SDA 8E QP Demo kit Phase 1

Features: 1) Question papers as like board question paper booklets of (Maharashtra State Council Examination Boards weightage easy- 30% medium-40% difficult-30% Pattern) Paper 1 (approx. 8 pages) + Paper 2 (approx. 8 pages), Colour OMR , specialized answer key. (Hard offset printing papers) 2) Answer Sheet (Colour OMR) like actual board answer sheet. 3) Experience the rehearsal of actual Scholarship board paper (Phase 1 + Phase 2) 15 Exams 4) Time management will be practiced with phase 1- 1050, phase 2- 1200 Total 2250 questions. 5) Trick wise explanation of Mathematics & intelligence test questions. 6) By using Formulae, Hints, Short Tricks students will get concept clearance and save time. 7) Mistakes will be eliminated gradually. 8) Fear of main board exam will disappear. 9) Increases the confidence level of students, teachers and parents. Instructions: 1) Use black or blue ball pen only for practice, strictly do not use pencil or ink, gel pen. 2) Don't spend time in reading previous year question paper’s instructions.

3) Solve easy and formula based questions on first priority. 4) Solve the difficult questions with tricks. 5) On colour OMR dark the answer circle from the outside to inner side so that it does not half field or go outside. 6) Use colored OMR for practice, Creating an Enthusiastic Environment: School level: The question paper should be solved in one and a half hour in a strict supervision by keeping proper distance between the students. If possible explain the explanation on projector with the help of PDF. Home Level: Parents should take care of time duration of one & half hour and practice at home in an exam-like supervision by removing other distractions. Explanation should be explained later on what’s app pdf. Advantages: 1) Speed + Accuracy = Success is the formula of success 2) Tricks saves historical time 3) Available at a lower price than Xerox 4) One practice paper set = Paper 1(8 pages) + Paper 2 (8 pages) + Colored OMR (2) Speaking answer list (2) Total 20 pages + Explanation with notes (8 pages ) What’s-app / Projector (Soft copy pdf.) Total planning of 28 pages. Total 15 sets = 420 pages. Our other Products: SDA Rising Scholar App (5M, 5E, 8M, 8E) Android App SDA Rising Scholar Windows Software (5M, 5E, 8M, 8E) SDA Pattern’s Rising Scholar Proficiency level Booklets (State-level) (5M, 5E, 8M, 8E) Contact: H.O. Plot 23, Behind Kanda Market, Shrirampur Dist Ahmednagar Ph 8830115763, 8421895385

Use for Rough work (1) P.T.O. Set A PRE SECONDARY SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION (Std. 8th) Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. (1) This question paper contains two sections. In Section I there are 1 to 25 questions of First Language and in Section II there are 26 to 75 questions of Mathematics. All 75 questions are compulsory. (2) All questions carry 2 marks each. (3) Time limit to solve the question paper is 90 minutes. (4) Separate answer sheet is given to record the answers. Each question has been given four alternatives. Read them carefully. Select the correct answer and shade the correct answer in the answer sheet. Example : If Q. No. 6 has option number 2, as the correct answer, then completely the circle No. 2 as shown below. Question No. 6 (5) Answer marked in the following way will carry zero mark. (6) While recording the correct option in the answer sheet, use only black or blue ball pen. Otherwise it will be credited ‘Zero’ mark. (7) Answer once recorded cannot be changed. (8) Maximum 20% questions are having two correct alternatives. Claculate has to darken both the circles with correct answer. These questions will have the instruct ‘Select the correct alternatives’. Seat No. S D A 0 1 1 1 Medium : English Paper No. I First Language and Time : 1 Hr. 30 Min. Pages : 8 Mathematics Total Marks : 150 SECTION - I First Language Q. 1 and 2 : Read the following passage and answer the given questions. The human race is spread all over the world, from the polar regions to the tropics. The people of which it is made up, eat different kinds of food, partly according to the climate in which they live, and partly according to the kind of food which their country produces. Thus in India the people live chiefly on different kind of grains, eggs, milk or sometimes fish and meat. In Europe, the people eat more flesh and less grain. In the Arctic regions, the people eat more flesh and less grain. In the Arctic regions, where no grain and fruits are produced, the Eskimo and other races live almost entirely on flesh especially fat. The men of one race are able to eat the food of another race, if they are brought into the country inhabited by the letter. But as a rule they still refer their own food at least for a time owing to custom. In hot climates, flesh and fat are not much needed, but in the Arctic regions they seem to be very necessary for keeping up the heat of the body.

Use for Rough work (2) P.T.O. 1. Choose the correct alternative to complete the tree diagram : Different food habit India Europe Arctic Region More flesh, less grain Flesh, Grains ? especially fat 2. Find the reason by choosing correct option. Flesh and fat are needed in Arctic region because ........ (1) The men of one race are able to eat the food of another race (2) It is necessary for keeping up the heat of the body (3) Grains are not good for their body (4) The human race is spread all over the world 3. Choose the correct option to complete the following diagram : People all over the world eat different kinds of food According to the climate in which they live ? (1) Kind of food their country produces (2) According to likes and dislikes (3) Able to eat food of another race (4) Like variety of food Instruction for Q. Nos. 4 to 6 : Read the following notice and answer the questions given below : ABC School NOTICE 5-DAYS TREK !! Come One ! Come All !! Trekking enthusiast are invited to participate in a 5-days trekking expedition organised by the School’s Sport Club. Details are : Fees : Rs. 2,5000 per head Trek to Sahyadri Mountain Date : 5th May to 10th May 2017 Names to be submitted to the undersigned. Mrs. XYZ (Secretary of Sports Sub) 20th April 2017 ABC School 4. The notice gives information about : (1) Inter-school competition (2) Trek expedition (3) Annual Social Gathering (4) Funfair in the school 5. The interested students should submit their names to ....... Secretary of the sport club. (1) elected (2) promoted (3) undersigned (4) rejected 6. On which date was the notice put up? (1) 20th April (2) 5th May (3) 10th May (4) 2017 Instruction for Q. Nos. 7 to 9 : Read the following news and answer the question. New York : 15 January, 2016 The pilot of a jetliner saved many lives today by showing great presence of mind. Minutes after the plane took off from La Guardia Airport, New York, it was hit by a flock of birds. This damaged its engines. It was not possible to return to La Guardia, so the pilot decided to land the plane in the vast expanse of the Hudson River rather than to land it in a crowded part of New York city. This was a deliberate emergency landing. Ferries had already been informed and all passengers and crew were saved. They were lucky to escape with only shock and minor injuries. 7. Choose the suitable title for the above news support : (1) Geographical Survey of Hudson River (2) Pollution in Hudson River (3) Emergency landing in the streets of New York (4) Emergency landing in Hudson River. (1) more flesh (2) less grain (3) only fat (4) eggs, milk

Use for Rough work (3) P.T.O. 8. Complete the following sentence by choosing correct alternative from the news given. The pilot of the jetliner saved many lives. It shows he was _____ (1) weak minded (2) courageous (3) disturbed (4) timid 9. Why were the passengers called lucky? (1) As they escaped only with severe shock (2) As they escaped only with minor injuries (3) As they escaped only with shock and minor injuries (4) As they escaped only with damaged engines Instruction for Q. Nos. 10 to 12 : Read the following report and answer the following questions. The city on Sunday recorded a maximum temperature of 27.5 degrees celsius and a minimum of 8.1 degrees celsius. Relative humidity was 46 percent. Forecast : Mainly clear skies. Minimum temperature would be around 9 degrees celsius. Sunrise : 7.03 Sunset : 6.02 10. Select two correct prefixes for the word - cast : (1) past (2) bread (3) tele (4) broad 11. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option : The report informs us about ...... season. (1) winter (2) summer (3) rainy (4) autumn 12. Complete the following sentence by choosing correct alternative : The timing of sunrise and sunset indicate ______. (1) days are long, nights are of shorter duration (2) days are short, nights are of longer duration (3) days and nights are of equal duration (4) none of the above 13. Find out the non-English word from the given sentence : Paramvir Chakra is India’s highest military decoration. (1) India (2) Military (3) Paramvir Chakra (4) Decoration 14. Find out any two names of fruits from the following and choose the correct alternative. D C F G H A A A P P L E S Y Z L U E L Z O U M F M P Q M R S E O N Y O K G E M O A R (1) GRAOES, APPLE (2) PLUM, GRAPES (3) APPLE, PLUM (4) ORGANE, PLUM 15. Write the contextual meaning of the underlined words : She looked at the pearls and immediately said that they were not real. (1) so continue (2) to examine carefully (3) to seek information (4) to come to an end 16. Find two correct adjectives from the given sentence : The ship sustained heavy damage and the captain died a glorious death. (1) death (2) damage (3) glorious (4) heavy 17. Identify the type of clause of the given sentence : No one knows how old she is. (1) Adjective clause (2) Adverb clause of time (3) Noun clause (4) Adverb clause of reason 18. Identify the correct direct speech for the given indirect speech : Dick says that he has once been for the given indirect speech : (1) Dick says, “He has once been to Spain”. (2) Dick says, “I have once been to Spain”. (3) Dick says, “He have once been to Spain” (4) Dick says, “I has once been to Spain”.

Use for Rough work (4) P.T.O. 19. Identify the figure of speech : I wandered lonely as a cloud. (1) Personification (2) Metaphor (3) Hyperbole (4) Simile 20. Change the following sentence from the affirmative to negative form : As soon as he came, he took objections. (1) No sooner did he come than he took objections. (2) No sooner does he come than he takes objections. (3) No sooner do he come than he took objections. (4) No sooner he came than he took objections. 21. Choose the correct option for the given sentence : He was refused admission by the guard. (1) The guard refuses him admission. (2) The guard was refusing admission him. (3) The guard refused him admission. (4) He refused the guard admission. 22. Change the given compound sentence into simple sentence : He finished his exercise and put away his bag. (1) Having finished his exercise, he put away his bag (2) Having finishing his exercise, he put away his bag (3) Having put his bag away, he finished his exercise (4) He finished his exercise putting away his bag. 23. The headmaster _______ Gaurav as he saved drowning child. (Choose two correct alternative) (1) admired (2) praised (3) prayed (4) scolded 24. Correct the correct preposition : One day the boy took his breakfast and ate it ______ a purling brook. (1) of (2) by (3) at (4) on 25. Choose the correct -wh word to form a meaningful question for the given sentence : An image of a sailing craft was found at Mohenjo Daro. (A) What (B) How (C) Where (1) (A), (B) correct (2) (B), (C) correct (3) (A), (C) correct (4) (A),(B),(C) correct SECTION - II MATHEMATICS 26. Simplify 3 2 5 5 2 1 5 3 x × x +2 x . 2 x × x +x (Select two correct alternatives) (1) 0 x (2) 1 (3) 1 x (4) 3 x 27. The co-ordinate of point M on a number line is 2 . 3 The distance between points M and N is 3 units. Find the co-ordinate of point N. (Select two correct alternatives) (1) 7 3 (2) 11 3 (3) 5 3 (4) 1 3 28. In a school, the number of girls in VIII B class is less by 20 than three times the number of boys in that class. If the total number of students is 68, find the number of girls in that class. (1) 42 (2) 44 (3) 48 (4) 46

Use for Rough work (5) P.T.O. 29. Read the following statements and select the correct option : (A) 182 is divisible by 2 (B) 182 is divisible by 7 (C) 182 is divisible by 14 (1) Only (A) is correct (2) Only (B) is correct (3) (B) wrong (4) (A), (B), (C) are correct statements 30. Simplify 1.96 + 2.25 + 2.89 = ? 0.002116 (1) 102 (2) 1013 (3) 10–2 (4) 103 31. In the following figure line AB || line CD. Transverssal PR intersects line AB in point P and line CD in point R. Angle bisectors of one pair of interior angles intersect at point T. Find the measurement of PTR. (1) 300 (2) 450 (3) 600 (4) 900 32. The rate of sugar was increased by 25% and as a result the sale decreased by 15%. What will be the overall effect on profit or loss in terms of percentage? (1) 5.25% loss (2) 6.25% profit (3) 7.25% profit (4) 4.25% loss 33. Simplify : (ax )y–z (ay )z–x (az )x–y (1) axyz (2) a1 (3) 1 (4) 0 34. The price of an article was increased by 20%. After some days the price was reduced by 20%. Whether the reduced price of the article is more or less than the original price? By how many rupees? (1) less by Rs. 10 (2) more by Rs. 4 (3) less by Rs. 4 (4) no change in the price 35. The diagonal of a square is 7 cm. Find the length of the side of the square. (1) 3 2 cm (2) 3.5 2 cm (3) 5 2 cm (4) 7 2 cm 36. A cylindrical drum of radius 14 cm contains water. A solid cuboid having length 14 cm, breadth 11 cm and height 12 cm is dropped in the water. Find the increase in the water level of the drum. (1) 3 cm (2) 2.5 cm (3) 2 cm (4) 3.5 cm 37. The ratio of the supplementary angle and complementary angle of an angle is 13 : 4. Find the measure of that angle. (1) 400 (2) 500 (3) 650 (4) 850 38. If the measure of a central angle is 1350 , find the measure of the corresponding major arc. (1) 2700 , (2) 1250 (3) 1350 (4) 2250 39. A car takes 6 hours to travel from one place to other. The car travels at an average speed of 50 km/hr. If the same car has to cover the same distance in four hours, then what should be the speed of the car ? (1) 25 km/hr (2) 40 km/hr (3) 1 33 3 km/hr (4) 75 km/hr 40. A shopkeeper purchased 50 dozen notebooks at the rate of Rs. 200 per dozen. Alr the notebooks were sold at the rate of Rs. 225 per dozen. Find the percentage of profit in this transaction. (1) 10.5% (2) 11.5% (3) 12.5% (4) 14.5% 41. The radius of a circle with centre ‘O' is 13 cm. The distance of a chord from the centre is 5 cm. Find the length of' the chord. (1) 24 cm (2) 12 cm (3) 13 cm (4) 26 cm A P B T C R D

