Scholarship Board Rehearsal Exam Activity (Phase 1+ Phase 2) Pre upper Primary Scholarship Exam Std 5th Pre secondary Scholarship Exam Std 8th Medium – English/ Marathi Features: 1) Question papers as like board question paper booklets of (Maharashtra State Council Examination Boards weightage easy- 30% medium-40% difficult-30% Pattern) Paper 1 (approx. 8 pages) + Paper 2 (approx. 8 pages), Colour OMR , specialized answer key. (Hard offset printing papers) 2) Answer Sheet (Colour OMR) like actual board answer sheet. 3) Experience the rehearsal of actual Scholarship board paper (Phase 1 + Phase 2) 15 Exams 4) Time management will be practiced with phase 1- 1050, phase 2- 1200 Total 2250 questions. 5) Trick wise explanation of Mathematics & intelligence test questions. 6) By using Formulae, Hints, Short Tricks students will get concept clearance and save time. 7) Mistakes will be eliminated gradually. 8) Fear of main board exam will disappear. 9) Increases the confidence level of students, teachers and parents. Instructions: 1) Use black or blue ball pen only for practice, strictly do not use pencil or ink, gel pen. 2) Don't spend time in reading previous year question paper’s instructions. 3) Solve easy and formula based questions on first priority. 4) Solve the difficult questions with tricks.
5) On colour OMR dark the answer circle from the outside to inner side so that it does not half field or go outside. 6) Use colored OMR for practice, Creating an Enthusiastic Environment: School level: The question paper should be solved in one and a half hour in a strict supervision by keeping proper distance between the students. If possible explain the explanation on projector with the help of PDF. Home Level: Parents should take care of time duration of one & half hour and practice at home in an exam-like supervision by removing other distractions. Explanation should be explained later on what’s app pdf. Advantages: 1) Speed + Accuracy = Success is the formula of success 2) Tricks saves historical time 3) Available at a lower price than Xerox 4) One practice paper set = Paper 1(8 pages) + Paper 2 (8 pages) + Colored OMR (2) Speaking answer list (2) Total 20 pages + Explanation with notes (8 pages ) What’s-app / Projector (Soft copy pdf.) Total planning of 28 pages. Total 15 sets = 420 pages. Our other Products: SDA Rising Scholar App (5M, 5E, 8M, 8E) Android App SDA Rising Scholar Windows Software (5M, 5E, 8M, 8E) SDA Pattern’s Rising Scholar Proficiency level Booklets (State-level) (5M, 5E, 8M, 8E) Contact: H.O. Plot 23, Behind Kanda Market, Shrirampur Dist Ahmednagar Ph 8830115763, 8421895385
Use for Rough work (1) P.T.O. Set A PRE UPPER PRIMARY SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION (Std. 5th) Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. (1) This question paper contains two sections. In Section I there are 1 to 25 questions of First Language and in Section II there are 26 to 75 questions of Mathematics. All 75 questions are compulsory. (2) All questions carry 2 marks each. (3) Time limit to solve the question paper is 90 minutes. (4) Separate answer sheet is given to record the answers. Each question has been given four alternatives. Read them carefully. Select the correct answer and shade the correct answer in the answer sheet. Example : If Q. No. 6 has option number 2, as the correct answer, then completely the circle No. 2 as shown below. Question No. 6 (5) Answer marked in the following way will carry zero mark. (6) Use blue or black ball pen to darken the circle. Pencil is not allowed. Circles darkened by pencil will not be credited. (7) Once you have darkened the circle as correct alternative you cannot change it. (8) If more than one circles are darkened or overwriting is done, the answer will not be accepted. (9) Questions can be cancelled due to printing mistake or any other reason, on the basis of the suggestions given by the Committee of Experts. Seat No. S D A 0 1 1 1 Medium : English Paper No. I First Language and Time : 1 Hr. 30 Min. Pages : 8 Mathematics Total Marks : 150 SECTION - I First Language Q. 1 and 2 : Read the following extract from a skit and complete the statements : Character : 1) Grandmother 2) Rahul - Grandson Grandma : Rahul, come here. Tell me, dear why are you so sad? Rahul : Some boys in my class keep on teasing me. I feel very hurt. What should I do ? Gramdma : Well, I have an idea. Next time when they teasc you pretend that you cannnot hear them. Ask them to repeat again and again, lounder and lounder, till they get fed up and quit. (Next day, when Rahul returns from school) Rahul : (rushing to grandmother) Hey, Grandma ! Grandma ! Guess what? I did just as your told me to. These guys repeatedly teased me, lounder and lounder and finally gave up. What’s more the teachers overheard them and gave them a severe scolding. Thank you, grandma for you advice. Grandma : That’s my boy. Always tackle difficult people in a cool, wise and tactful manner.
Use for Rough work (2) P.T.O. 1. Rahul was unhappy because ................ (1) his classmates could not hear him (2) teachers punished his classmates (3) his grandmother ignored him (4) some classmates teased him, very often 2. Rahul’s grandmother gave him a .................. solution to his problem. (1) useless and confusing (2) loud and clear (3) simple and wise (4) tough and impossible 3. Read the lines from the poem below and select the exact message : “There may be mountain peaks to climb upon: There may be rivers fast and wide to ride on. Unless you dream, unless you try How will you know, how far you can f1y ?' The lines above advise us ...................... ................................................................... (1) to become a mountaineer and conquer high peaks (2) to learn to cross wide gushing rivers in a boat (3) to be able to fly high in an aircraft (4) to set a goal and confidently try to reach it 4. Say what is missing in the address of the receiver of a letter : To, Mrs. Ashwini S. Patil, 10, Sainath Apartments, M.G. Road, Maharashtra. (India) (1) Name of the Receiver (2) Name of the town and PIN (3) Name of locality (4) Date of dispatch 5. Choose the most appropriate alternative for the diagram below : (1) Good Habits (2) Good Work (3) Good Environment (4) Good Helpers 6. What punctuation mark will you put at the end of the sentence below : He won the gold metal, didn’t he (1) ! (2) ? (3) “ (4) . 7. What suffix will you add to the word care ............ to make it the opposite of ‘Careful’? (1) ......... ing (2) .........ly (3) ......... less (4) .........of 8. Pick the correct word to fill in the blank : If the follow this map, you will not ............ your way. (1) loose (2) lose (3) loss (4) louse 9. Pick out the proper word for ‘that which cannot be seen’. (1) Unseeable (2) Invisible (3) Unclear (4) Transparent 10. If you arrange the following words in the alphabetical order, the word PERFUME will come in the .............. place. perhaps, perfume perfect, perform (1) 3 rd (2) 2 nd (3) 1 st (4) 4 th
Use for Rough work (3) P.T.O. 11. Look at the map of Mohor and complete the sentence : The Railway track in Mohor Taluka runs in the ........ direction. (1) North-South (2) East-West (3) North-East (4) East-South 12. Insert the proper ordinal for 40. She was sitting in the ........ row. (1) forty (2) fourty (3) fortieth (4) fourtieth 13. Choose the correct alternative : He gave me .......... honest reply. A) a B) an (1) (A), (B) both are correct (2) (A), (B) both are im correct (3) (A) is correct (4) (B) is correct 14. In which of the following sentences is the word WORK used as a Noun? (1) Work hard for sucess (2) Work, while you work (3) Work is worship (4) Work out these sums 15. Choose the proper question to get the underlined answer : Saira helped her sister. (1) To worm did Saira help? (2) Whose help did Saira take? (3) Who helped Saira? (4) By whom was Saira helped? 16. “The winners of the Quiz Contest received a big, shining trophy.” The subject in the sentence above is ............... (1) A big, shining trophy (2) The winners (3) The Quiz Contest (4) The winners of the Quiz Contest 17. Choose the correct from of the verb to fill in the blank : The monkey-king .................. to the other side of the river and ordered others to do the same. (1) swing (2) swinged (3) swung (4) swang 18. Choose incorrect option : I know .......... well. (1) you (2) him (3) them (4) be 19. Choose the correct option to make five meaningful words. (1) Sh.......... (2) St.......... (3) Sm......... (4) Ch........
