. 3rd Buddhist Council (Pattlputra)
D. 4th Buddhist Council (Kundalavan) 1. Kanlska
. 2. Ashoka
Ii 3. Kalsoka
4.. Ajatshtru
Codes ABC D ABCD ABCD
d.2134
ABCD h. 3 4 2 1 c. 1 2 3 4
a.4321
Match the following
~~---~~--------U-st~ll -----
(Capitals)
A Cl1olas 1. Sakala
B. Cheras 2. Van)i or Karur
IC. Pandyas . 3. Puhar (Kaveripattnam)/Urar,our
D. Indo-Greeks 4. Madura!
Codes ABC 0 ABCD ABCO
d.4321
ABCO b. 2 3 4 1 c. 1 2 3 4
a. 3 2 4 1
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Hints and Solul:ions ~II II
Paper I : Mental Ability Test
1. (~ 2 59140027 16. (c) Given, (7 +.4)-(5+ 6)= 0
LJLJLJLJ~
+-3 +4 +5 +6 +7 (7+6)-(8+4) 1
(11+2)-(0+2) =11
2. (a) 1 6 13 ~ 33 46 17. (~ 2 2 = 4, 52 =25 => 425
2 2 = 4, 42 =.16=>416
LJLJLJLJLJ 32 = 9, 52 =25~925.
+5 +7 +9 +11 1'13
••. Add only odd numbers. 18. (c) 19. (lij 20. (b)
3· (a) L.UUUL'/3 21.(~ 22. (lij 23. (£)
+8 +S +16 +16 +24 +24
4. (~ 3L9J2L7 J81 1~2431
"3 1<3 x3 ><3
5. (b) Given, 19, 2. 38, 3, 114, 4, 24. (b) As per arrange in increasing order
Then, 19x2=38=> 38x3=114 Village ->District ->State ->Country ->World.
114X4=456
25. (a) Firstly, we took an envelope and put a letter in it, which
6. (<) Second is acquired from the first.
is posted in a Post-box and after clearance it will be
7. (lij In cricket, ball is hit by bat. Similarly, in hockey, ball ish~ delivered, so the correct sequence is (4),(3), (1),
(5), (2).
by 'stick'.
26. (~ Child firstly go the play way, then school, then college
8. (b) As, tea is consumed through a cup, in the same way and finally as a result he/she will get a job.
tobacco is consumed through a hookah.
27. (b) Figure is moving eo• in clockwse.
9. (~ All except 'universe' form a part of universe.
28. (IJ) Fig. (ii) =Fig. (iii).: Fig. Q) =Fig. (iv)
10. (b) All except 'school' are dwelling places.
29. (c) Clearly, triangle figure is outermost part of the third figure
11. (~ All except 'Geography' are Science subjects.
and the first raw figure form the inner part
12. (~ All except 'brick' are suits lor cards. 30. (a) The third figure in each row having one lesser figure than
13. (b) Outol30 students, 5 olthem did not qualify !he test So, second figure.
only 25 could qualify. 31. (£) As per order in column, both will be small English
alphabets.
n=25,B1 =13th
T,=n+1-Br 32. (b) Dot ( ·) and cross (x) moves one place forward clockwise.
=(25+ 1)-13=13th
14. (a) Anuj 33. (dj Figures move 90' anti-clockwise, then 180'agaln.
(·61 2 3 4 7 8 9 101112)3141(16171819 34. (a) (a* b)+ (a eb)
~oov (a+ b)2 + (a-b)2
a2 + b2 + 2ab + a2 + b2 -2ab
2(a2 + b 2)
So, there are only 7 students beiWeen them 35.(~ Given, 9•4=169means9+4~13=>132 169
(6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12).
Then, 14 * 1
15. (b)
Similarly, 14+ 1= 15 => 152 ; 225
36. (b) 5+ 14+2 x2 -2
.·. ? = (9 + 3) x(9- 3)= 72 5+ 7 x2 -2 => 5+ 14-2
19 2 = 17
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:rl. (b) Let the width of rectangle be xand its length be (x + 10~ 48. (a) There are 40 artists who are not players and not doctors.