Use for Rough work (6) P.T.O. 42. The difference between the sum of price numbers from 21 to 30 is divisible by which of the following numbers. (A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 151 (D) 17 (1) Divisible by (A) and (B) (2) Divisible by only (B) (3) Divisible by only (C) (4) Divisible by only (D) 43. The measure of exterior angles of a triangle are 1400 and 1300 respectively. Which type of triangle is it? (1) Acute angled triangle (2) Obtuse angled triangle (3) Right angled triangle (4) Equilateral triangle 44. 45 girls of std. VI, 50 girls of std. VII and 60 girls of std. VIII have to stand on the ground in different rows for the drill. The girls have to stand in such a way that the number of girls in each row should be same- Find the maximum number of girls that can stand in each row. (1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 18 (4) 20 45. How many solid coins of 6 cm diameter and 0.2 cm thickness can be made by melting a solid metal cuboid of length 33 cm, breadth 18 cm and height 8 cm ? (1) 540 (2) 640 (3) 740 (4) 840 46. Shobhatai purchased a scooter for Rs, 55,000. If its value decreases by 8% per year, how much amount will she get if she sells it after 2 years ? (1) Rs. 46,552 (2) Rs. 64,152 (3) Rs. 61,452 (4) Rs. 43,525 47. The frequency table of the heights of 20 children in a class is given below. Find the mean of their height. Height (In cm) Frequency 151 7 153 4 155 6 157 3 (1) 154 cm (2) 153.5 cm (3) 153 cm (4) 154.5 cm 48. A pit 8 m long, 5 m broad and 1.5 m deep is dug in the ground. The soil so dug is evenly spread over a rectangular plot 25 m long and 16 m broad. Find the thickness of the layer of the soil spread over the rectangular plot. (Select two correct alternatives) (1) 0.15 m (2) 15 cm (3) 0.015 cm (4) 1.50 cm 49. Which term should be added to the algebraic expression 2 2 y 64x + 25 to make it a perfect square. (Select two correct alternatives) (1) 16 xy 5 (2) 16 xy 5 (3) 8 xy 5 (4) 8 x 5 y 50. Find the value of : 0.36×0.27×0.001 = ? 0.06×0.03×0.1 (1) 5.4 (2) 5.04 (3) 0.54 (4) 540 51. The length of the diagonal of a rhombus is 24 cm. If the side of the rhombus is 13 cm. FInd the length of the other diagonal. (1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm (3) 13 cm (4) 12 cm 52. Anuradha deposited Rs. 15,000 in a bank for 3 years at simple interest. If she received Rs. 24,000 at the end of the period, find the rate of simple interest. (1) 20 p.c.p.a. (2) 15 p.c.p.a. (3) 22 p.c.p.a. (4) 25 p.c.p.a.

Use for Rough work (7) P.T.O. 53. Which of the following statements is true? (Select two correct alternatives) (A) Square is a rectangle (2) Rectangle is a parallelogram (C) Square is a parallelogram (4) Rhombus is a square (1) (A) and (B) are true (2) (B) and (C) are true (3) (A), (B), (C), (D) are true (4) (C) and (D) are true 54. The curved surface area of a cone is 204.1 sq. cm. Radius of its base is 5 cm. Find the perpendicular height of the cone. ( = 3.14) (1) 5 cm (2) 12 cm (3) 13 cm (4) 40.8 cm 55. Which polynomial should be added in 3x3 – 2x2 + 3 to get the polynomial 3x2 + 4? (1) 3x3 + 5x2 + 1 (2) 3x3 – 5x + 1 (3) –3x3 + 5x2 + 1 (4) –3x3 – 5x2 + 1 56. Chandrapal purchased a plot for Rs. 9 lakhs. How much amount he will receive, if he sells the plot at a profit of 15%? (1) Rs. 10,25,000 (2) Rs. 10,20,000 (3) Rs. 10,35,000 (4) Rs. 10,45,000 57. Find the value of : 10.5×10.5 15×10.5 + 7.5×7.5 = ? 10.5 7.5 (1) 17 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 22 58. The floor of a hall, 20 m in length and 17 m in breadth is to be tiled. How many square tiles will be required for tiling the hall if each square tile to be used has a side half metre? (1) 1360 (2) 68 (3) 680 (4) 1630 59. What will be the length of each piece of rope, if a rope 720 m in length is cut 7 times at equal distance? (1) 800 decim (2) 700 decim (3) 900 decim (4) 1020 decim 60. Which of the following are the factors of the expression (2x + 3)3 + 64? (1) 2(2x + 7) (2x2 + 2x + 13) (2) 2(2x + 7) (4x2 + 4x + 13) (3) 2(2x + 7) (4x2 – 4x + 13) (4) 2(2x + 3) (4x2 + 4x + 13) 61. A shopkeeper gives 8% discount on the printed price. If he sells a mobile hand set for Rs. 18,400, find the printed price of the hand set. (1) Rs. 20,000 (2) Rs. 23,000 (3) Rs. 2,300 (4) Rs. 10,000 62. What is the cost of fencing a circular garden of radius 35 m with four rounds of wire, if the wire costs Rs. 44 per metre? (1) Rs. 38,720 (2) Rs. 38,730 (3) Rs. 38,740 (4) Rs. 38,750 63. The square of side 12 cm is cut on the diagonal and two triangles are formed. Out of the triangles so formed, find the perimeter of one triangle. (1) 10 2 2 cm (2) 12 2 cm (3) 12 2 2 cm (4) 24 2 cm 64. Find 7.5% of 1730. (Select two correct alternatives) (1) 129.75 (2) 1297510–2 (3) 1297510–3 (4) 12.975 65. The side of an equilateral triangle is 12 cm. Find its area. (1) 48 3 sq.cm (2) 36 3 sq.cm (3) 24 3 sq.cm (4) 36 sq. cm 66. Which of the following expression is not a polynomial? (A) 2 3 x 7 x (B) 5x2 – 10x – 5 (C) 10 3 x 5x 3 (D) 5 7 3 3x x 2 2 (1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)

Use for Rough work (8) P.T.O. 67. The sides of a right angled triangle forming the right angle are 5 cm and 12 cm. Find the radius of the circumcircle of the triangle. (1) 6.5 cm (2) 3.5 cm (3) 13 cm (4) 6 cm 68. The diameter of the wheel of a tractor is 2.1 m. If the wheel completes 250 rotations, find the total distance covered by the wheel? (1) 1.75 km (2) 1.60 km (3) 1.55 km (4) 1.65 km 69. Sheetal has same number of coins and notes of Rs. 5 and Rs. 20 respectively. Total amount she has is Rs. 600. Find the number of 20 rupees notes Sheetal has. (1) 48 (2) 24 (3) 60 (4) 72 70. Find the sum of additive inverse of (5m + 7n) and additive inverse of (–2m – 3n). (1) 3m + 4n (2) –3m – 4n (3) 7m – 4n (4) –7m + 4n 71. Which of the following options is correct? (1) 2 1 3 2 (2) 2 1 3 2 (3) 5 2 4 3 (4) 5 2 4 3 72. The measure of two angles having common vertex are 350 and 550 . Then find the correct statement from the following : (1) The angles are complementary to each other (2) The two angles are adjacent angles (3) The angles are vertically opposite to each other (4) The angles are supplementary Instructions for Q. Nos. 73 and 74 : In a city a survey was conducted to find how many children were given ‘Polio dose’. For this purpose children staying in different ‘wards’ were considered. The data collected is represented in the following sub-divided bar graph. Observe the bar-graph carefully and answer the following questions. 73. How many children did not get Polio dose? (1) 200 (2) 80 (3) 70 (4) 180 74. What will be the ratio of the children who have taken ‘Polio dose’ and staying in ‘ward’ A to that of the children from ward ‘D’? (1) 6 : 5 (2) 5 : 2 (3) 2 : 5 (4) 5 : 6 75. By how much is the average of the natural numbers from 1 to 50 more than the average of the natural numbers from 1 to 25? (1) 25.5 (2) 12.5 (3) 13 (4) 22.5

(1) P.T.O. 1. (4) eggs, milk 2. (2) It is necessary for keeping up the heat of the body 3. (1) Kind of food their country produces 4. (2) Trek expedition 5. (3) undersigned 6. (1) 20th April 7. (4) Emergency landing in Hudson River. 8. (2) Courageous 9. (3) As they escaped only with shock and minor injuries 10. (3) tele (4) broad 11. (1) winter 12. (2) days are short, nights are of longer duration 13. (3) Paramvir Chakra 14. (3) Apple, Plum 15. (2) to examine carefully 16. (3) glorious (4) heavy 17. (3) Noun clause 18. (2) Dick says, “I have once been to Spain”. 19. (4) Simile 20. (1) No sooner did he come than he took objections. 21. (3) The guard refused him admission. 22. (1) Having finished his exercise, he put away his bag 23. (1) admired (2) praised 24. (2) by 25. (3) (A), (C) correct 26. (1) 0 x (2) 1 27. (1) 7 3 (2) 11 3 28. (4) 46 29. (4) (A), (B), (C) are correct statements 30. (1) 102 31. (4) 900 32. (2) 6.25% profit 33. (3) 1 34. (3) less by Rs. 4 35. (2) 3.5 2 cm 36. (1) 3 cm 37. (2) 500 38. (4) 2250 39. (4) 75 km/hr 40. (3) 12.5% 41. (1) 24 cm 42. (3) Divisible by only (C) 43. (3) Right angled triangle 44. (2) 15 45. (4) 840 46. (1) Rs. 46,552 47. (2) 153.5 cm 48. (1) 0.15 m (2) 15 cm 49. (1) 16 xy 5 (2) 16 xy 5 50. (3) 0.54 51. (2) 10 cm 52. (1) 20 p.c.p.a. 53. (1) (A) and (B) are true (2) (B) and (C) are true 54. (2) 12 cm 55. (3) –3x3 + 5x2 + 1 56. (3) Rs. 10,35,000 57. (2) 3 58. (1) 1360 59. (3) 900 decim 60. (2) 2(2x + 7) (4x2 + 4x + 13) 61. (1) Rs. 20,000 62. (1) Rs. 38,720 63. (3) 12 2 2 cm 64. (1) 129.75 (2) 12975 10–2 65. (2) 36 3 sq.cm 66. (1) (A) 67. (1) 6.5 cm 68. (4) 1.65 km 69. (2) 24 70. (2) –3m – 4n 71. (3) 5 2 4 3 72. (1) The angles are complementary to each other 73. (3) 70 74. (1) 6 : 5 75. (2) 12.5 hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern ØeLece Yee<ee Je iee fCele (First Language and Mathematics) Answerkey (SDA-P-I-0111)

(2) P.T.O. Solution and Hints 26. (1, 2) 3 2 x 2x 5 5 2 1 2x x 3 3 x 2 x 2 2 x x 0 x 1 Option No. 1, 2 is correct. 27. (1, 2) The coordinate point M is 2 3 2 2 9 11 3 3 33 2 29 7 3 3 33 Option No. 1 and 2 is correct. 28. (4) Let the number of boys x 3x – 20 + x = 68 4x = 68 + 20 88 x 22numberof boys 4 Option No. 4 is correct. Hence the number of girls = 3x – 20 = 3 22 – 20 = 66 – 20 = 46 Option No. 4 is correct. 29. (4) (A), (B), (C) are correct statements Option No. 4 is correct. 30. (1) 196 225 289 0.002116 4 6 216 So, 44 or 46 14 15 17 46 1000 46 1000 2 10 10 46 Option No. 1 is correct. 31. (4) Sum of interior angles x and y is 1800 x + y = 1800 .....(i) y 2 x 2 P A B C R D x y In PTR sum of angle is 1800 0 P T R 180 x y 0 T 180 2 2 x y T 180 2 180 PTR 180 2 = 180 – 90 = 900 Option No. 4 is correct. 32. (2) Let the sugar was 100 Rs./kg. Selling on 100 kg sugar=100 100= 10,000 Then rate of sugar increased by 25% Rate of sugar = 100 + 25 = 125 Sale decreased by 15%. Then sugar sold = 100 – 15 = 85 Rs. Kg. Now, 125 85 = 10625 Increament Profit %Profit Initial amount 625 100 10,000 25 4 25 6.25% profit 4 Option No. 2 is correct.