Use for Rough work (4) P.T.O. 20. Choose the incorrect command which we don’t use while working on the computer. (1) Control (2) Shift (3) Fold (4) Copy Q. 21 and 22 : Read the following carefully and complete the statement below : a) I looked bright and shiny and was kept in a display window. b) I was transported in a big truck to a huge mall in Mumbai. c) Finally, I fitted a yung school boy perfectly and he bought me. d) Many tried me on, but I did not fit them. e) He now polishes me regularly and puts me on daily to school. f) I was born in a factory at Kolhapur 21. The above sentences are about : (1) a pair of socks (2) a pair of scissors (3) a pair of glass bangles (4) a pair of shoes 22. What should be the proper order of the sentences given in the above Autobigraphy? (1) fbadce (2) abcdef (3) bacfed (4) eabcfd Q. 23 to 25 : Read the following News and answer the questions : Pune, July 20 : At SBES High School, Pune, teachers make their students use worksheets for written work, everyday, instead of note books. As a result, their school bags are lighter than before. Some schools have installed water-purifiers on every floor. So students bring empty waterbottles and fill them up at school. This helps to reduce the weight of the bags they carry to school. A few schools have provided lockers for their students to avoid carrying text-books back and forth to school. These schools collect and reuse old text-books from the provious batches and provide the same to the present batches for home use. 23. What could be the most appropriate Headline for the News above : (1) School Ban School Bags (2) Schools Work towards Lighter School-bags (3) Schools Provide Drinking Water (4) Schools Use Work books to replace Note-book 24. Choose the correct option. In some schools, students have their text-books in lockers and use ............... to study at home. (1) pre-used text-books (2) another new set of text-books (3) library copies of text-books (4) no books at all 25. Pick out the wrong option : As per the news report schools have taken the following steps to ensure that schools bags are not too heavy : (1) Replaced note-books with work-sheets (2) Provided lockers for school text-books (3) Reduced the number of subjects (4) Installed water-purifiers SECTION - II MATHEMATICS 26. If two rectangles having 13 cm length and 5 cm breadth are joined at the breadth, what is the perimeter of the new figure? (1) 67 cm (2) 130 cm (3) 72 cm (4) 62 cm
Use for Rough work (5) P.T.O. 27. 15 6 2 4 + + = ? 7 7 7 7 (1) 19 7 (2) 19 21 (3) 15 7 (4) 23 7 28. 1 b = 8, 8 then b = ? (1) 1 (2) 16 (3) 64 (4) 72 29. There are 2100 trees of different types in Raosaheb’s orchard. Out of these 25% are mango trees, 20% are coconut trees, 40% are jackfruit trees and remaining trees are of betel nut. How many betel nut trees are there in that orchard? (1) 105 (2) 525 (3) 315 (4) 415 30. A 42,000 millimeter long wire is cut equally at 6 places. What will be the length of each piece? (1) 7 m (2) 6 m (3) 600 millimeter (4) 700 millimeter 31. Which is the greatest number from the following? 0.06, 0.6, 6.0, 0.006 (1) 0.06 (2) 0.6 (3) 6.0 (4) 0.006 32. – Which digits will be there in the place of , , respectively? (1) 7, 3, 5 (2) 9, 4, 5 (3) 9, 7, 3 (4) 2, 1, 0 33. What will be the sum for first and third number after arranging the number 4,97,998, 4,98,989, 4,97,889 and 4,97,999 in descending order? (1) 996987 (2) 996988 (3) 996878 (4) 996888 34. Rohit has purchased 3 dozen pencils with the rate three and half rupees per pencil. He sold all the pencils of Rs. 150. Did he make a profit or a loss? How much? (1) Profit Rs. 120 (2) Profit Rs. 24 (3) Loss Rs. 24 (4) Loss Rs. 42 35. Sushant wrote the amount Rs. 35 paise 5 as Rs. 35.5. What is the difference between these amounts? (1) 45 paise (2) 55 paise (3) 50 paise (4) No difference 36. A rectangular field having lenght 855 m and breadth 205 m was sold with the rate Rs. 400 per square metre. What is the selling price of that field? (1) Rs. 17,62,750 (2) Rs. 7,01,10,000 (3) Rs. 7,05,110 (4) Rs. 7,05,10,000 37. Dhanesh has equal number of notes of Rs. 50, Rs. 20, Rs. 10 and Rs. 5. If the total amount is Rs. 1,020, then how many 50 rupee notes does Dhanesh have? (1) 50 (2) 12 (3) 68 (4) 34 38. Whish is the false statement from the following? (1) All sides of a rectangle are of equal measure (2) All sides of a rectangle are of equal length (3) Adjacent sides of a square are perpendicular to each other (4) All angles of a square are right angles
