MUET_MODULE

MALAYSIAN UNIVERSITY ENGLISH TEST IPGM MUET MODULE INSTITUT PENDIDIKAN GURU KEMENTERIAN PENDIDIKAN MALAYSIA ARAS 1, ENTERPRISE BUILDING 3, BLOK 2200, PERSIARAN APEC, CYBER 6, 63000 CYBERJAYA A-PDF Merger DEMO : Purchase from www.A-PDF.com to remove the watermark

MUET structure i MUET Test Scores ii 800/1 LISTENING Tips for listening Practice 1 Practice 2 Practice 3 Practice 4 Practice 5 Practice 6 Practice 7 Practice 8 Practice 9 800/2 SPEAKING Tips for speaking Practice 1 Practice 2 Practice 3 Practice 4 Practice 5 Practice 6 Practice 7 Practice 8 Practice 9 Practice 10 800/3 READING Tips for reading Practice 1 Practice 2 Practice 3 Practice 4 Practice 5 Practice 6 Practice 7 Practice 8 2 4 7 10 13 16 19 22 25 28 32 35 39 43 47 51 55 59 63 67 71 76 78 94 110 126 141 161 180 199 CONTENT PAGE

800/4 WRITING Tips for writing question 1 Practice 1 Practice 2 Practice 3 Practice 4 Practice 5 Practice 6 Practice 7 Practice 8 Tips for writing question 2 Practice 1 – 20 References Panel of Writers 220 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 237 239 240

i Structure of the MUET paper (MALAYSIAN UNIVERSITY ENGLISH TEST) The MUET Paper tests all the four language skills. Candidates for the MUET exam are required to sit for all four papers. The structures of the papers are presented below. LISTENING SPEAKING READING WRITING Paper code 800/1 800/2 800/3 800/4 Time 30 minutes 30 minutes 90 minutes 90 minutes Weighting (%) 15 15 40 30 Maximum score 45 45 120 90 Number of texts/tasks 5 texts 2 tasks 6 texts 2 tasks No of questions 20 2 45 2 Question type Information transfer Short-answer questions Multiple choice – 3 or 4 option Multiple choice questions passages least one text with graphic Transfer of information from a non-linear source to a linear text (150 - 200 words) Extended writing (350 words) Genre/topics Lecture, briefing, talk, discussion, interview, news, telephone, conversation, announcement, instructions, advertisement, meeting, documentary Contemporary issues Articles from journals, magazines, newspapers, academic texts, electronic texts Report, article, letter, essay

ii MUET TEST SCORES Description of Aggregated Scores Aggregated Score Band User Communicative Ability Comprehension Task Performance 260 - 300 6 Highly proficient user Very fluent; highly appropriate use of language; hardly any grammatical error Very good understanding of language and context Very high ability to function in the language 220 - 259 5 Proficient user Fluent; appropriate use of language; few grammatical errors Good understanding of language and context High ability to function in the language 180 - 219 4 Satisfactory user Generally fluent; generally appropriate use of language; some grammatical errors Satisfactory understanding of language and context Satisfactory ability to function in the language 140 - 179 3 Modest user Fairly fluent; fairly appropriate use of language; many grammatical errors Fair understanding of language and context Fair ability to function in the language 100 – 139 2 Limited user Not fluent; inappropriate use of language; very frequent grammatical errors Limited understanding of language and context Limited ability to function in the language Below 100 1 Very limited user Hardly able to use the language Very limited understanding of language and context Very limited ability to function in the language Note: MUET exam will be held three times a year – in March, July and November.