(3) P.T.O. 33. (3) yz zx zy xx2 aaa xy xz yz yx zx 2 y aaa 2y 2z yz yz zx zy a = a0 = 1 Option No. 3 is correct. 34. (3) Let price of article = 100 Increased by 20% = 20 After some day price reduced by 20% Option No. 3 is correct. 20 120 120 100 = 120 – 24 = 96 Less by 4 Option No. 3 is correct. 35. (2) 72 + a2 + a2 49 = a2 2 49 a 2 7 2 2 2 7 2 2 7 2 2 3.5 3.5 2 Option No. 2 is correct. 36. (1) A solid cuboid l = 14 cm, b = 11 cm, h = 12 cm Cylindrical drum r = 14 cm, h = increase in water level Volume of cuboid = lbh = 141112 = 16811 = 1848 cm3 Volume of cylinder = vol of cuboid. r2 h = 1848 1848 7 h 22 96 168 2 28 1 168 2 28 2 = 3 cm Option No. 1 is correct. 37. (2) Let measure of angle 15x Supplementary angle = (180 – x) Complementary angle = (90 – x) 180 x 13 90 x 4 (180 – x) = 13(90 – x) (720 – 4x) = 1170 – 13x –4x + 13x = 1170 – 720 9x = 450 x = 50 Option No. 2 is correct. 38. (4) 1350 Major arc = 360 – Central angle = 360 – 135 = 2250 Option No. 4 is correct. 39. (4) Time : Speed Time : Speed 6 : 50 4 : x 6 50 x 4 3 25 2 25 3 = 75 km/hr Option No. 4 is correct. 40. (3) c.p. = 500200 = 10,000 s.p. = 50225 = 11,250 Profit = s.p. – c.p. 11,250 – 10,000 = 1,250 Profit Profit 100 c.p. 1250 100 10,000 = 12.5 Option No. 3 is correct. a a a a 7

(4) P.T.O. 41. (1) 2 m 1 odd no. 2 2 5 1 26 24 , 2 2 2 13, 12, 5 PB = 2AB = 2 12 = 24 cm Option No. 1 is correct. 42. (3) Prime number from 21 to 30 = 23, 29 = 52 Composite number 21 to 30 = 21, 22, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 30 = 203 Different = 203 – 52 = 151 So, divisible by only (C) Option No. 3 is correct. 43. (3) Ist interior angle = 180 – 140 = 40 IInd interior angle = 180 – 130 = 50 IIIrd interior angle = 180 – 90 = 90 Option No. 3 is correct. 44. (2) Std. VI = 45, Std. VII = 30, Std. VIII = 80 No. of 45, 30 and 60 is divisible by 15 Option No. 2 is correct. 45. (4) Volume of cuboid = lbh = 38 18 18 = 4752 cm Coin d = 6 cm, h = 0.02 cm, 6 r 3cm 2 Volume of coin = r2 h 22 3 3 0.2 7 22 18 7 4752 7 No.of coins 10 22 18 432 216 24 5 2 9 25 35 = 840 Option No. 4 is correct. 46. (1) 1st year value decrease 8 55,000 55,000 100 = 55,000 – 44,000 = 50,600 2nd year 8 50,600 50,600 100 50,600 – 4,048 = 46,552 Option No. 1 is correct. 47. (2) 1151 7 154 6 155 6 157 3 Mean 20 1057 _ 612 930 471 20 3070 20 153.5 = 153.5 cm Option No. 2 is correct. 48. (1, 2) Volume of pit = Rectangular plot lbh = (l b) h 8 5 15 = (25 16) h 8 5 15 h 25 16 10 1 1 1.5 5 2 1.5 0.15m 10 m = 15 cm Option No. 1, 2 is correct. 49. (1, 2) 2 2 y 64x 25 2 y 8x 5 2 2 6 y 64x 2 8x 5 25 2 2 16 y 64x xy 5 25 Option No. 1 and 2 is correct. P A 12 B 5 13 O

(5) P.T.O. 50. (3) 0.6 0.9 0.001 0.01 0.001 0.1 0.000054 0.00001 54 100000 1000000 1 54 0.54 100 Option No. 3 is correct. 51. AC = 2 OC = 2 5 = 10 BC2 = OB2 + OC2 132 =122 + OC2 OC2 =169 – 144 = 25 OC = 5 Diagonal = 2 5 = 10 Option No. 2 is correct. 52. (1) A = P + I P = 15000, T = 3 yrs. A = 24,000 I = A – P = 24,000 – 15,000 = 9,000 PRT SI 100 SI 100 R P T 9000 100 R 20 15000 3 60 20 1 1 Option No. 1 is correct. 53. (1, 2) (1) (A) and (B) are true (2) (B) and (C) are true Option No. 1, 2 is correct. 54. (2) Curved surface area of cone = rl = 204.1 3.14 5l 2041 100 10 314 5 13 5 l = 13 l 2 + r2 + h2 132 + 52 + h2 h2 = 169 – 25 = 144 h 144 12cm Option No. 2 is correct. 55. (3) 3x3 – 2x2 + 3 + A = 3x2 + 4 A = 3x2 + 4 – (3x3 – 2x2 + 3) = 3x2 + 4 – 3x3 + 2x2 – 3 = –3x3 + 5x2 + 1 Option No. 3 is correct. 56. (3) 15 900000 900000 100 = 9,00,000 + 1,35,000 = 10,35,000 Option No. 3 is correct. 57. (2) 2 2 10.3 2 7.5 10.5 7.5 10.5 7.4 2 10.5 7.5 10.5 7.5 3.0 3 10.5 7.5 Option No. 2 is correct. 58. (1) Area of floor = l b = 2017 = 340 m2 Area of hall = (0.5)2 = 0.250 No of tiles 340 0.25 340 100 1360 25 4 1 Option No. 1 is correct. 13 13 13 13 12 12 B C A D

(6) P.T.O. 59. (3) 720 90 90m 8 1 m = 10 decimeter 90 10 = 900 decimeter. Option No. 3 is correct. 60. (2) = (2x + 3)3 + 43 = (2x + 3 + 4) (2x + 3)2 – (2x + 34 + 42 ) = (2x + 7) 64x2 + 12x + 9 – 8x – 12 + 16) = (2x + 7) (4x2 + 4x + 13) Option No. 2 is correct. 61. (1) Let printed price = x x = 8% discount of x = 18400 8 x x 18400 100 92x 18400 100 18400 100 x 92 800 50 25 23 46 1 = 800 25 = 20,000 Option No. 1 is correct. 62. (1) Circumference of circular garden = 2r 22 2 35 220m 7 1 5 = 220 4 = 880 m = 880 44 = 38720 Option No. 1 is correct. 63. (3) Diagonal of square = 2 side 12 2 Perimeter of one trangle 12 12 12 2 12 1 1 2 12 2 2 cm Option No. 3 is correct. 64. (1, 2) 7.5 1730 100 75 1730 129.75 10 100 = 12975 10–2 Option No. 1, 2 is correct. 65. (2) Area of equilateral 3 2 a 4 3 12 12 36 3 sq.cm 4 1 3 Option No. 2 is correct. 66. (1) 2 3 x 7 x Option No. 1 is correct. 67. (1) 13 radius 6.5 2 12 13 5 Option No. 1 is correct. 12 12 12 2

(7) P.T.O. 68. (4) Diameter of wheel is 2.1 m, 2.1 r 1.05m 2 Circumference of wheel = 2r 22 2 1.05 66 7 1 1.5 Wheel completes 250 rotations = 250 66 = 16500 = 1650 m 1650 1.65km 1000 Option No. 4 is correct. 69. (2) No. of coins = no. of notes 5x + 20x = 600 25x = 600 600 x 24 25 1 24 x = 24 120 + 480 = 600 Option No. 2 is correct. 70. (2) = –(5m + 7n) + (–2m – 3n) = –5m – 7n + 2m + 3n = –3m – 4n Option No. 2 is correct. 71. (3) 2 1 21 3 2 32 –0.66 < –0.5 2 1 1.25 0.66 3 2 5 2 4 3 Correct Option No. 3 is correct. 72. (1) 350 and 550 350 + 550 = 900 Option No. 1 is correct. 73. (3) Option No. 3 is correct. 74. (1) Ward A : Ward D 60 : 50 6 : 5 Option No. 1 is correct. 75. (2) Addition of 1 to 50 nn 1 2 50 50 1 2 50 51 1275 2 25 1 1275 Average 255 10 Addition of 1 to 25 n n 1 25 25 1 2 2 25 26 325 2 1 13325 Average 25 1 13 Now, 25.5 – 13 = 12.5 Option No. 2 is correct.

(1) P.T.O. SDA Publication SDA Pattern Rehearsal of Scholarship Board Exam Scholarship Board Rehearsal Exam Activity Features: 1) Question papers as like board question paper booklets of (Maharashtra State Council Examination Boards weightage easy- 30% medium-40% difficult-30% Pattern) Paper 1 (approx. 8 pages) + Paper 2(approx. 8 pages), Colour OMR , specialized answer key. (Hard offset printing papers) 2) Answer Sheet (Colour OMR) like actual board answer sheet. 3) Experience the rehearsal of actual Scholarship board paper (Phase 1 + Phase 2) 15 Exams 4) Time management will be practiced with phase 1- 1050, phase 2- 1200 Total 2250 questions. 5) Trick wise explanation of Mathematics & intelligence test questions. 6) By using Formulae, Hints, Short Tricks students will get concept clearance and save time. 7) Mistakes will be eliminated gradually. 8) Fear of main board exam will disappear. 9) Increases the confidence level of students, teachers and parents. Instructions: 1) Use black or blue ball pen only for practice, strictly do not use pencil or ink, gel pen. 2) Don’t spend time in reading previous year question paper’s instructions. 3) Solve easy and formula based questions on first priority. 4) Solve the difficult questions with tricks. 5) On colour OMR dark the answer circle from the outside to inner side so that it does not half field or go outside. 6) Use colored OMR for practice, Creating an Enthusiastic Environment: School level: The question paper should be solved in one and a half hour in a strict supervision by keeping proper distance between the students. If possible explain the explanation on projector with the help of PDF. Home Level: Parents should take care of time duration of one & half hour and practice at home in an exam-like supervision by removing other distractions. Explanation should be explained later on what’s app pdf. Advantages: 1) Speed + Accuracy = Success is the formula of success 2) Tricks saves historical time 3) Available at a lower price than Xerox 4) One practice paper set = Paper 1(8 pages) + Paper 2 (8 pages) + Colored OMR (2) Speaking answer list (2) Total 20 pages + Explanation with notes (8 pages ) What’s-app / Projector (Soft copy pdf.) Total planning of 28 pages. Total 15 sets = 420 pages. PRE PRIMARY SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION (Std. 8th) ØeLece Yee<ee Je iee fCele (First Language and Mathematics) (Med. English)

(2) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (4) eggs, milk 2. (2) It is necessary for keeping up the heat of the body 3. (1) Kind of food their country produces 4. (2) Trek expedition 5. (3) undersigned 6. (1) 20th April 7. (4) Emergency landing in Hudson River. 8. (2) Courageous 9. (3) As they escaped only with shock and minor injuries 10. (3) tele (4) broad 11. (1) winter 12. (2) days are short, nights are of longer duration 13. (3) Paramvir Chakra 14. (3) Apple, Plum 15. (2) to examine carefully 16. (3) glorious (4) heavy 17. (3) Noun clause 18. (2) Dick says, “I have once been to Spain”. 19. (4) Simile 20. (1) No sooner did he come than he took objections. 21. (3) The guard refused him admission. 22. (1) Having finished his exercise, he put away his bag 23. (1) admired (2) praised 24. (2) by 25. (3) (A), (C) correct 26. (1) 0 x (2) 1 27. (1) 7 3 (2) 11 3 28. (4) 46 29. (4) (A), (B), (C) are correct statements 30. (1) 102 31. (4) 900 32. (2) 6.25% profit 33. (3) 1 34. (3) less by Rs. 4 35. (2) 3.5 2 cm 36. (1) 3 cm 37. (2) 500 38. (4) 2250 39. (4) 75 km/hr 40. (3) 12.5% 41. (1) 24 cm 42. (3) Divisible by only (C) 43. (3) Right angled triangle 44. (2) 15 45. (4) 840 46. (1) Rs. 46,552 47. (2) 153.5 cm 48. (1) 0.15 m (2) 15 cm 49. (1) 16 xy 5 (2) 16 xy 5 50. (3) 0.54 51. (2) 10 cm 52. (1) 20 p.c.p.a. 53. (1) (A) and (B) are true (2) (B) and (C) are true 54. (2) 12 cm 55. (3) –3x3 + 5x2 + 1 56. (3) Rs. 10,35,000 57. (2) 3 58. (1) 1360 59. (3) 900 decim 60. (2) 2(2x + 7) (4x2 + 4x + 13) 61. (1) Rs. 20,000 62. (1) Rs. 38,720 63. (3) 12 2 2 cm 64. (1) 129.75 (2) 12975 10–2 65. (2) 36 3 sq.cm 66. (1) (A) 67. (1) 6.5 cm 68. (4) 1.65 km 69. (2) 24 70. (2) –3m – 4n 71. (3) 5 2 4 3 72. (1) The angles are complementary to each other 73. (3) 70 74. (1) 6 : 5 75. (2) 12.5 hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern ØeLece Yee<ee Je iee fCele (First Language and Mathematics) Answerkey (SDA-P-I-0111)