Use for Rough work (6) P.T.O. 39. Swara deposited Rs. 20,000 in a bank for 5 years at the rate of 7 p.c.p.a. How much interest will she get? (1) Rs. 5,000 (2) Rs. 700 (3) Rs. 7,000 (4) Rs. 500 40. A bus has completed 4 rounds non-stop in a day from Nagpur to Vardha and Vardha to Nagpur, every time 42 passengers travelled by that bus. If a rate of ticket for a person is Rs. 85, what is the total income of the bus that day? (1) Rs. 1,360 (2) Rs. 27,200 (3) Rs. 28,560 (4) Rs. 28,660 41. Write the number fifteen crore fifteen hundred and fifteen in figure : (1) 1,50,01,515 (2) 15,00,00,515 (3) 15,01,50,015 (4) 15,00,01,515 42. How many tens should be added in the result after subtracting 10 units from 42 tens for getting sum 5 hundred? (1) 90 (2) 9 (3) 180 (4) 18 43. 5 hours 35 minute = how many minutes? (1) 535 (2) 95 (3) 300 (4) 335 44. From the following which statement is false? (1) Diameter of a circle is twice its radius (2) Diameter of a circle is the largest chord (3) Radius of a circle is half of the diameter (4) We can draw one and only one diameter to the circle 45. Which number should be added to the number 85164 for getting the smallest 6-digit number? (1) 14835 (2) 14836 (3) 14736 (4) 14735 46. 7.7 + 0.7 + 00.70 + 0.07 + 0.77 + 0.00007 = ? (1) 9.94007 (2) 99.4007 (3) 9.24707 (4) 9.2407 47. Which of the following alternatives is wrong? (1) 1 4 (2) 1 4 (3) 1 4 (4) 1 4 48. Pradeep has an amount of Rs. 10,080. In which 500 rupee notes are 1 4 the number of 100 rupee notes, the 50 rupee notes are half the number of 100 rupee notes and the 1 rupee notes are twice the number of 100 rupee notes. Find the number of 100 rupee notes that Pradeep has. (1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 40 (4) 50 49. What is the product of greatest prime number and smallest odd prime number from the numbers 1 to 100? (1) 194 (2) 291 (3) 198 (4) 293 50. Identify the smallest fraction from 4 7 2 5 , , , ? 7 4 28 14 (1) 4 7 (2) 7 4 (3) 2 28 (4) 5 14
Use for Rough work (7) P.T.O. 51. From the following which is not an equivalent fraction of 29 ? 8 (1) 5 3 8 (2) 58 16 (3) 6 3 8 (4) 290 80 52. Gouri spent three hundred and fifty rupees for repairing TV set, which was purchased for Rs. 14,500. After some deays she sold it for sixteen thousand rupees. Did she make a profit or a loss? How much? (1) Profit Rs. 1,050 (2) Loss Rs. 1.050 (3) Profit Rs. 1,140 (4) Loss Rs. 1,150 53. In the figure, if each of two points on the circle are joined, then how many maximum segments can be drawn? (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12 54. If 5 quire (daste) pages out of 1 gross are used for printing, then how many pages remained? (1) 60 (2) 20 (3) 12 (4) 24 55. Sayali has covered 4 km distance in 10 minutes in Marathon race. How much distance will she cover in one minute? (1) 4 m 10 (2) 800 m (3) 400 m (4) 40 m 56. By how much is the sum of the number of faces and edges of cuboid is more or less than the sum of number of edges and vertices of a cube? (1) Loss by 2 (2) More by 2 (3) Loss by 6 (4) More by 6 57. Which is the digit at the place of * in the number 6 * 54 *, which is divisible by 9? (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 6 58. Shabanum has some chocolates. She has given 15% of it to Joseph. It she has given 30 chocolates to Joseph, then how many chocolates does she have previously? (1) 90 (2) 150 (3) 60 (4) 200 59. Rahul gave Rs. 15,000 to Santosh for 3 years. Santosh gave him Rs. 4,500 as an interest, then what was the rate of interest percent per annum? (1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 9 (4) 8 60. What is the sum of all divisors of 24? (1) 59 (2) 36 (3) 60 (4) 66 61. By how much the sum of greatest five digit number and greatest two digit number is greater than smallest three digit number? (1) 1,00,098 (2) 99,998 (3) 99,999 (4) 1,00,198 62. Madhav was born on 15th June 2011, which was Thursday. What will be the day on his 5th birthday? (1) Tuesday (2) Thursday (3) Saturday (4) Monday 63. How many times 6 10 should be added to 6 10 to get the sum 3 ? (1) 5 times (2) 3 times (3) 4 times (4) 2 times M N Q P O
Use for Rough work (8) P.T.O. 64. By how much is the sum of the place values of 4 in the number 4056,784 greater than place value of 5? (1) 40,00,004 (2) 39,50,004 (3) 39,50,000 (4) 40,50,004 65. If the divisor in the division 6363 9 is reduced by 2, then by how much the quotient will increase? (1) 1 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 202 66. Which is the greatest five digit number formed by using the digits 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 only once and divisble by 8? (1) 79856 (2) 97658 (3) 97586 (4) 97856 67. A cricket match started at 10 according to 24 hour clock. What wil be the time according to 12 hour clock if it is ended at 16 : 45? (1) 5 : 45 (2) 4 : 45 (3) 15 : 45 (4) 2 : 45 68. 50 present of 50 is how much? (1) 50 (2) 100 (3) 25 (4) 75 Note for Q. 69 to 70 : Observe the pictograph and answer the questions “ The way of coming to school Number of students By walk Cycle Rickshaw With present Scale : 1 picture = 50 students. 69. Information about how many students is given in the pictograph? (1) 75 (2) 50 (3) 500 (4) 750 70. How many students coming by rickshaw are more than the students coming by cycle? (1) 300 (2) 200 (3) 100 (4) 50 71. According to Roman numerals find M – D L = ? (1) 10 (2) 90 (3) 8 (4) 990 72. If the car is purchased for sixty five thousand rupees and sold it for fifty four thousand rupees, then how much was the loss? (1) Rs. 10,500 (2) Rs. 11,500 (3) Rs. 1,500 (4) Rs. 11,000 73. How many maximum number of notes of Rs. 50 could be there in total amount of Rs. 970? (1) 17 (2) 18 (3) 19 (4) 20 74. From the following figure which is not a net for Pentomino? (1) (2) (3) (4) 75. If there was a government holiday for second Saturday on 8th October, 2016, then what was the date on fourth Saturday? (1) 22nd October (2) 24th October (3) 23rd October (4) 20th October