1 800/1 LISTENING

2 LISTENING SKILLS Paper 1 of the MUET exam consists of three parts, Part I, Part II and Part III. Parts I and II have one listening text each. Part III has three short texts. Candidates must answer 20 questions in the form of short answer, information transfer and multiple-choice questions. Candidates will listen to each recording twice. First, students will be given one minute to read the question. Then, the listening text will be played for the first time. Students are required to either mark or write their answers while listening to the text or after it is finished. The listening text will be played for a second time and students are encouraged to check their answers then. TIPS FOR LISTENING STEP 1 STEP 2 STEP 3 DO’S AND DON’TS Concentrate and listen actively Read and listen to the instructions Read ahead to be prepared You the words that you hear in your answers Use the pause to check your answers Get distracted Spend too much time on one question Panic if you miss a question – continue with the next question and go back to the missed question later Leave any answer blank PRE LISTENING – Get overview of the text Read all the questions and the answer options carefully Underline the key words in the questions so that you know what to listen for later on e. g: What is the main benefit of writing a will FIRST LISTENING – Listen for specific information Listen actively for the required information (refer to the underlined key words in Step 1) Write down important notes SECOND LISTENING – Get missing information/ answers Get any missing information Check answers Don’t Do

3 TIPS A. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS What you should do 1. Skim through all the questions and the answers options to get a general idea of the text that you are going to listen. 2. Underline the key words in the questions so that you know what to listen for later on. 3. While listening, pay attention to the content and the flow of information delivered by the speaker(s). Remember that usually the questions in Part I (Information Transfer) follow the order of information in the recording. 4. Write down important points or idea/write down your answers. 5. During the second listening, get the information that you missed out. Check your answers too. 6. Make a final check. Check for spelling and grammar. Make sure your answers follow the word limit. B. MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS What you should do Skim through all the questions and the answer options to get a general idea of the text that you are going to listen. Underline the key words in the questions so that you know what to listen for later on. Listen for the specific information. Pay attention to the content and the flow of information delivered by the speaker(s). Check each possible option given carefully. Remember some of the most likely answers maybe paraphrased. You may find that some of the vocabulary given in the options is in the text. Choose the most suitable answer/response to the question.

4 PRACTICE 1 Part I (8 marks) For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1 Employers prefer confident people because they _____________________________ 2 Self-confidence can be lost due to one’s ____________________________________ 3 The speaker thinks that confidence levels can _______________________________ For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. How to Become a More Confident Person Main point One example Accept yourself as you are Know your strengths and limitations 4 __________________________ __________________________ Believe in yourself Reduce uncertainty 5 _________________________ __________________________ 6 ________________________ ____________________________ Stay away from negative people

5 For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer. 7 The last tip on confidence given by the speaker is to A. ooze charm B. increase work success C. pretend to be confident 8 A person with high self-esteem is likely to be A. brave B. appealing C. hardworking Part II (6 marks) For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from the box below to complete each sentence. 9 The interviewer assumes that the counsellor’s clients ______________________ 10 Some students who have problems socializing ____________________________ For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer. 11 A good approach in counseling is to A. make an early judgment B. empathise with the client C. become the client’s friend A just want to listen B do not really have problems C need to empathise D come to learn social skills E put the blame on others F make poor choices

6 12 From the interview, we can infer that the counselor A. finds her job stressful B. is an emotional person C. has to constantly monitor herself 13 The counselor said that she would quit her job if she A. was offered a job by “Befrienders” B. could not solve her own psychological problems C. could not separate herself from her students’ problems 14 The interviewer concluded that a counsellor’s job is A. difficult B. rewarding C. time-consuming Part III (6 marks) For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. 15 The production, transportation and disposal of plastic bottles result in _________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 16 Flash floods are the result of drains being _______________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 17 Mammoths did not live on ice glaciers because they had to _________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 18 One reason mammoths became extinct is because of ______________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 19 Buses and taxis are at fault for holding up traffic because they do not wait ______________ _________________________________________________________________________ 20 The speaker thinks that there are enough parking spaces if only the motorists were willing to _______________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

7 PRACTICE 2 PART I (8 marks) For questions 1 to 2, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1 The original idea of cheerleading was to _________________________________________ 2 When cheerleading first started, the members were ________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ For questions 3 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Development of Cheerleading Early Phase of Cheerleading 3 Started ____________________________ 4 Squad members created ______________________________________ 5 _______________________________ to make cheerleading louder. 6 Competitive sport involving __________________________________ Creativity in Cheerleading Technology in Cheerleading Current Phase of Cheerleading