(3) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (3) Yoga teachers, participants. 2. (1) People's participation in yoga event 3. (2) Some girls of the class are cleverer than Naomi. 4. (4) haven't they ? 5. (3) adjective 6. (2) stamp 7. (2) sadhu 8. (2) For the sake of stranger. (3) For the sake of a Friend. 9. (3) gold 10. (4) (D) winners 11. (1) 2 12. (2) whether 13. (2) because he wants to lead just right. (3) because he is following his foot steps. 14. (2) to fall 15. (1) might 16. (1) to live with in one's income. 17. (1) UNO 18. (4) B 19. (3) Liaison officer 20. (4) C 21. (2) metaphor 22. (2) 6 23. (3) Tata Docomo customer sevices 24. (2) Have a nice day 25. (1) compound sentence 26. (2) 28 27. (1) 65 28. (4) 20 years 29. (2) 1 30. (3) 4.2 cm, 3.4 cm, 8.5 cm 31. (1) 3300 m (3) 3.3 km 32. (4) less by 171 33. (3) 10 (4) 1 34. (1) 600 35. (4) 17 m 36. (2) 2 2 4 16 3x 9x 12 x x 37. (4) 12 38. (1) 35 meters east 39. (3) 3600 m (4) 3.6 km 40. (3) 6 years 41. (4) 54 units 42. (3) –26 43. (2) 33 cm2 44. (4) All the properties of a square are present in a parallelogram. 45. (3) 530 46. (1) 9.5 years 47. (4) 80,000 48. (3) 4x = 5y 49. (1) 9.5 years 50. (2) 96 cm 51. (4) 28 52. (2) 48% 53. (1) 8% 54. (3) –15 55. (1) 18 56. (3) more by Rs.1875 57. (4) 2,50,000 58. (3) 18 59. (2) 10.5 cm 60. (1) 3x – 9y + 7 61. (2) The average of the given numbers in a group can be more than each number in the group. (4) If every number in a given group is reduced by a common number, then the average of the group does not group. 62. (3) Rs. 1080 63. (1) 11 64. (2) 20 cm 65. (3) 7.2 sq. cm 66. (2) 4 67. (3) 24 68. (3) 'A', 'B' and 'C' are correct. 69. (4) 36 2 cm 70. (3) 8 71. (1) 13 7 (4) 5 7 72. (2) Two times 73. (3) Rs. 11,700 74. (1) Rs. 3250 75. (4) Rs. 4420 hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern ØeLece Yee<ee Je iee fCele (First Language and Mathematics) Answerkey (SDA-P-I-0112)

(4) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (3) 1 2. (2) turned a deaf ear 3. (2) complex sentence (3) simple sentence 4. (1) on (4) against 5. (2) What does the setting Sun colour ? 6. (2) either - or 7. (2) we should respect food. 8. (4) the Rain, the Sun, the Mother Earth 9. (2) antithesis 10. (1) Shall we? 11. (1) Galaxy (2) Space 12. (2) as if 13. (2) Bhakt 14. (1) 3 (4) 4 15. (1) C 16. (1) very talkative (4) fond of talking 17. (2) obligation (4) compulsion 18. (1) Day - 3 19. (4) Christmas Gala dinner 20. (2) South Goa 21. (3) 3 22. (4) nature park-road 23. (3) Bronze articles 24. (4) 4 25. (2) Treasurer 26. (3) 4 27. (1) 1 : 2 28. (3) 3 : 4 29. (2) Rs. 10,00,000 30. (3) 5 31. (2) –1 32. (3) 54O 33. (2) 15 34. (4) Rs. 5914 35. (1) (x + 8) (x – 9) 36. (1) 3 20 37. (2) 0 1 22 2 38. (3) 1548 m 39. (4) 10.8 40. (2) (4x2 + 9) (4x2 – 9) (3) (4x +9) (2x+3) (2x–3) 41. (4) 5 42. (1) 625 cm2 43. (1) 33 cm2 44. (2) 8% increase 45. (1) 5 46. (1) 25 47. (1) 88 km (3) 8000 m 48. (2) 15,40,000 litres 49. (3) 8 years 50. (2) (2a–3b+5c) (2a–3b+5c) 51. (3) 168 52. (2) 80 cm 53. (4) 75 54. (4) 9% profit 55. (4) 8a3 – 27b3 56. (2) 29 57. (2) Rs. 3948 58. (3) m CEB 59. (2) Rs. 7475 60. (2) –70 xy (3) 70 xy 61. (2) 0 62. (4) 1925 sq.m. 63. (1) 50 cm (3) 0.5 m 64. (1) Rs. 1,38,031 65. (2) 2 (4) 4 66. (1) 2x = 5y 67. (1) 6.5 cm 68. (1) 512 cu.cm 69. (1) 1 (4) 20 70. (2) 34 years 6 months 71. (3) 6 3 cm (4) 108 cm 72. (1) 624 m2 73. (1) 72 quintal 74. (2) 2013 75. (2) 15 hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern ØeLece Yee<ee Je iee fCele (First Language and Mathematics) Answerkey (SDA-P-I-0113)

(5) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (3) It is probably derived from a British game called rounders 2. (2) ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ 3. (1) Today’s baseball players use special equipments to help to prevent injuries. (4) People of all ages play baseball at local baseball fields. 4. (2) That every night poet goes abroad in his dreams 5. (1) There was no one to guide him 6. (4) a a b b 7. (3) (b, c) 8. (4) can 9. (1) This work will have been finished by you tomorrow 10. (3) (a, d) 11. (2) Laughter holding back her sides (3) The hills rejoice and clap their hands 12. (4) (a, c) 13. (1) He had been wrong 14. (2) Tekdi-mountain 15. (3) Very few art forms of India are as beautiful as Rangoli 16. (1) For making available the home reading facility (4) For getting facility to read books of their choice at a stretch 17. (3) A and B correct 18. (4) Yours sincerely 19. (4) Secondary Health Center 20. (2) (a, b) 21. (4) To drive on the roads 22. (3) The dog was barking continuously at strangers 23. (1) Were they 24. (1) Surrendered 25. (2) The officers not only stood straight but also listened carefully to their commander 26. (2) 6.5 2 cm 27. (1) 1231210–2 (2) 123.12 28. (2) 30% 29. (4) 6000 30. (3) All angles of rhombus are congruent (4) The diagonals of a rhombus are congruent 31. (1) 36 cm (2) 0.36 cm 32. (3) The rational number 27 29 is on the right side of zero, on the number line 33. (1) 44 34. (4) –2x5 + 8x + 3x2 35. (3) 80 36. (1) 48 cm 37. (2) Rs. 52,900 38. (3) 1300 39. (1) Rs. 5000 40. (1) Rs. 23,760 41. (2) 1 : 5 42. (4) 121 3 sq.cm 43. (1) 25% 44. (1) 18 45. (4) (A) and (D) 46. (1) Right angle quadrilateral 47. (4) 11 km 48. (1) Can draw its complementary angle 49. (1) 5 4 9 (2) 4 3 9 50. (4) 2800 51. (2) 8 cm 52. (2) –8x9 (3) –23 x9 53. (3) 30 54. (2) 2 55. (1) –4(3a + b – c) 56. (1) 103 57. (4) 140 58. (4) 9.2 cm 59. (1) 2 cm 60. (1) 17 cm 61. (3) 1176 62. (2) 4 63. (2) 3 64. (2) Obtuse angled triangle 65. (4) Rs. 5,30,000 66. (1) 12.5 cm 67. (1) 1% loss 68. (4) 10 p.c.p.a. 69. (2) 161.55 cm 70. (1) 10% 71. (2) 5 : 4 72. (1) +5xy (2) –xy 73. (4) 45 days 74. (1) 2(x + 1) (4x2 – 22x + 49) 75. (3) 0.47 hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern ØeLece Yee<ee Je iee fCele (First Language and Mathematics) Answerkey (SDA-P-I-0114)

(6) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (4) The education of girls 2. (1) One of the objectives of NPE has not been fulfilled 3. (2) only ‘b’ 4. (3) ‘a’ and ‘d’ 5. (4) patient trying 6. (2) has survived many blows of stormy winds. 7. (4) d and f 8. (1) He is so brilliant that he can solve any example. (3) Work hard so that you can achieve success. 9. (3) ‘a’ and ‘b’ 10. (1) By whom is this mess being created? 11. (2) Moon Impact probe 12. (4) John asked if that was the job she was offering him 13. (2) Ah! Wonderful ! 14. (3) It remains the same 15. (1) Very few cities in India are as rich as Mumbai 16. (4) Young persons should realize what they can do for the country. 17. (3) did you 18. (2) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a 19. (1) Importance of energy saving (3) Importance of renewable energy 20. (1) Renewable energy 21. (3) A report can have personal views and comments of the writer 22. (2) Kalighat, Dakshineshwar (4) Belurmath, Thanthania Kalibari 23. (1) to 24. (4) had rained, had become 25. (2) to be under consideration 26. (4) 0 27. (1) 57 28. (2) Kite, (3) Rectangle 29. (2) 12.2 % 30. (3) 0.54 31. (4) 2600 32. (2) 5 33. (2) 4 2 4 r 3 34. (1) Rs. 10,00,000 35. (4) (a – b – 20) (a – b + 3) 36. (1) Odd number 37. (4) 150 km 38. (1) 8 bottles 39. (2) 180 40. (4) 6 2 41. (3) 0.0036 (4) 0.06 42. (3) 56 sq. cm 43. (2) 950 44. (1) (A) (2) (B) 45. (1) 16 ab (4) –16 ab 46. (4) SAS test 47. (1) 5 : 4 48. (2) 20.5 kg (4) 20 kg 500 gm 49. (2) 950 50. (3) Perimeter will remain same 51. (3) c 52. (4) 146° 53. (1) Statement ‘A’ incorrect (2) Statements ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct 54. (2) Radius and height of a cylinder is equal to the radius of a sphere. 55. (2) Rs. 1080 profit 56. (4) 15 hrs. 57. (4) Rs. 5616 58. (4) 7 59. (4) (5, 13, 14) 60. (2) 90 61. (4) 170 62. (1) 6 ways 63. (3) 8 64. (1) 6.25 % rise 65. (3) (a – 2b) (a2 + 2ab + 4b2 ) 66. (2) 240 cu.cm 67. (1) 0 68. (1) 42 14 3 units 69. (2) 1, 0, 0, 0, – 4, 0) 70. (4) Rs. 1800 71. (2) mn = 150 72. (3) 800 73. (1) Rs. 7500 74. (1) Divided bar graph 75. (3) 13 : 10 hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern ØeLece Yee<ee Je iee fCele (First Language and Mathematics) Answerkey (SDA-P-I-0115)

(7) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (2) Very few cities are as hot as Chennai in India. 2. (2) B, C, A, D 3. (4) 10th of May, 22nd of May 4. (2) couplets 5. (3) Doctor of Medicine 6. (1) Antithesis 7. (3) living in one's compartment and groups 8. (3) while writing letter to children 9. (1) bliss-misery 10. (2) The moon rose before the end of their journey. 11. (1) He says (that) he is glad to be here this evening. 12. (1) A ticket will be given to you by the manager. (2) You will be given a ticket by the manager. 13. (2) adjective 14. (1) reserved 15. (1) HERD, FLEET (4) TEAM, MOB 16. (1) No sooner did he see me than he came up and spoke to me. 17. (4) Adverb clause of purpose 18. (3) False 19. (2) brings money (4) spends time nicely 20. (4) A teacher does various roles like a friend, guide, motivator. 21. (2) Students are young and tender. 22. (1) enchanting 23. (4) The writer visited many more places like Juhu Beach, Mount Mary Church. 24. (3) Randha Fall 25. (1) bird sanctuary. 26. (3) 1 : 4 27. (3) Rs. 44,000 28. (1) 6 3 8x 27y (4) 6 3 8x y 27 29. (2) 62 30. (1) a + b 31. (3) C 32. (2) statement B (3) statement C 33. (2) 3000 cm (3) 30 m 34. (3) 1.76 km 35. (4) 33.6 cm 36. (4) 55 37. (2) 3x2 – 2x – 1 38. (1) 102 39. (1) 28 40. (1) The given angles are supplementary angles. 41. (1) 17 7 (2) 11 7 42. (1) 6 cm 43. (2) 1140 44. (4) 1 33 3 45. (1) 8.5 cm 46. (4) 81 3 sq.cm. 47. (2) 32% 48. (3) 28 49. (2) 3600 cm 50. (1) 112x y (2) 112x y 51. (4) 8 3 52. (3) 25 53. (1) statement A 54. (2) 4 55. (4) By A, B and D 56. (2) 5 57. (2) 1 58. (3) 14 km 59. (3) (2x – 9) (4x2 – 12x + 21) 60. (3) 12% 61. (2) 13.6 years 62. (2) 4 cm 63. (4) 945 64. (4) 8.4 cm 65. (1) 2 cm 66. (1) 30 cm 67. (3) 79695 68. (2) Rs. 18,00,000 69. (1) Acute angled triangle 70. (3) 5.5 2 cm 71. (1) 59.67 (3) 5967 × 10–2 72. (3) 2000 73. (1) Rs. 30,000 74. (1) 255 75. (2) 7:6 hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern ØeLece Yee<ee Je iee fCele (First Language and Mathematics) Answerkey (SDA-P-I-0116)