(1) P.T.O. PRE UPPER PRIMARY SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION (Std. 5th) SDA Pattern ØeLece Yee<ee Je iee fCele (First Language and Mathematics) 1. (4) some classmates teased him, very often 2. (3) simple and wise 3. (4) to set a goal and confidently try to reach it 4. (2) Name of the town and PIN 5. (1) Good Habits 6. (2) ? 7. (3) ......... less 8. (2) lose 9. (2) Invisible 10. (1) 3 rd 11. (1) North-South 12. (3) fortieth 13. (4) (B) is correct 14. (3) Work is worship 15. (1) To worm did Saira help? 16. (4) The winners of the Quiz Contest 17. (3) swung 18. (4) be 19. (2) St.......... 20. (3) Fold 21. (4) a pair of shoes 22. (1) fbadce 23. (2) Schools Work towards Lighter School-bags 24. (1) pre-used text-books 25. (3) Reduced the number of subjects. 26. (4) 62 cm 27. (3) 15 7 28. (3) 64 29. (3) 315 30. (2) 6 m 31. (3) 6.0 32. (2) 9, 4, 5 33. (1) 996887 34. (2) Profit Rs. 24 35. (1) 45 paise 36. (2) Rs. 7,01,10,000 37. (2) 12 38. (2) All sides of a rectangle are of equal length 39. (3) Rs. 7,000 40. (3) Rs. 28,560 41. (4) 15,00,01,515 42. (2) 9 43. (4) 335 44. (4) We can draw one and only one diameter to the circle 45. (2) 14836 46. (1) 9.94007 47. (3) 1 4 48. (3) 40 49. (2) 291 50. (3) 2 28 51. (3) 6 3 8 52. (3) Profit Rs. 1,140 53. (3) 10 54. (4) 24 55. (3) 400 m 56. (1) Loss by 2 57. (1) 6 58. (4) 200 59. (1) 10 60. (3) 60 61. (2) 99,998 62. (2) Thursday 63. (3) 4 times 64. (2) 39,50,004 65. (4) 202 66. (4) 97856 67. (2) 4 : 45 68. (3) 25 69. (4) 750 70. (3) 100 71. (4) 8 72. (4) Rs. 11,000 73. (3) 19 74. (4) 75. (1) 22nd October Answerkey (P-I-SDA-0111)
(2) P.T.O. Solution and Hints 26. 13 5 13 13 5 13 Perimeter=13+ 13 + 13 + 13 + 5 + 5 = 62 cm. Option No. 4 is correct. 27. 15 6 2 4 7 7 7 7 21 2 4 7 7 7 19 4 15 7 7 7 Option No. 3 is correct. 28. 1 b 8 8 Then, 8 8 = 64 Option No. 3 is correct. 29. 25% Mango + 20% Coconut + 40% Jackfruit. = 85 So betal nut trees = 100 – 85 = 15% Total trees = 2100 So, 15 2100 100 = 21 15 = 315 Option No. 3 is correct. 30. Cut into 6 places 6 + 1 = 7 42000 6000 7 6000 6 m 1000 Option No. 2 is correct. 31. 0.6, 0.6, 6.0, 0.006 Biggest number 6.0 Option No. 3 is correct. 32. – – 9 9 9 4 4 4 5 5 5 Option No. 2 is correct. 33. Descending order, 4,98,989, 4,97,999, 4,97,998, 497,889 Ist IIIrd 4,98,989 – 4,97,998 9,96,987 Option No. 1 is correct. 34. Profit Rs. 24 12 3 = 36 3.50 = 150 s.p. = 126 = c.p. 150 – 126 = 24 Profit = s.p. - c.p. = 24 = 150 – 26 Option No. 2 is correct. 35. 35.50 – 35.05 00.45 Option No. 1 is correct. 36. 855 m 205 m Rectangular Area = breadth length 855 205 = 1,75,275 1,75,275 400 = 7,0.1,10,000 Option No. 2 is correct. 37. 50x + 20x + 10x + 5x = 1020 85x = 1020 1020 x 85 1020 60 85 5 60 5 12 Option No. 2 is correct. 38. All sides of rectangle are of equal length is false statement. Opposite sides are equal. Option No. 2 is correct. 39. PNR I 100 20, 000 7 5 100 = 200 35 = 7000 Option No. 3 is correct. 40. Nagpur-Vardha - 4 rounds Vardha-Nagpur - 4 rounds 8 rounds 8 42 = 336 336 85 = 28,560 Option No. 3 is correct. 41. Tcr Cr Tl L TTh Th H T O 1 5 0 0 0 1 5 1 5 Option No. 4 is correct. 42. 42 tens 420 500 10 unit –10 –410 410 090 90. 9 Tens. Option No. 2 is correct.
(3) P.T.O. 43. 1 hour = 60 min. 60 5 = 300 min + 35 min = 335 min. Option No. 4 is correct. 44. We can draw one and ony one diameter to the circle. Option No. 4 is correct. 45. Smallest 6 digist number 1,00,000 – 85,164 014,836 Option No. 2 is correct. 46. Trick : Winte down all digits under exactly decimal point. + 7 + 0.7 + 00.70 + 0.07 + 0.77 + 0.00007 9.94007 Option No. 1 is correct. 47. 42 4 1 8 8 2 1 2 Option No. 3 is correct. 48. 500x 50x 100x 2x 10.080 4 2 500x 50x 100x 2x 10.080 4 2 125 25 1 1 100x + 125x + 25x + 2x = 10,080 252x = 10,080 10,080 x 252 10, 080 x 252 25 1 120 40 Option No. 3 is correct. 49. Biggest prime number = 97 Smallest odd prime number = 3 291 Option No. 2 is correct. 50. 4 7 2 5 , , , 7 4 28 14 4 4 16 7 7 49 2 5 2 10 7 4 28 4 7 28 28 14 2 28 If denominator is same then whose numerator is less smallest fraction. Option No. 3 is correct. 51. 29 8 3 8 29 24 05 5 3 8 is equivalent fraction. 6 8 3 6 30 29 3 8 8 8 8 Option No. 3 is correct. 52. Profit Rs. 1140 c.p. = 14,500 + 350 = 14,850 s.p. = 16,000 Profit = s.p. – c.p. = 16,000 – 14,850 = 1140 Option No. 3 is correct. 53. Trick : 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10 1 M N Q P O Option No. 3 is correct. 54. 1 Gross = 12 dozen = 12 12 = 144 1 quire = 24 = 24 5 = 120 Now Remaining paper = Total paper – waste paper = 144 – 120 = 24 Option No. 4 is correct. 55. 4 km 4 1000 = 4,000 m 4,000 10 m = 400 m Option No. 3 is correct. 56. Less by 2 Cuboid Cube surface 6 Edges - 12 + Edges 12 Vertices -8 18 20 Cuboid = 18, Cube = 20 So less by 2 Option No. 1 is correct. 57. If sum of number is divisible by 9, then that number is divisible by 9. 6* 54* 6 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 6 = 27 273 = 3 Option No. 1 is correct. 58. 15 x 30 100 100 x 30 15 2 1 = 2 100 = 200 Option No. 4 is correct.