8 For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer. 7 As cheerleading developed, it became A. noisier but striking B. cheaper but entertaining C. more complex but dangerous 8 At the end of the talk, the speaker advises parents to be A. cautious B. encouraging C. co-operative PART II (6 marks) For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from box below to complete each sentence. 9 The field of study that has given Dr. Linda an advantage trainer is _________________ 10 Dr. Linda’s interest in intercultural studies stems from her background in ___________ For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer. 11 Dr. Linda’s job is to develop employees A. facilitating skills B. material designing skills C. general management skills 12 Dr. Linda normally does a needs-analysis in order to A. search for materials B. assess the participants’ knowledge C. find out the subject areas to be included A Anthropology B Education C Counselling D Intercultural studies E Research F Management

9 13 Compared to Malaysians, Americans are A. proud B. assertive C. intimidating 14 To work together, Malaysians try to establish A. an open relationship B. a friendly relationship C. a challenging relationship PART III (6 marks) For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. 15 The two diseases that are increasing among young adults are _______________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 16 According to the study, most of the foods consumed by young adults are unhealthy because these foods are _____________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 17 Banks are reducing costs by __________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 18 A drop in car sales will affect salesmen and ______________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 19 People tend to be the happiest when ___________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 20 Stress and relaxation levels experienced during holidays influence ____________________ _________________________________________________________________________

10 PRACTICE 3 PART I (8 marks) For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1 Customers are sometimes unhappy with the product they have bought because it is __________________________________________________________________________________ 2 In the past, dissatisfied customers complained by writing letters ______________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 3 The social media can harm the business because it ________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. How Dissatisfied Customers React For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer. 7 Word-of-mouth complaints have the most impact since A. many people are informed about these complaints B. these complaints are from familiar and trusted source C. customers made these complaints on a face-to-face basis 4 ____________________________ _____________________________ Stop buying the product 6 ___________________________ _____________________________ 5 ___________________________ _____________________________

11 8 The stores can benefit if customers complain to them directly because A. they can bring more customers B. they have a chance to remedy the situation C. fewer people will know about the problem PART II (6 marks) For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from box below to complete each sentence. 9 Hospitals are concern that pets’ fleas and bugs might ______________________________ 10 If a patient is allowed to receive visits from his pet, an anaconda or a monkey, his pet could _________________________________________________________________________ For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer. 11 Cats and dogs are allowed to visit A. with other people apart from their owners B. when they have the consent from all parties C. because they have proof of rabies vaccination 12 The following are true except A. more patients are considering having pets B. hospitals have benefited from visits by pet C. this policy allows visits only from certain pets 13 Having an enhanced emotional well-being would A. allow young patients to play with their pets B. increase patients’ chances of recovery from illness C. encourage terminally ill patients to say a final goodbye A cause fear B create havoc C create doubt D cause infection E cause discomfort F cause destruction

12 14 Which of the following statements summarizes the speaker’s feeling at the end? A. He feels that everyone concerned can benefit from pet visits B. He feels that times have changed, and hospitals have not done so C. He feels that in future, animals like fathers, can enter delivery rooms PART III (6 marks) For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. 15 Tanjung Piai is best known for _________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 16 Visitors are attracted to the park by the __________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 17 The speaker says that applying for a scholarship can be ____________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 18 It is recommended that someone else can help to proofread your application to ensure that _________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 19 The construction worker’s head was ____________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 20 The incident was described as a miracle because _________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________

13 PRACTICE 4 PART I (8 marks) For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1 Organizing a study group can help you to ________________________________________ 2 Effective study groups differ from casual discussion groups in their membership and ______ _________________________________________________________________________ 3 In an effective study group, the selected members should be ________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Preparation for First Study Group Meeting STEP I Decide on goals STEP 2 4 Determine_______________________________________ of meeting. STEP 4 5 Identify __________________________________________ STEP 7 Hold the meeting STEP 6 6 Give ________________________________________ STEP 5 Prepare an agenda STEP 3 Circulate contact details

14 For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer. 7 The speaker thinks a study group meeting should be run like A. company meetings B. informal gatherings C. academic discussions 8 To obtain maximum success from study groups A. invite only members who have reasons B. include friends as members of the group C. limit the number of members in the group PART II (6 marks) For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from box below to complete each sentence. 9 Generally, coconut water ________________________________________________ 10 Coconut water from nuts that are younger than five months _______________________ For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer. 11 The taste of coconut water may be different according to A. the age of the tree B. the size of the nut C. the place the tree is planted A is better than taking plain water B improves health C wards off the build up of cholesterol D has potential as a sports drink E gives a bitter taste F helps to promote tourism