(8) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (1) 3 2. (4) tribal 3. (1) a pleasant atmosphere 4. (3) My sister Emmeline and I 5. (2) Childhood days 6. (2) Can (3) May 7. (2) revamping city’s transport system and reducing use of solid fuels. 8. (4) New Delhi 9. (3) He is always great reader and has good eyesight. 10. (2) The courteous greeting or salutation. (4) The subscription or courteous leave taking. 11. (3) active games 12. (1) 15th January 2023 13. (4) Pleasant Smell 14. (1) - ion 15. (3) Veterinarian 16. (2) Present perfect tense 17. (2) Adjective clause 18. (2) Complex statement 19. (4) His angry mother jeered and asked whether he supposed that he knew better than his own father. 20. (1) Public statement (2) The act of making official statement 21. (1) richer 22. (4) ! 23. (2) generated 24. (1) See you later 25. (2) watch to see if they understand. Add, emphasize and change something. 26. (3) x2 – 15x + 56 27. (3) 143 28. (2) 12.5 cm 29. (1) 10,000 30. (2) 17 23 31. (1) 5 2 (2) 2.5 32. (4) 200 33. (1) 2x 3 x 15 34. (3) 12 35. (2) 20% profit 36. (2) 216 37. (3) 2x5 – 5 38. (1) 20 decimeter (3) 2.0 m. 39. (4) 4186.67 cubic cm. 40. (1) 2 2 x 25 36 y 41. (4) 35 km 42. (1) 12,150 43. (4) 3 : 17 44. (3) 10,552.50 45. (2) A-c, B-a, C-b, D-d 46. (1) 22,000 47. (3) 1 48. (2) 111 49. (2) 850 50. (2) BCA is an acute angled triangle (3) CAB > 900 51. (3) 23 m. 52. (4) 8.0 53. (2) 31.5 54. (3) 55. (2) On the vertex of the right angle. 56. (1) p q r s (4) sp = qr 57. (2) y – x – 10 58. (1) 5 16 59. (1) S-A-S 60. (4) 600 61. (2) 37 3 4 hours 62. (1) 0 63. (2) ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct. 64. (1) 1 litre (2) 1000 cubic cm 65. (4) 2 A r 66. (1) 71, 73 67. (3) Trapezium 68. (2) 211 69. (2) Interest received by Yashashri was more by Rs. 155 than Saurabh received. (4) Interest received by Saurabh was less by Rs. 155 than Yashashri received. 70. (2) 135° 71. (4) 7.0 72. (1) 132 cm 73. (3) 32 sq. units 74. (4) 5% 75. (1) ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ are correct. hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern ØeLece Yee<ee Je iee fCele (First Language and Mathematics) Answerkey (SDA-P-I-0117)

Use for Rough work (1) P.T.O. Set B PRE SECONDARY SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION (Std. 8th) Seat No. S D A 0 1 1 1 Medium : English Paper No. II Third Language and Time : 1 Hr. 30 Min. Pages : 8 Intelligence Test Total Marks : 150 SECTION - I le=leerÙe Yee<ee ØeMve ›eâ. 1 le s 3 mee"e r me tÛevee : he g{e rue Gleeje keâeUpee rhe tJe &keâ JeeÛe tve e foue suÙee ØeMvee bÛÙee Ùee siÙe Gòeje bÛee heÙee &Ùe e fveJe[e. efvemeie& ne ceeCemeeÛee efpeJeeÛee meKee Deens. Gvneheemetve ceeCemeeuee JeeÛeefJeCÙeemee"er Je=#e meeJeueer o slees. «eer<ceeÛÙee oenkeâlesheemetve ceeCemeeuee JeeÛeefJeCÙeemee"er heeJemeeÛee Je<ee&Je neslees. heJe&leebÛÙee GbÛeercegU s JeeoUer JeeNÙeeheemetve j#eCe nesles. Pee[ebÛeer cetU s peefceveerle KeesueJej iesuÙeeJej peefceveerÛeer Oethe LeebyeJeleele. Pee[ebÛÙee MJemeveecegU s DeMegæ JeeÙet keâceer nesTve ceeCemeeuee ØeeCeJeeÙet efceUlees. efvemeiee&leerue efJeefJeOe ØeeCeer, he#eer, keâerškeâ nso sKeerue peCet keâener ceeCemeeÛÙee meg dKeeÛeeÛe efJeÛeej keâjleele. ceOeceeMÙeebÛÙee cesnveleerletve ceeCemeeuee ceOegj ceOe efceUlees. legleerÛÙee heeveebJej heesmeCeeje jsMeceeÛee efkeâ[e DeeheuÙee mehece&Ceeletve ceeCemeeuee ceTmetle jsMeerce Oeeiee o slees. efvemeie& ne Skeâ cees"e oelee Deens. efkebâyentvee DeeheuÙeekeâ[s pes pes keâener Deens les o gmeNÙeeuee ÅeeJes ne mebo sMe heeJeueesheeJeueer o slees. GbÛe keâ[ŸeeJe¤ve keâesmeUCeejs OeyeOeyes ceeCemeeuee veÙevemegKe o sleeleÛe. efMeJeeÙe lÙeebÛÙee GheÙeesie keâ¤ve ceeCetme efJeÅegleMeòeâer, Tpee& efvecee&Ce keâjlees. yesOeg bo JeenCeeNÙee Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. (1) This question paper contains two sections. In Section I there are 1 to 25 questions of Third Language and in Section II there are 26 to 75 questions of Intelligence Test. All 75 questions are compulsory. (2) All questions carry 2 marks each. (3) Time limit to solve the question paper is 90 minutes. (4) Separate answer sheet is given to record the answers. Each question has been given four alternatives. Read them carefully. Select the correct answer and shade the correct answer in the answer sheet. Example : If Q. No. 6 has option number 2, as the correct answer, then completely the circle No. 2 as shown below. Question No. 6 (5) Answer marked in the following way will carry zero mark. (6) While recording the correct option in the answer sheet, use only black or blue ball pen. Otherwise it will be credited ‘Zero’ mark. (7) Answer once recorded cannot be changed. (8) Maximum 20% questions are having two correct alternatives. Claculate has to darken both the circles with correct answer. These questions will have the instruct ‘Select the correct alternatives’.

Use for Rough work (2) P.T.O. JeeNÙeeÛÙee meeceLÙee&Jej ceeCemeeÛÙee heJeveÛekeäkeäÙee efHeâjleele. melele KeUKeUeš keâjCeeje meeiej ceeCemeeuee DeeheuÙee DeLeebie Gojeletve #eej, MebKe, efMebheues, celmÙeOeve o sleesÛe. efvemeiee&ves ÙegieevesÙegies efouesues JewYeJe, megyeòee ÙeebÛeer lÙeeuee Dee"JeCener jeefnueer veener. #eguuekeâ mJeeLee&heesšer lees Pee[s lees[lees, pebieues Gæmle keâjlees, veÅeebÛes iees[heeCeer o tef<ele keâjlees, meeiejeÛÙee DeLeebielesueener De[mej efvecee&Ce keâjlees DeeefCe ceeies Gjles kesâJeU Øeo t<eCe ! DeeheuÙee efMekeâejerÛÙee newmesheesšer ceeCemeeves Deepe efkeâlÙeskeâ efvemeie&oòe heMet, he#eer ve° kesâues Deensle. ceeCemeeuee efvemeiee&Meer DemeuesuÙee DeeheuÙee veelÙeeÛee efJemej he[uee Deens peCet ! 1. «eer<ce $e+legyeeyele GleeNÙeele keâesCeles JeCe&ve kesâuesues Deens? (1) meJeeËle Meerleue $e+let (2) meJee&le G<Ce $e+let (3) heeJemeeÛee Je<ee&Je nesCeeje $e+leg (4) efvemeie& Megæ keâjCeeje $e+leg 2. efvemeiee&keâ[ tve DeeheCe keâesCelee yeesOe Iesleuee heeefnpes? (oesve DeÛetkeâ heÙee&Ùe efveJe[e) (1) oele=lJe (2) mJeeLee aheCee (3) hejeshekeâej (4) Øeot<eCe 3. ceeCemeeÛÙee keâesCelÙee ÚboeheeÙeer heMeghe#ÙeebÛÙee keâener peeleer ve° PeeuÙee Deensle? (1) mJeeLe& (2) efMekeâej (3) KesU (4) Yeücebleer Øe.4 les mee"er 6 metÛevee : heg{erue keâefJelee JeeÛee. lÙeeKeeueer efJeÛeejuesuÙee ØeMveebÛÙee GòejebÛee ÙeesiÙe heÙee&Ùe efveJe[e. Dees{eU Jeeme¤ jeveer Deeues efHe⤠keâUheeÛee Ies¤ mees[gefveÙee keâeveeceOÙes Jeej s Ye¤efveÙee vÙeej s Hesâj Oejer efHeâj jeveesceeU ~ ceeskeâeš ceeskeâeš DeHeâeš DeHeâeš Jeešsue leer Jeeš OeeJet ueeies ~ efJeme¤veer Yeeve, Yetkeâ efve leneve heeÙeeKeeueer jeve Ieeueer meej s ~ LeketâefveÙee Kethe mejlee ng¤he Dee"Jes keâUhe leÙeeueeieer ~ efHe⤠peelee ceeies otj peeT ueeies DeeCeKeerÛe Yeeies Yeškeâle ~ he[lee DebOee¤ ueeieues nbye¤ ceeÙe ~ let ueske⤠MeesOet ÙesF& ~ 4. keâefJelesleerue JeemejeÛee mJeYeeJe keâmee Deens? (1) Meeble (2) Ûelegj (3) Gvee[ (4) nesleke⤠5. Jeemejeuee keâMeeÛeer Dee"JeCe jeefnueer veener? (1) jeve (2) ceeU (3) ng¤he (4) leneve 6. ‘keâeveele Jeej s efMejCes’ cnCepes ............... (1) G[Ÿee ceejCes (2) jeveesceeU efHeâjCes (3) ng¤he JeešCes (4) yesYeeve nesCes 7. ‘DeeJeepe’ Ùee MeyoeÛee meceeveeLeea Meyo keâesCelee? (1) Jeo (2) jJe (3) jo (4) veceve 8. ‘mebkeâesÛe’ Ùee MeyoeÛee efJe®æeLeea Meyo keâesCelee? (1) Demebkeâe sÛe (2) efve:mebkeâesÛe (3) ueefppele (4) efve[j