(4) P.T.O. 59. 100 I Rate P T 1 100 4500 10 15,000 3 1 3 1 Option No. 1 is correct. 60. Divisior of 24 = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 12 + 24 = 60 Option No. 3 is correct. 61. Greatest 5 digit number 99999 + Greatest 2 digit number 99 1,00,098 1,00,098 – 100 Hence digit smallest number 99,998 Option No. 2 is correct. 62. 2011 But leap year, 2012, + 5 2016 add 2 days. 2016 So total 7 days. Means, Thursday, remains same. Option No. 2 is correct. 63. 3 denominator : 1 Numerator Trick 10 10 3 3 1 6 6 5 2 1 1 5 – 1 = 4 Option No. 3 is correct. 64. 40,56,784 place value of 4 = 400.0,000 + 5 place value = 50,000 So 40,00,000 + 4 40,00,004 50,000 39,50,004 Option No. 2 is correct. 65. 707 9 6363 63 00 06 63 63 00 909 7 6363 63 00 06 63 63 00 Now difference = 909 – 707 = 202 Option No. 4 is correct. 66. Test divisibility of 8. If unit, lens and hundred place is divisible by 8, then number is diviible by 8. So, 856 is divisble by 8 and biggest number 97856. Option No. 4 is correct. 67. 16:45 24 hr. clock – 12 : 00 12 hr. clock 4 : 45 Option No. 2 is correct. 68. 50% of 50 50 50 25 100 2 1 1 25 Option No. 3 is correct. 69. By walk 3 50 = 150 As proportion Cycle 4 50 = 200 1 picture = 50 Rickshaw 6 50 = 300 Parent 2 50 = 100 = 750 Option No. 4 is correct. 70. Rickshaw 6 50 = 300 Cycle 4 50 = 200 = 100 Option No. 4 is correct. 71. M D L M = 1000, D = 500, L = 50 1000 500 50 1000 – 10 = 990 Option No. 4 is correct. 72. 65,500 – 54,000 11,500 Option No. 4 is correct. 73. 19 50 970 50 470 450 020 So 19 notes. Option No. 3 is correct. 74. 1 2 3 4 5 6 Option No. 3 is correct. 75. 2 nd Saturday - 8 October 3 rd Saturday - 15 October 4 th Saturday - 22 October Option No. 1 is correct.
(1) P.T.O. 32. (2) 10 32 33. (1) Common 34. (4) 35. (4) 73 36. (3) 76 37. (3) EAF 38. (4) 39. (3) 63 40. (4) Rectangle 41. (3) 14 42. (3) Thursday 43. (4) Daugter of my sister 44. (1) 13 45. (1) 6 46. (3) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (2) You will try to make him understand the important of conservation of historical momunts. 1. (3) keâLLekeâ 2. (2) je° ^erÙe he#eer 3. (4) mehlejbieer 4. (2) 30 peevesJeejer 5. (4) cenelcee ieebOeer 6. (2) ngleelcee efove 7. (1) {ie-Keie 8. (2) ceeve ² Deheceeve 9. (4) oeveMetj 10. (1) Peieceieeš 11. (4) heeuesYeepeer 12. (3) leyesuee 13. (3) hee" LeeshešCes 14. (2) heUmeeuee heeves leerveÛe 15. (4) Øeefle‰e 16. (4) JesUsJej 17. (3) Jes 18. (3) ceeOeJe 19. (2) heeefnuee 20. (4) MeeUe 21. (3) ceU s 22. (2) , 23. (3) heeÛe 24. (4) ie.efo. cee[ietUkeâj 25. (2) 5 mehšWyej 26. (3) come 27. (1) Peacock 28. (3) 351 29. (4) H 30. (1) Potato 31. (2) 2(36)3 51. (1) Judge 52. (2) Longest night of the year in our country 53. (2) 54. (2) 27 55. (1) 2763 56. (3) 57. (2) 58. (2) 19th 59. (1) 45 60. (4) West 61. (3) 11.5 km 62. (4) Wednesday 63. (4) Monday 64. (3) 4 65. (1) 4 66. (1) Oesophagus 67. (2) Kaveri 68. (4) 69. (1) (41, 43) 70. (2) 9387 71. (3) 1 72. (4) 37 73. (4) R S V T O 3 5 1 2 7 74. (2) 75. (1) I will try to find the cause of commotion and will try to calm them down PRE UPPER PRIMARY SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION (Std. 5th) SDA Pattern le =lee rÙe Yee<ee Je ye ge fæceòee ÛeeÛeCee r (Third Language & Intelligence Test) Answerkey (P-II-SDA-0111)
(2) P.T.O. Hints and Solution 26. (3) Meaningful word = Mango 4 th and 5th letter go. Antonym = come Option No. 3 is correct 27. (1) 1) Parrot 2) Peacock 3) Pengium 4) Pickle Second word Peacock. Option No. 1 is correct 28. (3) 105, 222, 351, 522, 900 Middle number Option No. 3 is correct 29. (4) Meanigful word HAND First letter = H Option No. 4 is correct 30. (1) Potato is a stem while Radish, carrot, sweet potato are roots. Option No. 1 is correct 31. (2) 3 3 + 43 + 27 + 64 = 91 2 3 + 33 = 8 + 27 = 35 5 3 + 23 = 125 + 8 = 133 4 3 + 53 = 64 + 125 = 189 Option No. 2 is correct 32. (2) (4 3) – 2 = 12 – 2 = 10 (1 0) + 1 = 0 + 1 = 1 32 (8 3) – 2 = 24 – 2 = 22 (6 3) – 2 18 – 2 = 16 Option No. 2 is correct 33. (1) Exceptional, unique rare are similar meaning while common is attept so Option 1 is correct. 34. (4) 35. (4) 1 4 1 9 2 9 14 19 29 40 4 0 4 0 4 4 40 44 52 5 2 5 9 59 73 Option 4 is correct. 36. (3) 1 4 1 8 2 6 14 18 26 38 6 2 7 4 62 74 102 Option 3 is correct. 37. (3) ACC ADDD AEEEEE A FFFFFFA 2 Times 3 Times 5 Times 6 Times Option 3 is correct. 38. (4) Inverting face of fish by 900 . Option 4 is correct. 39. (3) 11 13 17 26 37 50 63 19 23 86 109 Prime number sequence. Option 3 is correct. 40. (4) Chord is drawn in a circle and rectangle is called circle. Option 4 is correct. 41. (3) Mother boy Sum of the Age 52, difference 28 So. 52 – 28 = 24 years. Boys age is double. 24 2 12 years After 2 years. S0 12 + 2 = 14 years. Option 3 is correct. 42. (4) Mon., Tues., Wed., Thu., Fri.. language. Env. 2, English, Math., Env. 1 Maths paper is Thursday. Option 4 is correct