15 12 Which of the following properties of coconut water will help blood circulation? A. 46 calories B. High fat content C. Fibre and protein 13 In cosmetics, coconut water can A. prevent acne B. moistures the skin C. replace shower gel 14 At the end of the talk, the speaker cautions listeners against A. consuming too much coconut water B. drinking coconut water during pregnancy C. confusing coconut water with coconut milk PART III (6 marks) For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. 15 It is hard to believe that people ________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 16 The gastroenterologist had to use special tools ___________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 17 The object in the photograph taken by NASA’s space vehicle seems to be ______________ _________________________________________________________________________ 18 The mission of the space vehicle is expected to complete ___________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 19 Red-coloured sports clothing symbolises ________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 20 The study at Sunderland University found that men with ____________________________ _____________________________ are more likely to choose red instead of other colours.

16 PRACTICE 5 Part I (8 marks) For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1 “Help Yourself to Health” is the name of a ________________________________________ 2 Dr Rodiah is a ________________________________________________________ at the National Health Institute. 3 The topic discussed the week before was the _____________________________________ For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS Outline of the Radio Programme I – Introductory Remarks II – Topics to be Discussed 4 _________________________________ Ways to reduce sugar in our diet III – Consumption of Sugar 1970: 17 teaspoons of sugar daily 5 Now: __________________________ IV – Types of Sugar Visible Sugar 6 _______________________________ V – Examples of Food and Drinks Containing Sugar For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer. 7 Most people are unaware they consume too much sugar because they A. think only of visible sugar B. consume only seven to ten teaspoons of sugar C. follow recommendations by health professionals

17 8 With reference to the talk, which of the following is not an example of ‘hidden sugar’? A. Coffee B. Soy sauce C. Chilli sauce Part II (6 marks) For questions 9 and 10, complete the sentence using the letters A to F from the box below. A 1ͳ ʹ ⁄ B 2 C 4 D 17 E 18 F 20 The human brain weighs about 9 ____________ kilogrammes and uses 10 _____________ per cent of the body’s blood. For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer. 11 Smart people may be called “bright sparks” because they think more and ________than other people. A. sleep less B. use more energy C. produce more energy 12 Humans are born with a brain which A. always remembers B. is in excellent condition C. creates new connection while they think

18 13 The third suggestion given by the speaker to train the brain is to A. read B. watch television C. exercise regularly 14 Training the brain through learning new skills can be achieved by memorising A. lyrics B. shopping list C. phone numbers Part III (6 marks) For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. 15 One reason for setting up a history gallery is to encourage students to _________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 16 Displays of photos, films and other materials would help to show _____________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 17 The main purpose of the consumers’ squad is to __________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 18 Members of the squad receive a free membership card that _________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 19 The speaker wants listeners to ________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 20 One advantage LEDs have over ordinary bulbs is they _____________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

19 PRACTICE 6 PART I (8 marks) For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1 In the past, people stayed in one job until they retired because there were _______________ __________________________________________________________________________ Two reasons why people switch jobs are: 2 __________________________________________________________________________ 3 __________________________________________________________________________ For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Advice on Choosing a Job For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer. 7 Employers may think that job-hoppers A. are difficult to train B. have personality problems C. lack necessary qualifications 8 The audience for this talk is probably made up of A. students B. employees C. job-hoppers Do’s Choose each job carefully. 4 ________________________________ _________________________________ 5_________________________________ _________________________________ Dont’s Look at the salary alone 6. _____________________________________ _____________________________________