Perimeter= 2 (I+ b) 49. (d) Number of days in April= 30- 19 = 11 days
=> 2(x+10+x)=84
Number of days in May to August
=> 2x+20+2x=84
= 31 + 30+ 31 + 31 = 123days
,, X=16
Number of days in September = 28 days
:. Length of rectangle = x + 10= 16+ 10=26 em
To1al number of odd days= 11 + 123 + 28= 162
38. (4 Share of A is 30% Numberofweeksin162days= 162
7
IShare of Bis 145%
= 23 weeks and 1 "'!d day
Share of C is )25%)
So, the day will be Friday+ 1= Saturday
100%
50. (a) Day before yesterday= Tuesday
Share of C will be => .640 " 25 = ~ 160
Yesterday= Wednesday
100
39. (~ N Today =Thursday
w-.~.4.,,'.,'.f)-''-*--,-,-''9'I>0"--cElockwise Tomorrow= Friday
' Day after tomorrow= Saturday
~·51. (<) ~
m Q.J~
c.
52. (<)
m~53. (a)
4 ~km 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (d)
(8-W) 57. (11) 7843Sil@ss41!@37848fl§§la
So, she is towards West from the starting point. So, there are only three a's.
Solutions (Q. Nos. 41-46) 58. (d)
G Husband C Brolher A , Husband I]] So, they will not call out the same number.
i 59. (d) 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96, 108, 120, 132, 144, 156
H The number36, 72, 106and144aredivislbleby9 and 60
and 120 are divisible by 10. So In to1al, 7 such numbers
41. (d) A Is brother-in· law of G. which are only divisible by 12.
42. (b) C is the son of D-.
60. (<) Mirror clock Natural clock
43. (c). Husband (E) and wife (0).
So, it means the actual time will be 1o : 30.
44. (a) C is the uncle of I.
45. (a) H islhe nephew of A.
46. (<) There are 5 male persons among 8 members as E, C, A,
H,andl.
47. (IJ) There are 20 artists who are players also.
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61. (~ In figure (d), inner and outer figure is not connected by So, squares are IJPQ, JKLO, PQNO, NQLM, IKMO,
ABQH, BCDQ, HOFG, QDEF and ACEG. i.e., 10.
small lines.
67. (c)
62. (a) In figure (a), inner and outer shaded parts concide to
66. (c)
one other part.
69.(b) ~
63. (a) It is clear from the figure that the numbers
1¢'>4 => 2<o>5 => 3<o>6
are opposite to each other.
64. (IJ) It is clear from the figure that five, one, three and six dots
cannot appear opposite to 2 dots. So, the remaining
(four dots) dots will be the answer.
65. (~ c
70. (li) ;I~:
.. I
71. (a) ·
So, triangles are dACE, ABDG, AHJF, AABG, AHIG, 72. (b) a bbc/aQ/bcoa!)2c/caa!lfcb
ii.HJG, AIJG, AACG, ii.GBC,ABCL, ABCD, ABLG,ACLD,
ACDG, ALDG, AJKG, AGJE, AGKF, AGDE and t.CGE. 73. (c). !l,bccga/q;aabb/aab!l.co
i.e., 20.
74. (a) a§.boc/b!l.oai!fcoa!l,b{aab_g_c
66. (b)
75. (~ ab_g_/aa!;lc/aab!l.c/J!abb_g_c
Q
0 NM 76. (c) l!blaaf_g_aca.Q/cacab/llilfcaCJ!b/aa
GFE 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (c)
82. (c)
80. (c) 81. (a) 85. (c)
83. (a) 84. (~ 88. (~
86. (~ 87. (c)
89. (li) 90. (c)
Paper II : Scho1astic Aptitude Test
91. (IJ) Vmax :Maximum positive area of a·t graph t=!JIL
=Area batween 0 and 8 s t, + 12
. = 30m/s
96. (c) There are four combinations of three resistors such as
92. (b} The orbital speed is expressed as
I .. .. ... I
V='J1R
NN ffi Mi
where, R is radius of planet.
(i) (ll)
93. (b} Hygrometer is used to measure humidity.
""·~=~a
94. (~ In a uniform magnetic field, the magnitude as well as (iii) Qv)
direction of the strength of magnetic field remains the 97. (a) According to Flemming's left·hand rule, direction of
same throughout the region, Unifonm magnetic field is
represented by an equidistant set of parallel lines. magnetic induction will be towards North.
95. (~ !:_:1_+_:1,=~+12 99. (a) Steel has more retentivity and coercivlty, so~ is used for
f t, 12 t,t,
making permanent magnet. _
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99. (!J) Above the curie temperature, the susceptibility of a 117. (a) Teressa goat is mainly found in Teressa Island and
Nicober Island.
ferromagnetic substance varies Inversely as the
118. (d) Yellow fever, plantar wart, AIDS and rubella all are viral
absolute temperature.
diseases.