(3) P.T.O. 1 2 3 43. (4) Mother Mother Me Diksha Option 4 is correct 44. (1) 11 9 10 12 8 1 5 2 6 3 7 4 13 Total triangle = 13 45. (1) Quadrilateral 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 quadrilateral Option 1 is correct 46. (3) Left side image come to right side and right side image comes to left side in mirror image. Option 3 is correct 47. (4) Left side image come to right side and right side image comes to left side in mirror image. Option 4 is correct 48. (3) In water image above side fig comes to below and bottom side image comes to topper side. Option 3 is correct 49. (3) In water image above side fig comes to below and bottom side image comes to topper side. Option 3 is correct 50. (2) Public property should be conserved. Option 2 is correct 51. (1) Moro Trymbak Pingle is Chief. While Niraji Raoji is Justice. So option 1 is correct. 52. (2) 22 December is longest night of the year in the country. Option 2 is correct 53. (2) Above and below paralle lines in the figure. Option 2 is correct 54. (2) 24 = 4 – 2 + 23 = 8 6 – 3 = 3 = 33 = 27 Option 2 is correct 55. (1) 39 27 48 45 +1 +2 –1 –2 18 45 27 63 +1 +2 –1 –2 Option 1 is correct 56. (3) Exactly matching figure option 3. As the shapes are identital. So, option 3 right. 57. (2) Exactly matching figure option 3. As the shapes are identital. So, option 2 right. 58. (2) 37 1 36 18 2 2 Middle boy 18 + 1 = 19th . So option 2 is correct 59. (1) Total = 15 + 10 + 20 = 45 Option No. 1 is correct 60. (4) East South West (back) North Rozi left back (west) Face right Option No. 4 is correct 0 12
(4) P.T.O. 61. (3) 19 13.5 7.5 13.5 11.5 7.5 Original place = 19 – 7.5 = 11.5 km. Option No. 3 is correct 62. (4) Birthday of Manda 8 Jully 2007, Sunday. First Birthday 8 Jully 2008 (leap year). Monday, Tuesday, II birthday Wednesday. Option No. 4 is correct 63. (4) 2 August Wednesday. 2 September - Wednes + 3 = Sunday. 4 September = Monday. Option No. 4 is correct 64. (3) Number 4 is , and in Option No. 3 is correct 65 (1) 8 – 5 = 3 and 32 = 9 7 – 2 = 5 and 62 = 25 9 – 7 = 2 and 22 = 4 Option No. 1 is correct 66. (2) Part Digestive system. Large intestine, stomarch, small intestine oesophagus, Option No. 2 is correct 67. (2) Rivers flow in one direction. Ganga,, Mahananda, Godavari, Kaveri. Option No. 2 is correct 68. (4) Invert of image Option No. 4 is correct 69. (1) Difference of 2 in prime numbers. Option No. 1 is correct 70. (2) Divisible by 9 completely. Option No. 2 is correct 71. (3) (53) – 2 = 19 (73) – 2 = 19 (83) – 2 = 22 1(13) – 2 = 1 Option No. 3 is correct 72. (4) 12 + 3 56 + 7 = 30 + 7 = 37 Option No. 4 is correct 73. (4) R S V T O 3 5 1 2 7 74. (2) UFO 75. (1) I will try to find the cause of commotion and will try to calm them down. Option No. 1 is correct
Use for Rough work (1) P.T.O. Set B PRE UPPER PRIMARY SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION (Std. 5th) Seat No. S D A 0 1 1 1 Medium : English Paper No. II Third Language and Time : 1 Hr. 30 Min. Pages : 8 Intelligence Test Total Marks : 150 e fJeYeeie-1 le=leerÙe Yee<ee ØeMve ›eâ. 1 le s 3 mee"e r me tÛevee : Keeuee rue Gleeje JeeÛe tve lÙeeJej DeeOeee fjle e fJeÛeejue suÙee ØeMvee bÛee r Gòejs heÙee &Ùee ble tve e fveJe[e. ceesjeFlekeâe megjsKe he#eer peieele veener. Skeâoe lÙeeves efhemeeje HegâueJeuee keâer, DeeheCe heenleÛe jenlees. Demee mehlejbieer efhemeeje heentve DeeheCe Dee§eÙe&Ûeefkeâle neslees. DeMee meg boj he#Ùeeuee 1962 meeueer Yeejleeves Deeheuee ‘je° ^erÙe he#eer’ cnCetve Kethe ceeveeÛes mLeeve efceUJetve efoues. meJe& peieeves les ceevÙe kesâues. keâejCe ceesjeÛes meeQoÙe&. ceesjeves veejeÛeeÙeuee meg®Jeele kesâueer keâer, lees efhemeeje HegâueJelees. keâLLekeâ Ùee ve=lÙeØekeâejele ‘ceÙetjve=lÙe’ Øeefmeæ Deens. ceesjeÛÙee [eskeäÙeeJej legje Demelees. ceesj ne ÛeeueeÙeuee ueeieuee keâer, lÙeeÛeer ieo & efveUer ceeve SkeâmeejKeer [esuele jenles. 1. ceÙe tjve =lÙe keâe sCelÙee ve =lÙeØekeâejele Øee fmeæ Deen s? (1)ceCeerhetjce (2)YejleveešŸeced (3)keâLLekeâ (4)Yeebie[e 2. Yeejleeve s cee sjeuee keâe sCele s mLeeve e foue s Deen s? (1)YeejleeÛee he#eer (2)je° ^erÙe he#eer (3)meg boj he#eer (4)mehlejbieer he#eer Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. (1) This question paper contains two sections. In Section I there are 1 to 25 questions of Third Language and in Section II there are 26 to 75 questions of Intelligence Test. All 75 questions are compulsory. (2) All questions carry 2 marks each. (3) Time limit to solve the question paper is 90 minutes. (4) Separate answer sheet is given to record the answers. Each question has been given four alternatives. Read them carefully. Select the correct answer and shade the correct answer in the answer sheet. Example : If Q. No. 6 has option number 2, as the correct answer, then completely the circle No. 2 as shown below. Question No. 6 (5) Answer marked in the following way will carry zero mark. (6) Use blue or black ball pen to darken the circle. Pencil is not allowed. Circles darkened by pencil will not be credited. (7) Once you have darkened the circle as correct alternative you cannot change it. (8) If more than one circles are darkened or overwriting is done, the answer will not be accepted. (9) Questions can be cancelled due to printing mistake or any other reason, on the basis of the suggestions given by the Committee of Experts.