20 PART II (6 marks) For question 9, circle the correct answer. 9 The earliest flag was first found in A. Egypt B. Persia C. Greece For questions 10 and 11, choose one letter A to F from the box below to complete each sentence. 10 In the past, flags were used in battles to _____________________________________ 11 Upon entering any port, ships are required to fly a flag to ________________________ For questions 12 to 14, circle the correct answer. 12 The flag used before 1949 had A. a tiger in the middle B. blue and white stripes C. a white star and a white moon 13 The Malayan flag was first used in A. 1950 B. 1957 C. 1963 A symbolise a country B guide soldiers C indicate the final destination D show control over a country E show the country of origin F show ownership

21 14 The inclusion of Sabah, Sarawak and the Federal Territory in the Malaysian flag was indicated in the change of A. colour of the moon B. colour of the stripes C. number of points in the star PART III (6 marks) For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. 15 One reason for the increased demand for fish in Malaysians is _______________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 16 The demand for high quality fresh fish comes from ________________________________ 17 Other than at the workplace, the speaker thinks the ‘rat race’ can also be applied to the _________________________________________________________________________ 18 With regards to the invention of new gadgets, the speaker hopes _____________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 19 _____________________________________________________ is one example of how ants use swarm intelligence. 20 One basic rule fish and birds follow is: __________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

22 PRACTICE 7 PART 1 (8 marks) For questions 1 to 2, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1 The seriousness of the food problem is shown by the statistics that a billion people suffer from _______________________________________________________________ 2 The speaker finds it strange that some people in the world are starving while other people suffer from ________________________________________________________________ For questions 3 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Reasons for the food problem For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer. 7. The following are measures to reduce food wastage at restaurants except A. on the spot cooking B. serving only adequate amounts at buffets C. limiting the number of reservations obtained 8. In general, the speaker feels _________________ about the world’s food situation. A. sad B. helpless C. concerned Increased demand for food due to: Growing population 3_____________________________ Production of fuel for cars Increased demand for food due to: 4____________________________ Cropland used for settlements 5____________________________ 6____________________________

23 Part II (6 marks) For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from the box below to complete the sentence. The discussion initially focused on a patient suffering from 9 ____________________ which was accompanied by 10 ______________________. For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer. 11 According to Puan Siti, the disabled would come to her centre when A. they accept their disability B. they are able to work again C. they can get to the centre easily 12 The parking incident narrated by Mr. Rajan illustrates A. the lack of public consideration for the disabled B. the high number of the disabled who drive C. the varied amenities for the disable 13 Mr Rajan expressed his unhappiness about the authorities not A. listening to experts B. gathering enough feedback C. having adequate monitoring 14 Dr Lee hopes that more money could be given A. to care for the disabled B. to improve amenities for the disabled C. to provide medical aid for the disabled A paralysis B a disease C coordination problems D blindness E deafness F depression

24 PART III (6 marks) For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS 15 The kite festivals have attracted both ___________________________________________ participants. 16 Apart from watching the kites being flown, visitors can also _________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 17 Apart from the natural urge to suck, most babies suck their thumbs because _________________________________________________________________________ 18 Children who suck their thumbs after the age of five, may develop ____________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 19 Serious injuries occur in judo because students __________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 20 The talk deals mainly with ___________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________

25 PRACTICE 8 Part I (8 marks) For questions 1 and 2, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1 Miss Chan’s talk can be described as interesting and _______________________________ __________________________________________________________________________ 2 Harun was surprised how much money _______________________________________ by the hospitality industry. For questions 3 to 6, write you answer NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Customer Service 3 ___________________________ Regular customers Chance customers 4 ___________________ ____________________ 5 _____________ ______________ ______________ ______________ Know their needs Attract their attention 6 ________________ _________________ _________________ _________________ Differentiate between local and foreign customers

26 For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer. 7 Harun’s uncle who works on a cruise liner is likely to A. look for another job B. have many girlfriends C. make longer land visits 8 Alvin cannot find a job because A. he has yet to finish his training B. there are few vacancies for pilots C. the hospitality industry is saturated Part II (6 marks) For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from the box below to complete each sentence. 9 In the past, scientists knew that laughter was able to _______________________________ 10 Recent research has shown that laughter protects us against infections because it could ______________________________ For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer. 11 The speaker says we laugh when A. someone laughs spontaneously B. our funnybone is disturbed C. things are in our favour A reduce the need for health supplements B increase happiness C relieve pain and aid digestion D reduce stress E relax muscles F improve the immune system