100, (!J) Np = Vp =is "'* is :fVP iP_ =2x 140 =2A Yellow fever·YeUow Fever Virus
Plantar wart disease"Human Papi!lotl'.a Virus (HPV)
Ns Vs lp Ns 280 AIDS" Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
Rubella (Gennan measles)-Rubella Virus
101. (l:iJ The image Is fonnea lor s~ort sighted person before
119. (c) Ozone layer in the upper parts of the atmosphere serves
retina. as a protective shield against harmful solar ultraviolet
102. (a) The rays reflected by a mirror, the nirror is plane. radiation.
103. (b) Chemical name of Mg3(P04):;. Is magnesium phos~hate 120. (ll) Marine animals do survive In water, without air contact
and its oxidation number is + 2. because they take (dissolved) oxygen from water.
104. (b) According to Boyle, an acid is corrosive, has sour taste 121. (a) When red blood cells are placed in pure water, water
and changes blue litmus to red.
rapidly enters the cells by osmosis and causes the cells
105. (l:iJ Energy is released during a nuclear change. to burst, a phenomenon known as 'hemolysis'.
e.g., Nuclear nssion, decay, half-life etc. 122. (c:) Tooth enamel is the hardest and most highly mineralised
106, (c) Sodium chloride (NaCI) is the essential solute in saline substance in the human body. It is also found in the
dermal denticles of sharks.
water and this salt is responsible for salinity.
123. (a) White revolution is associated with milk and milk
107, (c) ~H+TH-; ~He
products while green revolution pertains to our higher
Hydrogen Hellum and assured agricultural productivity. Yellow revolution is
associated with vegetable oils and blue revolution is
108. (a) Group 16 elements are called chalcogens. related to aquaculture.
Group 17 elements are called halogens. 124. (d) The kidney which is left out in the body undergo
109. (c:) Temperature Kinetic energy Increases as temperature enlargement and carries out the extra work of missing
kidney. This is called compensatory· hypatrophy.
because temperature is a measure of the speed wlth
which the particle move. Higher the temperature, the 125. (t:j The carbohydrates are stored in plants and animals in
faster the molecules move.
the form of starch and glucose, respectively.
110. (d) Number of electron in the outer energy level are
represented by an arrangement of dots. 126. (liJ Here, as ABII CD
·Electron dot structure of carbon In t.ABO and !J.CDO,
LB = LC (altemate interior angles)
.9/.....-?Electrons In _outer LA LD
energy level
LAOB=LCOD
111. (d) Its just simple, turn off the gas. so, !J.ABO ~ !J.CDO
112. (li) Chemical name of Cd (Mn04)2 Is cadmium pennanga" '"X
nate and chemical name of Fe3(P04):;. is Iron ~Q C4 D
phosphatets in this (II) represent the oxidation number of
Fe.
113. (a) Atomic radius is the size of the atom and on going from
left to right in a period. It decreases, while on going down
in the group it Increase, due to Increase in number of
valence shells.
l14 (b) Froth-floatation process is used forthe concentration of Then, ~ =!21:2 ""' 5 =.!..'!.
GOOD 400
sulphide ore.
115. (a) Non-biodegradable wastes are. generated by Thennal OD= 4 x 10 = 8cm
5
Power Plants which produces fly.ash Integrated iron and
steel plants which produce blast furnace slag and steel 127. (c:) Let the numbers of boys and girls be x and y,
mel!i,ng slag. ·· respectively.