Use for Rough work (3) P.T.O. 9. uesKeve efveÙeceevegmeej DeÛetkeâ Meyo keâesCelee? (1) ceene rleer (2) vegmekeâeve (3) Peg bpegcetbpeg (4) efJeMes<Ùe 10. heg{eruehewkeâer Megæ Meyo keâesCelee? (1) nwjeve (2) megJeCe &cegõe (3) efieNneFkeâ (4) veešŸeerkeâjCe 11. heg{eruehewkeâer keâesCelÙee heÙee&Ùeele Meyomecetn Je lÙeeÛÙeemee"erÛee Skeâ Meyo ÙeebÛeer ÙeesiÙe pees[er Deens? (oesve DeÛetkeâ heÙee&Ùe efveJe[e) (1) peveefnleeyeöue peeie¤keâ - peveefnlekeâ#e (2) "jJeuesuÙee keâeceeÛee efve§eÙe - mebkeâuhe (3) heenCÙeemee"er Deeuesues ueeskeâ - keâueeJeble (4) "jeefJekeâ keâeUeves Øeefmeæ nesCeej s - efveÙelekeâeefuekeâ 12. ‘ceole keâjCes’ Ùee DeLee&Ûee JeekeâdØeÛeej heÙee&Ùeebletve efveJe[e. (1) nele ceejCes (2) neleYeej ueeJeCes (3) neleeMeer OejCes (4) neleeJej legjer osCes 13. Keeueerue De#ej s pegUJetve DeLetheCe& cnCe leÙeej kesâuÙeeme meeleJÙee ›eâceebkeâeJej keâesCeles De#ej Ùesles? (1) oe (2) ue s (3) Ûe (4) Dee 14. heg{eruehewkeâer keâesCelee Meyo ‘pees[Meyo’ veener? (1) iee s[Oees[ (2) veeleerieesleer (3) ieg¤efMe<Ùe (4) cetueyeeU 15. heg{eruehewkeâer keâesCelÙee heÙee&Ùeeleerue Meyo efouesuÙee oesvner DeLeeËveer Jeehejuee peelees? (1) heCe – Øeefle%ee, Deš (2) keâj – efkeâjCe, keâe" (3) YeeJe – oj, oMe&ve (4) ob[ – eqMe#ee, efveÙece 16. ‘Dee§eÙe&ced’ Ùee Meyoele efkeâleer JeCe& Deensle? (1) meele (2) veT (3) Ûeej (4) Dee" 17. heg{eruehewkeâer keâesCelee Meyo efJeMes<eCe Deens? (1) MeewÙe& (2) efyekeâš (3) efvemeie& (4) Øemebie 18. ‘hegmlekesâ JeeÛeCÙeeÛee ceePee Úbo ueneveheCeeheemetve ceuee Deevebo Je efJej biegUe osle jeefnuee’ Ùee JeekeäÙeele keâesCeleer DeJÙeÙes Deeueer Deensle? (oesve DeÛetkeâ heÙee&Ùe efveJe[e) (1) Je (2) Úbo (3) heemetve (4) Deevebo 19. Keeueerue JeekeäÙehetleeamee"er keâesCeles DeJÙeÙe Deens? ........ kesâJe{s cees"s GbÛe efMeKej ~ (1) JeenJee ! (2) Ús ! (3) Meeyeeme ! (4) Deyeye ! 20. heg{eruehewkeâer keâesCelÙee oesve heÙee&Ùeeleerue Meyo hejmhej efJe®æefuebieer veenerle? (1) oelee ² oeleer (2) vej ² veejer (3) oeme ² oemeer (4) efJeÉeve – eqJeog<eer 21. ‘ye#eerme’ Ùee veeceeÛes DeveskeâJeÛeveer ¤he heÙee&Ùeebletve efveJe[e. (1) yeef#emes (2) ye#eerme (3) ye#eermeer (4) yee f#emee 22. heg{erue JeekeäÙeele efkeâleer ØekeâejÛeer efJejeceefÛevns Deeueer Deensle? oerhekeâves efJeÛeejues, ‘‘cnCepes DeeheCe kegâCeerÛe Heâšekesâ, Hegâueyeepes Je YegF&Ûe›eâ DeeCeeÙeÛeer veenerle? les meJe& hewmes efÛevceÙeuee oŸeeÙeÛes? (1) lee rve (2) Ûeej (3) heeÛe (4) mene

Use for Rough work (4) P.T.O. 23. ‘meeefvekeâe cewoeveeJej OeeJeles.’ Ùee JeekeäÙeeÛee keâeU DeesUKee. (1) YetlekeâeU (2) Jele &ceevekeâeU (3) Yee fJe<ÙekeâeU (4) meeOeekeâeU 24. ‘ceeCemeeleuee osJe’ Ùee hee"eÛes uesKekeâ keâesCe? (1) Mebkeâj JewÅe (2) megOeekeâj ØeYet (3) ØeHegâuue jCeefoJes (4) efMeJeepeer osMecegKe 25. ‘$Ùebyekeâ yeehetpeer "eWyej s’ Ùeebvee keâesCelÙee veeJeeves DeesUKeleele? (1) jepekeâJeer (2) kesâMeJemetle (3) kegâmegcee«epe (4) yeeuekeâJeer SECTION - II INTELLIGENCE TEST 26. In the sentence 'I had lent my friend some of my pocket money and he had promised to return it soon'. How many six letter words are more or less than five letter words? (1) More than 2 (2) Less by 3 (3) Less by 4 (4) Less by 5 27. How many total number of vowels are there in the word 'Examination'? (1) Three (2) Five (3) Six (4) Four 28. In the letter series 'G, P, T, G, T, P, N, G, M, M, P, Y, G, P' which letter has occured maximum number of times? (Select two correct alternatives) (1) G (2) M (3) T (4) P 29. Arrange the letters 'G, A, S, T, E' to make a meaningful word and state to which of the following it does not belongs? (1) Home (2) Airport (3) Theatre (4) Station 30. Letters : b d d p q p d b b q p d p d b d q d b In the above letter series, which is the seventh leter to the right, from the letter which is at the fourth place to the left of the letter which is at the middle place of the given alphabetical series? (1) b (2) d (3) p (4) q Q. 31 to 35 Direction : Find the odd term : 31. (1) Blackboard (2) Bag (3) Notebook (4) Gardener 32. (1) (2) (3) (4) 33. (1) 3436 (2) 2325 (3) 7164 (4) 5249 34. (1) GSF (2) DVC (3) EUD (4) KOL 35. Find the term to match the given group. (Select two correct alternatives) 924, 1342, 3498 (1) 1214 (2) 1331 (3) 4441 (4) 3905 36. Identify the relation between the first two terms and find the third term from the alternatives given. (Select two correct alternatives) Cow : Calf : : ? : Cub (1) Deer (2) Monkey (3) Lion (4) Tiger 37. In the following relation between the third and fourth term is the same as that between the first and second. Find the term that will replace the question mark. (Select two correct alternatives) Cloth : Metre : : Sugar : ? (1) Litre (2) Millimetre (3) Kilogram (4) Ton

Use for Rough work (5) P.T.O. Q. 38 to 40 Direction : In each of the following questions relation between 3rd and 4th term is the same as that between the first and the second. Find the term to replace the question mark : 38. 237 : 1728 : : 412 : ? (1) 3024 (2) 637 (3) 2401 (4) 343 39. CFI : WTQ : : DHL : ? (1) VRN (2) VPM (3) UPM (4) UQM 40. (1) (2) (3) (4) Q. 41 to 44 Direction : In the following series, determine the rule underlying the series and find out the term in place of the question mark : 41. 568, 467, 370, 281, 198, 119? (1) 50 (2) 46 (3) 56 (4) 52 42. 1, 2, 6, 21, 88 ? 2676 (1) 445 (2) 645 (3) 357 (4) 1350 43. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 44. (1) (2) (3) (4) Q. 45 and 46 Direction : Find the odd term : 45. 23, 34, 49, 64, 83, 106, 135, 166 (1) 64 (2) 49 (3) 83 (4) 135 46. B V F R J N M J R (1) F (2) V (3) B (4) M Q. 45 and 46 Direction : In a certain code language BUT is written as 174. EAT is written as 453 and BAT is written as 451 : 47. What is the code the word "TUBE"? (1) 4713 (2) 4715 (3) 4351 (4) 4513 48. Which meaningful words can be formed by using the code 345? (Select two correct alternatives) (1) TEA (2) AUT (3) ATE (4) UTA 49. In a sequence A is coded as C, B is coded as D, C is coded As E. In this sequence which letter will be coded as P? (1) N (2) R (3) Q (4) S

Use for Rough work (6) P.T.O. Q. 45 and 46 Direction : Identify the rhythmic arrangement of terms given below and find the correct term in place of the question mark : 50. b k f v s p f b k p v s k f b s p v b ? ? ? s p (1) f k v (2) k f v (3) v f k (4) k p v 51. (1) (2) (3) (4) 52. 2 5 6 9 8 4 7 6 9 8 4 7 2 5 8 4 7 2 5 6 9 7 2 ? ? ? 8 4 (1) 9 6 5 (2) 6 5 9 (3) 5 6 9 (4) 2 6 9 Q. 45 and 46 Direction : Observe the following pyramid of numbers and the sequence of the terms given in the questions that follow. Choose the correct term from the alternatives given that will replace the question mark : 53. 28, 33, 39, 29, : 31, 37, 42, 30 : : 34, 29, 35, 40 : ? (1) 41, 35, 30, 36 (2) 36, 30, 35, 41 (3) 36, 30, 25, 31 (4) 35, 30, 36, 41 54. 18, 28, 30, 25 : 19, 31, 29, 23 : : 38, 39, 28, 23 : ? (1) 25, 31, 42, 43 (2) 25, 31, 42, 37 (3) 43, 42, 31, 25 (4) 43, 42, 25, 31 55. Choose the correct number from the pyramid given above, to replace the question mark in the series given below : 33, 39, 34, 40, 35 ? 36, 42, 37 (1) 30 (2) 41 (3) 40 (4) 31 In the following question a problem figure is given. Identify its water reflection from the given alternatives : 56. (1) (2) (3) (4) Q. 57 and 58 Direction : Identify the mirror image of the problem figure when a mirror is held as shown in the diagram : 57. (1) (2) (3) (4) 58. (1) (2) (3) (4) 59. Ajay's age is three less than 3 2 times the age of Ramesh and two more than 4 7 times the age of Dhondiba. If Dhondiba's age is 70, what is the sum of the ages of Ajay, Ramesh and Dhondiba? (1) 139 years (2) 125 years (3) 142 years (4) 152 years

Use for Rough work (7) P.T.O. 60. At what time will be the angle between hour hand and minute hand in a clock be 1050 ? (Select two correct alternatives) (1) 30 minutes past 3 (2) 30 minutes past 2 (3) 30 minutes past 10 (4) 30 minutes past 9 61. How many surface has the following wooden figure? (1) 15 (2) 13 (3) 16 (4) 11 62. How many triangles are there in the following figure? (1) 14 (2) 13 (3) 15 (4) 17 Q. 63 and 64 Direction : Find out the rule underlying the arrangement of numbers in the following questions and choose the correct alternative that will replace the question mark : 63. If 9 ² 4 = 17, 7 ² 2 = 41, 10 ² 3 = 73, 8 ² 1 = ? (1) 67 (2) 65 (3) 63 (4) 69 64. (1) 27 (2) 24 (3) 32 (4) 26 65. In a row Govind is standing at 7th place from the end and Gopal is in the middle at 23rd place. How many students are standing between them? (1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 17 (4) 16 66. Swaraj walks some distance towards East and turns left in 900 . Then he walks 50 m. Now he turns right in 1350 and walks 15 m. Now his left hand indicates which direction? (1) North-east (2) North-west (3) South-west (4) South-east 67. In a certain leap year it was Tuesday on 15th March. They which day it will be on 13th November in the same year? (1) Sunday (2) Saturday (3) Wednesday (4) Monday Q. 68 and 69 Direction : Identify the Venn diagram that matches with the terms given in the question : 68. Punctuation mark, comma, semi-colon. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Use for Rough work (8) P.T.O. 69. Non skeletal animals, snake, earthworm. (1) (2) (3) (4) 70. Observe the numbers given in the brackets and choose the correct alternative to replace the question mark : 53 17 67 11 ? 23 41 83 13 (1) 37 (2) 29 (3) 31 (4) 43 Q. 71 and 72 Direction : Choose the correct alternative to complete the question figure: 71. (1) (2) (3) (4) 72. (1) (2) (3) (4) 73. Choose the correct figure from the alternatives given that is similar to the question figure. (1) (2) (3) (4) 74. A square sheet of paper folded and cut as shown in the question figure. How will the figure look like when the paper is unfolded. Choose the correct alternative. (1) (2) (3) (4) 75. Find the hidden part of the question figure from the alternatives given : (Choose two correct options) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) P.T.O. 1. (2) meJee&le G<Ce $e+let 2. (1) oele=lJe (3) hejeshekeâej 3. (2) efMekeâej 4. (3) Gvee[ 5. (4) leneve 6. (4) yesYeeve nesCes 7. (2) jJe 8. (2) efve:mebkeâesÛe 9. (4) efJeMes<Ùe 10. (4) veešŸeerkeâjCe 11.(2) "jJeuesuÙee keâeceeÛee efve§eÙe - mebkeâuhe (4) "jeefJekeâ keâeUeves Øeefmeæ nesCeej s - efveÙelekeâeefuekeâ 12. (2) neleYeej ueeJeCes 13. (4) Dee 14. (3) ieg¤efMe<Ùe 15. (1) heCe – Øeefle%ee, Deš 16. (4) Dee" 17. (2) efyekeâš 18. (1) Je (3) heemetve 19. (4) Deyeye ! 20. (1) oelee ² oeleer 21. (1) yeef#emes 22. (1) lee rve 23. (2) Jele &ceevekeâeU 24. (4) efMeJeepeer osMecegKe 25. (4) yeeuekeâJeer 26. (1) More than 2 27. (3) Six 28. (1) G (4) T 29. (1) Home 30. (2) d 31. (4) Gardener 32. (4) 33. (1) 3436 34. (4) KOL 35. (2) 1331 (4) 3905 36. (3) Lion (4) Tiger 37. (3) Kilogram (4) Ton 38. (4) 343 39. (1) VRN 40. (3) 41. (2) 46 42. (1) 445 43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (2) 49 46. (4) M 47. (1) 4713 48. (1) TEA (3) ATE 49. (1) N 50. (2) k f v 51. (4) 52. (3) 5 6 9 53. (2) 36, 30, 35, 41 54. (3) 43, 42, 31, 25 55. (2) 41 56. (3) 57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (3) 142 years 60. (2) 30 minutes past 2 (4) 30 minutes past 9 61. (1) 15 62. (4) 17 63. (3) 63 64. (3) 32 65. (2) 15 66. (1) North-east 67. (1) Sunday 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (3) 31 71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (1) (4) hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern le =lee rÙe Yee<ee Je ye ge fæceòee ÛeeÛeCee r (Third Language & Intelligence Test) Answerkey (SDA-P-II-0111)