27 12 Endorphin is a brain chemical that A. makes us feel relaxed B. stimulates our emotions C. helps recall fond memories 13 When one is sad, one should try A. “silent laughter” B. “hearty laughter” C. “humming laughter” 14 The talk is about A. the best way to stimulate laughter B. how to use laughter to stay healthy C. the difference between real and fake laughter Part III (6 marks) For questions 15 to 20, write your answers in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS 15 The competition requires teams to recognize _____________________________________ in the time given. 16 The main purpose of the Fraser’s Hill International Bird Park is not to win but to encourage _________________________________________________________________________ 17 The main reason for the increased cost of electricity is the ___________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 18 One alternative source of energy mentioned is from ________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 19 The speaker says the negative side of advertising is that ____________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 20 The example of the cell phone shows that advertisements can _______________________ __________________________________________________________________________

28 PRACTICE 9 Part 1 (6 marks) For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1 A barcode scan sheet is used for items __________________________________________ 2 Compared to old-fashioned price tags, barcodes are better because they _______________ __________________________________________________________________________ 3 In a supermarket, when many items are purchased, scanning helps in _________________ __________________________________________________________________________ For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. How A Barcode Is Used For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer. 7 If a scanner fails to read the barcode, the cashier will A. print the items sold B. type in the numbers manually C. obtain the details of the purchase The scanner transfers information to a computer 5. The computer __________________________________________ The cashier scans the barcode 4. The scanner reads ______________________________________ The information appears on the screen 6. The cashier prints ______________________________________

29 8. The speaker’s intention is to A. discuss the benefits of barcodes B. compare barcodes with price tags C. promote the use of barcodes in shops Part II (6 marks) For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from the box below to complete each sentence 9 Staring at neon signs can cause _______________________________________________ 10 Intrusion of street lights into homes can lead to ___________________________________ For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer 11 According to Dr. Yeoh, the problem of excessive lighting in Malaysia is A. critical B. exaggerated C. under control 12 In what way are night hunters affected by artificial lights? A. They lose their way B. They lose their prey C. They lose their vision A headaches B temporary blindness C disorientation D fatigue E sleep disruption F anxiety

30 13 What is Dr. Yeoh’s recommendation? A. Countries should use less oil B. Countries should use less electricity C. Countries should use less artificial lights 14 Dr. Yeoh’s talk is mainly on A. the effects of excessive lighting B. the types of excessive lighting indoors C. the differences between interior and exterior lighting Part III (6 marks) For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS 15 Poorer health is experienced by those who commuted by car or public transport compared to those who ______________________________________________________________ 16 Drivers who commuted more than an hour had better health because they ______________ _________________________________________________________________________ 17 The risk of large earthquakes a century ago and today _____________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 18 Researchers in the University of California found that the earthquakes in South America and Japan ________________________________________________________________ 19 The news item is interesting because the couple __________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 20 The phrase ‘can’t stand the sight of each other’ means _____________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

31 800/2 SPEAKING

32 TIPS FOR SPEAKING Introduction The purpose of the Speaking Test (Paper 2) is to assess a candidate’s ability to converse in English naturally and fluently. This test consists of two parts, Part A and Part B. For the first part, each candidate is required to make an individual presentation. For the second part, the candidate is required to participate in a group discussion. Part A Candidates are given two minutes to prepare their points on a topic they are given. They are then given two minutes to make their oral presentation. Other candidates, who will be listening to the presentation, are required to make notes which they are to use for the group discussion in Part B. Helpful Tips Preparation Since the time for preparation is only two minutes, you need to think fast and make the best of the time given. Here are some strategies: When you are given the situation, read it carefully. Understand the tasks you are given. Think of at least three main points. Give plausible reasons and suggestions to support the main points. Jot down the points and then elaborate on them when you are presenting. You do not have time to write out the whole presentation. Part A How you say something is as important as what you say. Keep the following in mind: Speak clearly. Make sure you enunciate your words. Stress words in the right places. Speak in complete sentences. Although you should aim for grammatically correct sentences, do not sacrifice fluency for grammatical accuracy.