Then, 71 x + 73y=71.8(x+ y) => O.Bx= 1.2y
116. (<1 Restriction enzymes play a vary important role in the
construction of recombinant DNA molecules., as is done X 1.2 3
in gene cloning experiments. y 0.8 2
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128. (i/J Here, o: +~ =_24: = 2 and ajl =2 132. (a) Join ED, then
2
N 1 +-~+12-o=:p+(a2+<2Hf:l0)(:Jl++22a~)
ow, a+
+= 3a+ $ _ 3(a+{:l)
a{:l + 2J' +2f:l2 4o:~- 2(d+p)2 + atl
= 3(2) - 12 LDEC =LACD =50'
2~)2 + 1_ 17 (angles in a~ernate segment)
2 L.EDC = L.BCE = 50'
129. (~ Radius of sphere = 6 em
:. Volume of sphere 43 =4- x2-2 x 6 x 6x 6 (angles in alternate segment)
=-1V
3 37
_ 88x2 x 36 ems .. L.DEC = L.EDC
7 So, CD= CE
Let r be its internal radius and R be its external radius, 133. (il) Geometric mean of 40, 50 and x= (40x 50xx)113
then material used to cast the cylinder (40 x 50 x x)113 =10 (given)
=Jrh(R2 -r2)= 22 x32(25 F) 40x SOx X=103
7
Hence, -22 x 32 x (2S - r2)- 88x2 x 36 X= 1000 =_1,
77 40x 50 2
(25 -F)=86)(_2x36x7 g 134. (t) List price of article= ~ 100
22x32x7
, r 4cm Cost price for dealer
_ (100 -20) X J:IOO -10) X 100
Thickness of cylinder= R - r= 5-4= 1em 100 100
=80x90x100=~?2
130. (ilj In I>ADE and !>ABC, 100 x100
A Money spent on transport =10- x 72 = n.20
100
1 em
Total cost prtce = 72 + 7.20 = ~ 79.20
a'---------"c
Selling price - (lOO + 15) x 79.20
LA=LADEIIBC
. 100
115 "79.20
100
=~91.08
6ADE-6ABC 135. (t) Area of shaded region
AD AE =Area of MBP + Area of APDC
BD =_1, x ABx AP+_l, DC x PO
~=~ => EC=-3=1.5cm 22
1 EC 2 =.!.xABxAP+ _1, ABxPD
131. (i/J Exterior angle of a regular hexagon= ~(J' = 60' 22
:. Each of interior angle =180' - 60' =120' = _l,AB (AP + PD) (·: AB = DC)
:, Each interior angle of the given polygon 2 r:AD=(AP +PO))
=_!!X 120' 135' = -1ABx AD (·: AB=a and AD=~)
2
8
:, Each of exterior angle of the given polygon =~ ABx A:=~ 2
= 180' -135' = 45' a
136. (a) Total number of 3-letter words formed with three letters
E, TandN = 6outofwhich TEN is one word, so P(TEN
formed) = 1/6
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137. (a) Let the points are A (-1, 4), 8(- 3, 0), C (1, -2) and = 2.[5 =.f5 =Irrational
D(x,y~ 2
M1. d·po.1nto'.AC = (--1-+.1- -42-2 ) 142. (<) (1 + tan A){1 + tan B)
2 = (1 + tanA)[1 + tan(45"-A)J
=()(; y;=(0, 1) =(1 +tanA)[1+ tan45•-tanA]
3, O). Mid-point of BD 1+tan 45'tan A
r= (1+ tanA) 1 + ·1--tan-A1·
.. 1+tanAJ
=(1+ tanA)[1 +tan A+ 1-tan A]
1+tanA
- l2
=(1+ tanA1)+[t-anA~ 2
=> -x--3=0 143. (li) Let PQ and RS be the two posts such that
2
PQ = 2RS (given)
=>
Q
and
s
~ y=2
Thus, (x, y) = (3, 2)
138. (a) Alcohol in 5 L solution= ~ x 5 = 1L R~·--~e~M~go~·~-~a~~P
100
Water= 4 L If M is the mid-point of RP.
If 3 L of water is added to the mixture, we have 1 L RM=PM=K- (·:RP = K, given)
alcohol and (4 + 3) = 7 L of water. 2 LQMP = 90' -6
,a too)%:. Strength of alcohol in mixture= (.:'. x L.RMS =S =>
Let RS = h, then PQ = 2h
=12.5% Now. in llPMQ,
139. (li} Speed « ~1~ tan (90' -6)= PQ,
MP
Time
:. Required ratio=.!:.! : 1 = 3: 4: 6 PQ =CO! 6 => -2=h cote
PM K/2
432
cotS=4h- ... «)
140. (d) ·:(a+ b + cf =a2+b2 + c 2+ 2 (ab +be+ ca) K ••• (11)
.. (6)2 =26+2(ab+bc+ca) lnllSRM, tan6=SR => -h· =tans
RM K/2
=> 2(ab+bC+ca)=iO
=> ab+bc+ca=5 2h =tans
K
141. (/ij Area= x =1x.! =.! =Rational
On muttiplying Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
22
1 unit C 4h x2h =1
KK => h2 ~K-2
8
8112 =K2
h =K- m
2.fi
144. (d) Here, let days taken by Ravi, Mahesh and Suresh be A, B
and C.
-At = -1+ -1, ... (I)
B C ... (IQ
-1+ 1- =1-
A B 10
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and 11 ... (iii) 148. (li) The Election Commission of India is a permanent
... (lv) constitutional body. The commission was es!ablished In
~=- accordance with the Constitution on January 25, 1950.
c 15
149. (c) Secularism refer to as the state has no religi011 of its own
From Eqs. (i) and (iii), we get and will not discriminate on the grounds of religion.