(2) P.T.O. Solution and Hints 26. (1) I had lent my friend some of my pocket 6 6 money and he had promised to return it 5 soon. 6 6 letter words : friend, pocket, return = 3 5 letter words money = 1 So, 3 – 2 = 1 More by 2 Option No. 1 is correct. 27. (3) E x a m i n a t i o n = 6 vovels 1 2 3 4 5 6 Option No. 3 is correct. 28. (1, 4) G P T G T P N G M M P Y G P 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 Option No. 1, 4 is correct. 29. (1) Meaningful words STAGE not belongs to home. Option No. 1 is correct. 30. (2) b d d p q p d b b q p d p d b d q d b 4th 7th letter Option No. 2 is correct. 31. (4) Gardener is living thing while other not. Option No. 4 is correct. 32. (4) Option No. 4 is correct. 33. (1) 3436 = 34 and 36 : 3 + 4 = 7 and 2 36 7 2325 = 23 and 25 : 2 + 3 = 5 52 = 25 7164 = 71 and 64 7 + 1 = 8u and 88 = 64 5249 = 52 & 49 52 = 5 + 2 = 7 & 72 = 49 Option No. 1 is correct. 34. (4) The sum of first 2 letters is 26, GS = 7 + 19 = 26 DV = 4 + 22 = 26, EU = 5 + 19 = 26 Also third alphabet comes to the first letter between letter. So, option 4 KOL is odd term. Option No. 4 is correct. 35. (2, 4) 1331 and 3905 is divisible by 11. Option No. 2, 4 is correct. 36. (3, 4) Young one of lion, tiger is cub Option No. 3, 4 is correct. 37. (3, 4) Unit and measurement of sugar is kilogram, Ton, Option No. 3, 4 is correct. 38. (4) 237=2+ 3 + 7 = 12 (12)3 = 144 12 = 1728 412 = 4 + 1 + 2 = 7 (7)3 = 49 7 = 343 Option No. 4 is correct. 39. (1) CFI : WTQ : CW - left 3rd, right 3rd FT - 6th right Left = IQ 9th right, left like DV = 4th, HR 8th, LN 12th. So DHL : VRN Option No. 1 is correct. 40. (3) Option No. 3 is correct. 41. (2) 568 467 370 281 198 119 46 101 97 89 83 79 73 Prime numbers Option No. 2 is correct.

(3) P.T.O. 42. (1) Next number comes is 1 + 1 2 + 2 3 + 3 4 + 4 5 + 5 and 6 + 6 such method. Option No. 1 is correct. 43. (2) Middle line increases sequentially. Option No. 2 is correct. 44. (3) Make 5 groups comes. Option No. 3 is correct. 45. (2) Difference of prime number between two adjacent numbers. Option No. 2 is correct. 46. (4) Two series B F J M R next letter + 4. J( +4) N(+4) R : M : N. M is wrong. V, R, N, J = 4 Option No. 4 is correct. 47. (1) BUT EAT BAT 174 453 451 TUBE = 4713 Option No. 1 is correct. 48. (1, 3) TEA ATE 345 345 Option No. 1, 3 is correct. 49. (1) A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4, E = 5 N = 14, O = 15, P = 16, .... Z = 26 New Rate A = C So, A increase by 2 So, 1 + 2 = 3 = C, So, N = 14, 14 + 2 = 16 = P = N Option No. 1 is correct. 50. (2) b k f v s p | f b k p v s | k f b s p v | b ? ? ? s Option No. 2 is correct. 51. (4) Make group of 5 wil come. Option No. 4 is correct. 52. (3) Make group 7 5, 7, 9 will come. Option No. 3 is correct. 53. (2) 36, 30, 35, 41 option 2 make simple shorter of numbers. You will it answer. Option No. 2 is correct. 54. (3) 43, 42, 31, 25, Make simple structure of number. Option No. 3 is correct. 55. (2) 33 34 35 36 37 39 40 41 42 Option No. 2 is correct. 56. (3) Upper part comes lower part in water image. Option No. 3 is correct. 57. (1) Left part comes to right part in mirror image. Option No. 1 is correct. 58. (2) Left part comes to right part in mirror image. Option No. 2 is correct. 59. (3) Ajay = Dhondiba Age 4 7 times more. Dhondiba 70 years. 4 70 2 7 Ramesh Age = x 3 42 x 3 2 3x 6 42 2 x = 30 years. Ajay + Ramesh + Dhondiba = 42 + 30 + 70 = 142 years. Option No. 3 is correct.

(4) P.T.O. 60. (2, 4) 12 11 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 30 past 3 12 11 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 30 part 9 Angle 1050 Option No. 2, 4 is correct. 61. (1) Option No. 1 is correct. 62. (4) Option No. 4 is correct. 63. (3) 92 – 43 = 81 – 64 = 17 Then, 82 – 13 = 64 – 1 = 63 Option No. 3 is correct. 64. (3) 4 2 + 7 + 5 = 8 + 12 = 20 Then, 2 8 + 7 + 9 = 16 + 16 = 32 Option No. 3 is correct. 65. (2) 23rd – 67th = 16 In between 16 – 1 = 15 Option No. 2 is correct. 66. S 50 m 15 m 1350 North west Option No. 1 is correct. 67. (1) Total days from 15 march to 13 November = 243 days 243 34 7 Remains after 5 days Sunday. Option No. 1 is correct. 68. (4) Option No. 4 is correct. 69. (2) Option No. 2 is correct. 70. (3) 11 13 17 23 31 41 53 67 83 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 Option No. 3 is correct. 71. (2) Option No. 2 is correct. 72. (1) Option No. 1 is correct. 73. (2) Option No. 2 is correct. 74. (4) Option No. 4 is correct. 75. (1, 4) (1) (4) Option No. 1, 4 is correct.

(1) P.T.O. SDA Publication SDA Pattern Rehearsal of Scholarship Board Exam Scholarship Board Rehearsal Exam Activity Features: 1) Question papers as like board question paper booklets of (Maharashtra State Council Examination Boards weightage easy- 30% medium-40% difficult-30% Pattern) Paper 1 (approx. 8 pages) + Paper 2(approx. 8 pages), Colour OMR , specialized answer key. (Hard offset printing papers) 2) Answer Sheet (Colour OMR) like actual board answer sheet. 3) Experience the rehearsal of actual Scholarship board paper (Phase 1 + Phase 2) 15 Exams 4) Time management will be practiced with phase 1- 1050, phase 2- 1200 Total 2250 questions. 5) Trick wise explanation of Mathematics & intelligence test questions. 6) By using Formulae, Hints, Short Tricks students will get concept clearance and save time. 7) Mistakes will be eliminated gradually. 8) Fear of main board exam will disappear. 9) Increases the confidence level of students, teachers and parents. Instructions: 1) Use black or blue ball pen only for practice, strictly do not use pencil or ink, gel pen. 2) Don’t spend time in reading previous year question paper’s instructions. 3) Solve easy and formula based questions on first priority. 4) Solve the difficult questions with tricks. 5) On colour OMR dark the answer circle from the outside to inner side so that it does not half field or go outside. 6) Use colored OMR for practice, Creating an Enthusiastic Environment: School level: The question paper should be solved in one and a half hour in a strict supervision by keeping proper distance between the students. If possible explain the explanation on projector with the help of PDF. Home Level: Parents should take care of time duration of one & half hour and practice at home in an exam-like supervision by removing other distractions. Explanation should be explained later on what’s app pdf. Advantages: 1) Speed + Accuracy = Success is the formula of success 2) Tricks saves historical time 3) Available at a lower price than Xerox 4) One practice paper set = Paper 1(8 pages) + Paper 2 (8 pages) + Colored OMR (2) Speaking answer list (2) Total 20 pages + Explanation with notes (8 pages ) What’s-app / Projector (Soft copy pdf.) Total planning of 28 pages. Total 15 sets = 420 pages. PRE PRIMARY SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION (Std. 8th) le =lee rÙe Yee<ee Je ye ge fæceòee ÛeeÛeCee r (Third Language and Intelligence Test) (Med. English)

(2) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (2) meJee&le G<Ce $e+let 2. (1) oele=lJe (3) hejeshekeâej 3. (2) efMekeâej 4. (3) Gvee[ 5. (4) leneve 6. (4) yesYeeve nesCes 7. (2) jJe 8. (2) efve:mebkeâesÛe 9. (4) efJeMes<Ùe 10. (4) veešŸeerkeâjCe 11.(2) "jJeuesuÙee keâeceeÛee efve§eÙe - mebkeâuhe (4) "jeefJekeâ keâeUeves Øeefmeæ nesCeej s - efveÙelekeâeefuekeâ 12. (2) neleYeej ueeJeCes 13. (4) Dee 14. (3) ieg¤efMe<Ùe 15. (1) heCe – Øeefle%ee, Deš 16. (4) Dee" 17. (2) efyekeâš 18. (1) Je (3) heemetve 19. (4) Deyeye ! 20. (1) oelee ² oeleer 21. (1) yeef#emes 22. (1) lee rve 23. (2) Jele &ceevekeâeU 24. (4) efMeJeepeer osMecegKe 25. (4) yeeuekeâJeer 26. (1) More than 2 27. (3) Six 28. (1) G (4) T 29. (1) Home 30. (2) d 31. (4) Gardener 32. (4) 33. (1) 3436 34. (4) KOL 35. (2) 1331 (4) 3905 36. (3) Lion (4) Tiger 37. (3) Kilogram (4) Ton 38. (4) 343 39. (1) VRN 40. (3) 41. (2) 46 42. (1) 445 43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (2) 49 46. (4) M 47. (1) 4713 48. (1) TEA (3) ATE 49. (1) N 50. (2) k f v 51. (4) 52. (3) 5 6 9 53. (2) 36, 30, 35, 41 54. (3) 43, 42, 31, 25 55. (2) 41 56. (3) 57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (3) 142 years 60. (2) 30 minutes past 2 (4) 30 minutes past 9 61. (1) 15 62. (4) 17 63. (3) 63 64. (3) 32 65. (2) 15 66. (1) North-east 67. (1) Sunday 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (3) 31 71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (1) (4) hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern le =lee rÙe Yee<ee Je ye ge fæceòee ÛeeÛeCee r (Third Language & Intelligence Test) Answerkey (SDA-P-II-0111)

(3) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (3) Oe[s osCes 2. (4) memeeCee 3. (2) efheues Je lÙeebÛÙee DeeF&uee DeVe efceUJetve osCÙeeÛeer peyeeyeoejer Ske⚟ee Keb[ŸeeÛeer nesleer. 4. (3) megieerÛes 5. (4) e fhekeâe bÛee r keâeheCee r keâjCÙeele ieg bleuee neslee. 6. (3) OeevÙeeÛÙee jeMeer 7. (1) ketâhe 8. (1) heg{ejer (4) veeÙekeâ 9. (2) efkeâleea 10. (1) heje r#ee (2) ieefjyeer 11. (4) DeecejeF&-veejUe bÛÙee Pee[e bÛeer yeeie 12. (2) OewÙee&uee lees[ vemeCes 13. (3) Dee 14. (3) Oe[ 15. (1) veefle&kesâves heovÙeeme kesâuee 16. (1) Dee" 17. (4) ef›eâÙeeefJeMes<eCe DeJÙeÙe 18. (1) DeeF&ves efÛebleve kesâues 19. (3) Oeeiee 20. (2) meg bojlee (3) DeewoeÙe& 21. (4) [eWiej 22. (2) DeOe&efJejece 23.(4) HeâšekeäÙeebcegUs nJesleueb Øeot<eCe Jee{le Deens 24. (3) Jemeble yeeheš 25. (2) Øe.kesâ. De$es 26. (2) 5 27. (2) w (3) e 28. (1) 56 29. (4) 25 30. (2) 4 times 31. (3) Bhadrapad – Nag Panchami 32. (1) AU 33. (4) 5831 34. (1) 0.025 35. (3) 36. (1) Gulliver's Travels (3) Robinson Crusoe 37. (3) 26 yrs 38. (1) 39. (1) 4 40. (1) 50 41. (2) G 12 E 42. (2) 140 43. (2) 48 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (1) 21 (3) 41 47. (1) PQRS 48. (1) 88 (3) 47 49. (4) 131115 50. (3) 312 51. (4) adac 52. (4) 53. (1) 50775 54. (3) 6, 13, 14 55. (1) 5, 11, 3, 12 56. (3) 6, 12, 3, 11 57. (2) 58. (4) 59. (1) 60. (2) 4 hrs 61. (3) 24 62. (1) 8 63. (3) 220 64. (3) 576 65. (4) 21 66. (4) 5 km 67. (2) Wednesday (4) Tuesday 68. (3) 11 69. (1) 48 (2) 50 70. (2) 244 71. (3) 72. (4) 73. (2) 74. (1) 75. (3) hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern le =lee rÙe Yee<ee Je ye ge fæceòee ÛeeÛeCee r (Third Language & Intelligence Test) Answerkey (SDA-P-II-0112)