Use for Rough work (2) P.T.O. 3. cee sjeÛÙee e fhemeeNÙeemee"e r keâe sCelee Meyo Jeehejuee Deen s? (1)ieo & efveUer (2)yengjbieer (3)megjsKe (4)mehlejbieer Øe.4 le s mee"e r 6 me tÛevee : Keeuee rue me gme biele JeekeäÙee bÛee hee fjÛÚ so JeeÛe tve lÙeeJej DeeOeee fjle e fJeÛeejue suÙee ØeMvee bÛee r Gòejs heÙee &Ùeele tve e fveJe[e. 4. Deepe .......... leeje rKe Deen s. (1) 1 Dee@iemš (2) 30 peevesJeejer (3) 2 Dee@keäšesyej (4) 25 ces 5. Ùee e foJeMee r .......... Ùee bÛee r he gCÙee fleLee r Demele s. (1)hebef[le peJeenjueeue vesn¤ (2)ueeueyeneo tj MeeŒeer (3)ueeskeâceevÙe efšUkeâ (4)cenelcee ieebOeer 6. ne e foJeme ........ cnCe tvene r meepeje ke sâuee peelee s. (1)efkeâmeeve efove (2) ngleelcee efove (3)›eâebleer efove (4)yeeue efove 7. Keeuee ruehe wkeâe r meceeveeLee a Meyoe bÛee r Ûe gkeâe rÛee r pee s[e r Dee sUKee. (1) {ie-Keie (2)JeYe-ieieve (3)Oeefj$eer-Yet (4)cees"s-Leesj 8. he g{e ruehe wkeâe r e fJe¤æeLee a Meyoe bÛee r DeÛe tkeâ pee s[e r e fveJe[e. (1)Ûe{Ces ² yemeCes (2)ceeve ² Deheceeve (3)mJeÛÚ ² Úeve (4)pe[ ² Jej 9. ‘cee s"Ÿee ØeceeCeele oeve keâjCeeje r JÙekeälee r’ Ùee Meyo-mece tnemee"e r Ùee siÙe Meyo heÙee &Ùeele tve e fveJe[e. (1)ßeerceble (2)OeveJeeve (3)kebâpet<e (4) oeveMetj 10. Keeuee ruehe wkeâe r OJee fveoMe &keâ vemeue suee Meyo keâe sCelee? (1)Peieceieeš (2)efÛeJeefÛeJeeš (3) KeUKeUeš (4) Ke[Ke[eš 11. ‘peme s ieJeleeÛee r ie bpee r leme s ......... Ûee r pe g[e r’ e fjkeâecÙee peeiee r Ùee siÙe heÙee &Ùe e fveJe[e. (1)kesâmeebÛeer (2)heeveebÛeer (3)HeâUebÛeer (4)heeuesYeepeer 12. ieeUue suÙee peeiee r Ùee siÙe heÙee &ÙeeÛee ›eâcee bkeâ e fveJe[e. Iees[ŸeeÛÙee Iejeuee ........ cnCeleele. (1)iees"e (2) Kegje[s (3)leyesuee (4)iegne 13. Keeuee rue JeekeäÙeemee"e r Ùee siÙe JeekeâdØeÛeej e fveJe[e : mejhebÛeebveer megceveÛÙee Oee[meeÛes keâewlegkeâ keâjleevee efleÛeer ........ (1) nele o sCes (2) DeYeÙe o sCes (3)hee" LeeshešCes (4)Ûesnje KegueCes 14. Keeuee r e foue suee r DeLee &Ûee r Ùee siÙe cnCe heÙee &Ùeele tve e fveJe[e : ‘meieUerkeâ[s meejKeerÛe heefjefmLeleer DemeCes’ (1)yeg[lÙeeuee keâe[erÛee DeeOeej (2)heUmeeuee heeves leerveÛe (3)ÛeesjeÛÙee ceveele ÛeeboCes (4)Ûeej efoJeme meemetÛes Ûeej efoJeme megvesÛes 15. ‘Øeeceee fCekeâheCe s keâece ke sâuÙeee fMeJeeÙe meceepeele ceeve e fceUle veene r. Ùee JeekeäÙeeleerue DeOeesjsefKele MeyoeÛee ÙeesiÙe DeLe& keâesCelee? (1) DeefYeceeve (2)meceevelee (3) Deheceeve (4)Øeefle‰e
Use for Rough work (3) P.T.O. 16. Keeuee rue heÙee &Ùeelee rue keâe sCelee Meyo pee s[Meyo veene r? (1) DeeieUeJesieUe (2)JesUerDeJesUer (3)keâeUeefveUe (4)JesUsJej 17. ‘j Je s iee e fn j’ Ùee heeÛe De#eje bheeme tve DeLe &he tCe & Meyo leÙeej ke sâuÙeeme lÙeele ceOÙeYeeiee r keâe sCele s De#ej Ùe sF &ue? (1)efn (2)iee (3)Jes (4)j 18. Keeuee rue iešele veece Demeue suee heÙee &Ùe keâe sCelee? (1)megboj (2)efkeâleer (3)ceeOeJe (4)ceOeeU 19. e foue suÙee JeekeäÙeelee rue e f›eâÙeeheo Dee sUKee? DeekeâeMeele let Ûebõ heeefnuee keâe? (1) DeekeâeMe (2)heeefnuee (3)Ûebõ (4)let 20. e foue suÙee heÙee &Ùee bhe wkeâe r he ge fuue bie vemeue suee Meyo Dee sUKee. (1)ieUe (2)JeeUe (3)HeâUe (4) MeeUe 21. Keeuee rue Meyo iešelee rue e fvee f§eleheCe s Deve skeâJeÛevee r DemeCeeje Meyo Dee sUKee. (1)leU s (2)veejU (3)ceU s (4)HeâCeme 22. ‘mJeuhee fJejecemee"e r’ DemeCeejs Ùee siÙe e fJejecee fÛevn s keâe sCele s? (1); (2), (3). (4)? 23. e foue suÙee Meyoe bhe wkeâe r e fkeâlee r Meyo Me gæ Deen sle? hegmetve, hetJe&, keâerj&, Øeo tef<ele cebpegU, Meerleue, peeJetve, keâesefkeâU, Hetâue (1)mene (2)Ûeej (3)heeÛe (4) Dee" 24. ‘iee rlejeceeÙeCe’ ne keâeJÙeme b«en keâe sCee r jÛeuee? (1)cegket bâo leUJeuekeâj (2) Deevebo ceeb[ietUkeâj (3)yeeU iee[ieerU (4)ie.efo. cee[ietUkeâj 25. ‘e fMe#ekeâ e fove’ cnCe tve keâe sCelee e foJeme meepeje keâjleele? (1) 14 veesJnWyej (2) 5 mehšWyej (3) 15 Dee@iemš (4) 1 Dee@iemš SECTION - II INTELLIGENCE TEST 26. Form a meaninful word by arranging the letters n, a, g, m, o. From a meaningful word by taking 4th and 5th letter of this word and select the antonym of this two letter word from the alternatives given. (1) go (2) no (3) come (4) on 27. Which word will be second if we arrange the following words alphabetically? (1) Peacock (2) Pengium (3) Pickle (4) Parrot 28. 900, 146, 222, 522, 105, 103, 154, 351, 133 Select numbers divisible by 3 from above number series and arrange them in asending order. Which number wil be exactly at the middle place? (1) 222 (2) 105 (3) 351 (4) 522
Use for Rough work (4) P.T.O. 29. ABCDE FGHIJ KLMNO PQRST UVWXYZ A meaningful word is formed by taking 25th, 12th, 22nd and 18th lettter from right end of the above letter series. Which is the first letter of that word? (1) A (2) N (3) D (4) H Instructions for Q. No.s. 30 to 34 : Find the odd term out. 30. (1) Potato (2) Raddish (3) Carrot (4) Sweet potato 31. (1) 3(91)4 (2) 2(35)3 (3) 5(133)2 (4) 4(189)5 32. (1) 4 10 (2) 10 32 (3) 8 22 (4) 6 16 33. (1) Common (2) Expectional (3) Unique (4) Rare 34. (1) (2) (3) (4) 35. Identify the rule underlying the following number series and choose the correct term from the given alternatives to replace the question mark : 14, 19, 29, 40, 44, 52, 59, ? (1) 75 (2) 67 (3) 70 (4) 73 36. Find the odd term : 14, 18, 26, 38, 62, 76, 102 (1) 26 (2) 38 (3) 76 (4) 102 37. In the following series, some letters are dropped. Determine from the given alternatives the set of letters in place of blank space : ACCADDDAEEEE ___ ___ ___ FFFFFFA (1) FAE (2) AFE (3) EAF (4) EEA 38. In the following question a problem figure is given. The constituents of the problem figure move in a particular sequence. Identify the seqnence and find the figure in place of the question mark from the alternative. (1) (2) (3) (4) 39. Find the wrong term from the given number series. 26, 37, 50, 63, 86, 109 (1) 86 (2) 37 (3) 63 (4) 109 40. In a code language, 'line' is called as 'point', 'point' is called as 'ray', 'ray' is called as 'triangle', 'triangle', is called as 'quadrilateral', 'quadrilateral' is 'called' as 'circle', and 'circle' is called as 'rectangle'. Then in the same code language in which figure a chord can be drawn? (1) Triangle (2) Circle (3) Quadrilateral (4) Rectangle