-A1 - -B1= C-1 =11-5 150. (c) The party system In India Is a multi-party system. A
multi-party system Is a system in which muttiple political
From Eqs. (IQ and (lv), we get parties have t.he capactty to gain control of government
offices, separately or coalition.
:::::::> -2= -1+ -1= -1
A 10 15 6 151. (c) The Constitution of India dmws its authority from the
people of India. The ConstiMion was adopted by the
On subtracting Eq. (lv) from Eq. (II), we get people of India.
211 1 152. (c)
153. (c) Population growth is the change in a population over
-=~-
time and can be qualified as the change in the number of
B 10 15 30 Individuals In a population using per unit time.
8=60
So, Mahesh alone do It in 60 days. 154. (a) Population density Is a measurement of population per
145. (a) Let principal be h. unit or unit volume. Population density of India Is 364 per
sq km as per 2011 census.
Rate = R% per annum
155. (d) The balance of trade Is the difference between the
Amount, A1 = t 9680, 11 =2yr monetary value of exports and imports of output In an
economy,
Amount, A2 = t 10648, 12 = 3yr
156. (d) Vlsal<hapatnam port is one of 13 major ports in India and
1~rA, =P(1 +
+...!!..)2 the only major port of Andhra Pradesh. It Is India's
=} 9660 = X (~1 100 ". (ij second largest port by volume of Cargo handled.
... (IQ
. 157. (d) A cheque Is a document that orders a payment of money
!rom a bank account. It Is a type of bill of exchange and
1=> A2 =X (1 + ~)' were developed as a way to mal<e payments without the
)3=> 10648=· X (1 + R need to carry large amount of money.
100
158. (b)
On dividing equations (II) by (I), we get
159. (c) Secured employment is an feature of the organised
=> (1 +..B...)= 10648 sector. Employment Is secured unless something wrong
100 9680 is committed by the employee.
..B...=10648 -1 =968 160. (a) The per capita Income of the different countries across
the world is calculating In dollars for the comparitive
100 9680 9680 study of !he countries economy.
=> -R= -1 161. (a) Kalahandl is a district of Odlsha.
100 10 162. (b) The Provincial Government of !he Sultanate was not well
developed. The Provincial Governors of the region were
.. R=10% usually called Walls or Muqtas.
From Eq. (I), we get 163. (d) The Bhaktl Movement originsted In ancientTarnil Nadu.
Neyanars and Alvars played major role in Bhaktl
9680= x(1 +,;or =x(~~r Movement. It counters the Ideology of caste and calls lor
universal brotherhood.
x=9680x10x10
164. (a)
11
165. (d) Labour demand Is said to be derived demand because
=> X=8000 it is derived from the output levels in the goods market,
which contribute to employer's revenue and hence
.• Principal = t 8000 profit
146. (c) The East India Company Act 1784, also known Pitt's
India Act, was an Act of !he Parliament of Great Brttain
intended to address the shortcomings of the Regulating
Act of 1773, by bringing the East India company's rule in
India under the control of the British Government.
147. (a) Model code of conduct Is a set of guidelines laid down
by the Election Commission to govern the conduct of
political parties and candidates In the run-up to an
electi011.
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166. (a) A constituent assembly is a body composed for the 178. (a) Aluminium is the most plentiful metal in the Earth crust. It
purpose of draf!ing or adopting a Constitution as per is found In the form aluminium oxide in an ore called
the provision made under the Cabinet Mission Plan of bauxite used for aluminium and arumina production.
1946.
174. (c:) Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) is a subset of
167. (a)
168. (a) The President is the executive head of the state. All the outsourcing that involves the contracting of the
operations and responsibilities of specific business
actions of the government are done by Council of
Ministers in his name. functions to a third perty service provider.
169. (a) 175. (b) Evaporalion Is the process by which water is converted
170. (a) The main cause of conflict between the Vijayanagar from Its liquid form to 1ts vapour form and thus transferred
from land and water masses to the atmosphere.
empire and the Bahmani kingdom was the control over
Krishna·Godavari Delta, Tungabhadra Doab and the 176. (a)
Konkan area.
177. (~ The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional
171. (a)
development bank, established on August 22,1966 to
172. (a) The basic industries produce the primary raw materials facilitate economic development of countrtes in Asia. It's
for the factories to work steel industry, cotton ginning headquarter is situated a! Manila, in Philippines.
mills are basic industries that feed the automobiles,
heavy industries. 178. (a) Sunita Sharma, the country's only wcmen cricket coach
has been training many Indian team probables for the
last 21 years.
179. (a) 180. (a)
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