(4) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (3) mekeâeU 2. (1) metÙee&Ûes 3. (3) megiebOe hemejefJeCÙeeÛes 4. (4) DeeefÕeve 5. (2) heeÛe 6. (3) Meejoe 7. (1) heCe, mebkeâuhe (3) yeeCe, Metj 8. (4) efvee f§ele 9. (3) veefMeyeJeeve (4) heeje rleesef<ekeâ 10. (1) Ûeej 11. (2) jeceyeeCe 12. (2) menermeueecele mees[ues 13. (1) npeerj lees Jepeerj 14. (4) peceeKeÛe& 15. (3) heJe&le, Jemlet 16. (2) F& 17. (4) mebyebOe 18. (1) Yeue s 19. (2) lee rve 20. (3) hegefuue bie 21. (4) efoJeme 22. (2) Ûeej (4) lee rve 23. (1) [esuele Deens (3) [esuele Demelees 24. (4) Deelceejece jeJepeer osMeheeb[s 25. (3) keâce&Jeerj - OeeW[es kesâMeJe keâJex 26. (2) T 27. (1) Rome 28. (4) 29. (4) 30. (3) 5549 31. (1) CO 32. (1) 3 : 4 33. (1) 9 (2) 3 34. (4) 13 35. (3) Mangala Gokhale 36. (3) 37. (1) 177 (3) 173 38. (4) 28 39. (2) X L (3) N G 40. (4) 15 41. (1) 16 42. (3) 21 43. (2) 27 44. (1) Saturday 45. (1) 4 46. (4) 48 47. (2) 54 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (4) FDB 51. (1) South East 52. (4) 1300 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (3) 56. (2) ‘C’ and ‘D’ both false 57. (4) bpdpd 58. (3) 59. (1) 4396 60. (3) vkhmc 61. (2) p-r-t-15-10 62. (1) d-n-p-13-r 63. (3) 8 64. (3) 22, 25, 1 65. (1) LN (2) GS 66. (4) A person who is very sensible 67. (1) 96 (4) 81 68. (2) 69. (3) Listen 70. (3) CUUVTD 71. (1) 72. (2) 73. (2) 74. (1) 75. (2) hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern le =lee rÙe Yee<ee Je ye ge fæceòee ÛeeÛeCee r (Third Language & Intelligence Test) Answerkey (SDA-P-II-0113)

(5) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (4) {ie 2. (4) ceeÙee ueeJeCes 3. (2) keâenerpeCe heekeâUŸee ceespeleele (4) Jeeje ieeYeeNÙeeleerue efoJee efJePeJeleesÙe 4. (2) MegYeü heesMeeKe efceUeuÙeecegUs 5. (3) ogheej 6. (4) Ûeej 7. (3) ohe &Ce 8. (2) Ghekeâej ² hejeshekeâej 9. (2) heeefjleesef<ekeâ 10. (4) mene 11. (2) Meenerj 12. (1) keâeveceb$e osCes 13. (3) ve 14. (4) ef"keâeCee 15. (3) [d 16. (1) IeeJe- peKece, DeeIeele (3) Yeej- Jepeve, mecegoeÙe 17. (4) peer 18. (2) lee rve 19. (2) veheg bmekeâefuebie 20. (1) GYeÙeJeÛeve 21. (2) ! 22. (2) meJe&veece ns veeceeSsJepeer Ùesles (4) veece vemesue lej meJe&veeceeuee mJele:Ûee DeLe& vemelees 23. (1) lespeme megškesâÛee efve:MJeeme šekeâlees 24. (4) ieeWoCe 25. (2) keâNnsÛes heeCeer - vee.mees. Heâ[kesâ 26. (3) 5, 2, 1 27. (2) F, X (3) J, T 28. (1) Six 29. (3) 2 30. (2) IEFG 31. (4) None of the above 32. (1) 21st from right (4) 5th from right 33. (3) 115 (4) 94 34. (1) Sunday, 10th April 35. (4) 14 36. (2) 21 37. (1) UTU 38. (4) 1, 5, 7 39. (3) 40. (1) Features (3) Properties 41. (3) NaCl 42. (1) 360 (4) 72 43. (2) KMO 44. (3) 45. (2) 29 22 24 (4) 16 31 12 46. (1) 31 21 47. (2) 23 16 48. (4) Harshal 49. (3) EETTH 50. (2) 3.00 p.m 51. (2) 52. (3) 33 53. (4) 178 54. (3) 55. (3) MR 56. (1) 889 57. (4) 58. (4) North-West 59. (2) B 60. (4) 61. (1) 62. (2) Cloth-clothe 63. (4) 627 64. (3) U.S.A.-New York 65. (2) RVY 66. (1) 67. (4) and 68. (1) 34 69. (3) C 70. (4) N 71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (1) 74. (2) 75. (3) hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern le =lee rÙe Yee<ee Je ye ge fæceòee ÛeeÛeCee r (Third Language & Intelligence Test) Answerkey (SDA-P-II-0114)

(6) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (3) Øeleerkeâ 2. (1) ieerleeF& - Jeso JÙeeme (3) ieerlejeceeÙeCe - megOeerj Heâ[kesâ 3. (1) jJe (2) Úbo 4. (3) DeeefLe&keâ 5. (2) efve:he#eheeleerheCee 6. (2) hewMeebveer megKe efceUJelee Ùesles 7. (1) Jeeje 8. (3) efnjJee 9. (4) ceveele keâesCeleerner DeeMee Oe¤ veÙes 10. (2) Deeme ueeieCes - og:Ke nesCes 11. (1) iejpe mejes JewÅe cejes 12. (3) Dee%ee 13. (1) meg° 14. (1) peeJetve (3) keäJeefÛelÙe 15. (1) lesje 16. (3) heg®<eJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece 17. (2) Deyeye 18. (2) veJeekeâe sje 19. (4) efJeÉeve - efJeog<eer 20. (2) Oeej - Oeej s 21. (3) Deeuee skeâ cnCeeuee, ‘‘DeeF &, SJe{ŸeeMee hewMeeveb efleÛeb keâmeb Yeeiesue? efleuee DeeCeKeer hewmes ÅeeÙeuee nJesle.’’ 22. (4) OeeJele Demes 23. (2) kesâMeJemegle 24. (3) len 25. (3) jescen<e&keâ 26. (2) Seven 27. (4) 2 28. (2) second, third 29. (1) K 30. (1) FL (4) OC 31. (4) Ghost 32. (2) Malaria 33. (3) 34. (3) 150 35. (2) EJ 36. (4) Ideal 37. (3) 38. (2) 102 (4) 84 39. (3) 140 40. (1) DKR 41. (2) 320 42. (4) 43. (2) 44. (4) QW 45. (1) UJE 46. (3) 76 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (1) 50. (4) 40 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (2) 13 54. (3) more by two 55. (1) Sunday (4) Monday 56. (2) East 57. (4) 21 58. (1) 15 59. (2) 16 60. (4) 30 61. (1) 13 years 62. (3) 30 minutes past three (4) 30 minutes past eight 63. (4) 64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (3) 26, 20, 15 67. (2) 31, 22, 39 (4) 21, 34, 15 68. (3) 39 69. (4) c b c 70. (1) 71. (3) 5 6 5 6 72. (3) 8 73. (4) 147 74. (2) 3 75. (2) 41 (3) 79 hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern le =lee rÙe Yee<ee Je ye ge fæceòee ÛeeÛeCee r (Third Language & Intelligence Test) Answerkey (SDA-P-II-0115)

(7) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (2) neleheeÙe Pee[Ces 2. (1) ‘De’, ‘ye’, ‘keâ’ DeeefCe ‘[’ yejesyej 3. (3) GlmHetâle& 4. (2) ceevme tveÛes (4) heeJemeeUŸeeÛes 5. (4) hepe&vÙeeÛeer 6. (1) peueOeeje 7. (1) meveF& 8. (2) ceeieCeer ² hegjJe"e 9. (1) heeÛe 10. (1) heej bheefjkeâ (3) heengCeÛeej 11. (1) DebieeF&ieerle 12. (2) Deevebefole nesCes 13. (3) veeÛelee ÙesF&vee DebieCe Jeekeâ[s 14. (1) keâes[ 15. (3) efMe#eCe 16. (4) veT 17. (2) Fceejle 18. (4) ‘De’ DeeefCe ‘ye’ yejesyej 19. (1) lee rve 20. (3) keâeše 21. (1) nmle-nmles 22. (2) GodieejefÛevn 23. (1) ieeJekeâjer cebefojele yeesuele nesles (3) ieeJekeâjer cebefojele yeesueues 24. (1) DeeYeeUeÛeer Deecner ueskeâj s 25. (4) heejJee 26. (4) Wheat 27. (3) 28. (4) 126 29. (2) 49 75 30. (2) AU (3) RX 31. (3) 32. (4) 441 37 33. (2) 252 34. (1) 35. (4) 20 years 36. (2) 5 37. (1) Brother 38. (2) Y (3) A 39. (1) 892 40. (3) 240 41. (4) 42. (4) 43. (2) 49 44. (3) in vain (4) to try hard 45. (1) 3 46. (4) Shakespeare 47. (3) Friday 48. (2) Cotton textile industry (4) Iron and steel industry 49. (4) Arena 50. (4) 117 51. (4) E 52. (3) 53. (4) 21 54. (1) 38 55. (3) 7 56. (2) 342 57. (2) (4) 58. (1) SBU 59. (2) QR 60. (1) 61. (2) 14 62. (4) 192 63. (3) N W V M 64. (1) 65. (2) 6 2 3 66. (4) 67. (1) 68. (4) 304554 69. (2) 695972 70. (3) 252428 71. (1) 71 72. (3) Q 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (2) hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern le =lee rÙe Yee<ee Je ye ge fæceòee ÛeeÛeCee r (Third Language & Intelligence Test) Answerkey (SDA-P-II-0116)

(8) P.T.O. SDA Publication 1. (1) uee skeâceevÙe 2. (1) ieCe sMeeslmeJe (3) efMeJepeÙebleer 3. (1) kesâmejer 4. (4) meeves ieg®peer 5. (1) lee rve 6. (4) mJejepe DeepeÛe ieeJeer iesuee. 7. (3) ÙeeoJeer 8. (3) 1-keâ, 2-De, 3-ye 9. (2) yeeuekeâJeer 10. (3) Deecner ie[eJej Ûe{uees neslees 11. (1) efJeMes<eCe (4) meJe&veece 12. (4) HeâjHeâš nesCes 13. (4) yeemejerÛee 14. (2) Úesšer-Úesšer Jeemejs efnjJeUerJej yeeie[le Deensle 15. (3) oJeefyebotÛes [tue 16. (3) mejoej 17. (1) YeeJe-yebOet, JepeveeÛes pe[ 18. (4) heeÛe 19. (2) ßece-efJeßeece (4) ueuevee-Ûeheuee 20. (3) lee rve 21. (1) «eeceerCe 22. (2) efJeOegj-efJeog<eer 23. (4) HegâšeCes 24. (2) Yejle ceuee cnCelees, ‘‘yeeF&, ne ceebpeje bÛee efJeYeeie yeIeeÙeÛeeÙe?’’ 25. (4) neleÛÙee ke bâkeâCeeuee Deejmee keâMeeuee 26. (4) 27. (3) n n e 28. (1) 7 2 5 29. (1) Good health is the real wealth. (2) Good health is equally important as wealth. 30. (3) 23 years 31. (3) niece 32. (2) 10 33. (1) 10.25 m 34. (3) 35. (4) 12 36. (2) 19 37. (1) 60% 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (1) 161 (3) 85 41. (1) Ag 42. (3) Stem 43. (1) 44. (2) R (4) J 45. (3) 594 46. (4) SAID 47. (1) RFI 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (4) Saturday 51. (3) 7 52. (3) 21, 7, 12, 25 53. (2) dull 54. (4) Sweet Potato 55. (2) 143 56. (1) SUW 57. (2) 58. (4) 2 59. (1) 73 (4) 10 60. (2) 61. (4) 135 62. (1) 150 63. (2) + 64. (4) KF 65. (1) 66. (3) 32 (4) 42 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (1) 11th Position 70. (4) Y 71. (1) 8 72. (3) 24 73. (2) 24133539 74. (4) 35, 21 75. (2) 243621 (3) 292332 hetJe& ceeOÙeefcekeâ efMe<ÙeJe=òeer hejer#ee (F.8 Jeer) (ceeOÙece: F b«epeer) SDA Pattern le =lee rÙe Yee<ee Je ye ge fæceòee ÛeeÛeCee r (Third Language & Intelligence Test) Answerkey (SDA-P-II-0117)