Use for Rough work (5) P.T.O. 41. The sum of present ages of mother and son is 52 years and difference of their is 28 years. Then find the age of the son two years hence. (1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 16 42. Exam started from Monday. Daily there was one paper. The first paper was the paper of 'Language'. In between 'Marathi' and 'English' paper was 'Environment-2' paper. 'Maths' paper was after 'English# paper. On the third day after 'Environment-2' paper was 'Environment-1' paper. On which day was 'Maths' Paper? (1) Tuesday (2) Wednesday (3) Thursday (4) Friday 43. Diksha's mother calls my mother 'mummy'. How is Diksha related to me? (1) Sister of my mother (2) Daughter of my father's sister (3) Daughter of my mother's brother (4) Daugter of my sister 44. Find the number of triangles in the given figures. (1) 13 (2) 11 (3) 17 (4) 12 45. Find the number of quadrilateral in the given figure. (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3 Instruction for Q. Nos. 46 and 47 : In the following question one question figure is given. How will the reflection of the given figure in mirror look? Select the alternative. 46. (1) (2) (3) (4) 47. (1) (2) (3) (4)
Use for Rough work (6) P.T.O. Instruction for Q. Nos. 48 and 49 : In the following question one questions, a question figure is given. Find from the given alternatives the water reflection of the 'question figure' if the 'question figure' is held upright on the water surface 48. Question figure : (1) (2) (3) (4) 49. (1) (2) (3) (4) 50. Shubham who has gone for a trip, scribbles his name on the wall of the fort by a pointed object. What will you do in such situation? (1) As a friend you will tell to scribble your name also (2) You will try to make him understand the important of conservation of historical momunts. (3) I will not help him in any way (4) I shall force him to scribble on the wall Instruction for Q. Nos. 51 to 55 : In the following questions the first and second term has the same relation as the third and fourth term has. Find the relation and write correct option at the place of question mark. 51. Moro Trimbak Pingale : Chief : : Niraji Ravaji : ? (1) Judge (2) Minister (3) Sumant (4) Amatya 52. 21 June : Longest day of the year in our country :: 22 December? (1) Longest day of the year in our country (2) Longest night of the year in our country (3) Shortest night of the year in our country (4) Equinox 53. (1) (2) (3) (4) 54. 24 : 8 :: 36 : ? (1) 26 (2) 27 (3) 24 (4) 28 55. 3927 : 4845 : : 1845 : ? (1) 2763 (2) 2805 (3) 2967 (4) 2956
Use for Rough work (7) P.T.O. Instruction Q. Nos. 56 and 57 : From the following figures, find exactly matching figure to the given question figure. 56. (1) (2) (3) (4) 57. (1) (2) (3) (4) 58. In a row 15 boys are standing on the right and 21 boys are standing on the left of Virat. At which place is Vinit standing who is exactly at the middle place of the row? (1) 18th (2) 19th (3) 20th (4) 21th 59. In an Attendence Register Sangeeta is 10th from the beginning and Sunny is 20th from the end. In between Sangeeta and Sunny there are names is 15 students. Find the total number of students in the Attendence Register. (1) 45 (2) 40 (3) 35 (4) 43 60. Rozi is standing facing towards west. She turns two times on left in 900 . In which direction her back is facing? (1) East (2) South (3) North (4) West 61. Rukasana walks a distance of 19 km towards west. Then the turns and walks 13.5 km towards south. Then the walks towards east 7.5 km and then she walks 13.5 km to north and stops. How far is she from the origin? (1) 10.5 km (2) 12.5 km (3) 11.5 km (4) 13.5 km 62. Manda was born on Sunday 8th July 2007, then her second birthday will fall on which day? (1) Thursday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday 63. In a year 2nd August comes on Wednesday, then in the same year 4th September will come on which day? (1) Tuesday (2) Sunday (3) Saturday (4) Monday 64. Observe the following figure and choose the correct alternative to answer question that follows : Which number is common in all the three figures-circle, triangle and quadrilateral? 6 5 7 3 4 2 1 (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 6
Use for Rough work (8) P.T.O. 65. Choose the correct alternative to replace the question mark. 8 5 9 7 2 25 9 7 ? (1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 2 (4) 6 Instruction for Q. Nos. 66 to 70 : Find out the term/figure from the alternatives that matches the given set of terms/figures in each question. 66. Large intestine, stomach, small intestine : (1) Oesophagus (2) Diaphragm (3) Heart (4) Kidney 67. Ganga, Mahanadi, Godavari : (1) Narmada (2) Kaveri (3) Tapi (4) Sabarmati 68. (1) (2) (3) (4) 69. (29, 31), (17, 19), (59, 61) : (1) (41, 43) (2) (15, 17) (3) (69, 71) (4) (19, 21) 70. 5985, 8541, 6984 : (1) 9389 (2) 9387 (3) 9487 (4) 9587 71. In a code language 5 = 13, 7 = 19 and 8 = 22, then 1 = ? (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2 72. In a code language, 1 is called as 5, 4 is called as 7, 4 is called as 9 and 2 is called as 7, then 1 2 + 3 = ? (1) 5 (2) 65 (3) 18 (4) 37 73. In a code, the word STORY written as 52731. How will you write RSYTO in this code? (1) 25137 (2) 35217 (3) 32157 (4) 35127 74. In a code language 'SON' = + – , 'SUN' = – + and 'FUN' = – , then in the same code language how will you write the word 'UFO'. (Instruction : The sequence of letters and signs may not be the same) (1) – (2) (3) + (4) + 75. There is a Kho-Kho match going on the ground. It is a very critical situation in the match. Suddenly there is a commotion on the ground. What will you do? (1) I will try to find the cause of commotion and will try to calm them down (2) I will beat them badly (3) I will join them (4) I will run back to my class