33 If you are stuck for words, try to express your ideas in simple sentences; otherwise move on to the next point. Present your points logically and systematically. For Task A, you have to make eye contact with the examiner to show that you are confident. For Task B, you should make eye contact with the other members of the group. Part B Candidates are divided into groups of four. Each candidate is given two minutes to prepare points either to support or oppose the points raised by the other three members of the group. The group is then given 10 minutes for their group discussion. The aim of this discussion is to arrive at a decision as to which argument, point of view, reasoning or suggestion is the best or most relevant for the given topic or stimulus. Helpful tips Part B You will need to familiarize yourself with language functions like turn-taking, asking for and giving information, making suggestions, giving reasons, giving opinions, persuading, drawing conclusions, agreeing and disagreeing, interrupting, managing a discussion etc. Listen to what the others are saying and make appropriate responses. Non-verbal communication cues are important. Nodding will show agreement. You need to cooperate with the other members of the group so that the discussion can be carried out smoothly. If member of a group is very quiet, ask relevant question to draw him into the discussion. This will help him to increase his/her confidence level. At the end of the discussion, the group must arrive at a definite conclusion/decision on the best solution or course of action to take.

34 More helpful tips. The diagram below illustrates a sample activity of the individual presentation and group interaction

35 PRACTICE 1 CANDIDATE A Instructions to candidates: This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B. Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions and the tasks given. Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare your response. You have two minutes to present your views. Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for the group interaction in Task B. Situation It is a dream of many Malaysian to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be achieved. Task A: You want to be the first Malaysian to go to the moon. Elaborate. Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion. You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A. In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views. At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision. You are given ten minutes for the discussion Situation It is a dream of many Malaysian to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be achieved. Task B: Discuss which of the following would be the greatest achievement for a Malaysian. (i) To go to the moon (ii) To win an Olympic gold medal (iii) To be a world-famous singer (iv) To be an internationally-known chef

36 PRACTICE 1 CANDIDATE B Instructions to candidates: This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B. Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions and the tasks given. Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare your response. You have two minutes to present your views. Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for the group interaction in Task B. Situation It is a dream of many Malaysians to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be achieved. Task A: You want to be the first Malaysian to win an Olympic gold medal. Elaborate. Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion. You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A. In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views. At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision. You are given ten minutes for the discussion. Situation It is a dream of many Malaysians to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be achieved. Task B: Discuss which of the following would be the greatest achievement for a Malaysian. (i) To go to the moon (ii) To win an Olympic gold medal (iii) To be a world-famous singer (iv) To be an internationally-known chef

37 PRACTICE 1 CANDIDATE C Instructions to candidates: This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B. Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions and the tasks given. Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare your response. You have two minutes to present your views. Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for the group interaction in Task B. Situation It is a dream of many Malaysians to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be achieved. Task A: You want to be the first Malaysian to be a world-famous singer. Elaborate. Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion. You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A. In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views. At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision. You are given ten minutes for the discussion. Situation It is a dream of many Malaysians to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be achieved. Task B: Discuss which of the following would be the greatest achievement for a Malaysian. (i) To go to the moon (ii) To win an Olympic gold medal (iii) To be a world-famous singer (iv) To be an internationally-known chef

38 PRACTICE 1 CANDIDATE D Instructions to candidates: This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B. Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions and the tasks given. Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare your response. You have two minutes to present your views. Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for the group interaction in Task B. Situation It is a dream of many Malaysians to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be achieved. Task A: You want to be the first Malaysian to be an internationally-known chef. Elaborate. Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion. You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A. In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views. At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision. You are given ten minutes for the discussion. Situation It is a dream of many Malaysians to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be achieved. Task B: Discuss which of the following would be the greatest achievement for a Malaysian. (i) To go to the moon (ii) To win an Olympic gold medal (iii) To be a world-famous singer (iv) To be an internationally-known chef

39 PRACTICE 2 CANDIDATE A Instructions to candidates: This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B. Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions and the tasks given. Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare your response. You have two minutes to present your views. Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for the group interaction in Task B. Situation In the event of an emergency, who would you contact? Task A: You would contact a family member. Why? Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion. You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A. In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views. At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision. You are given ten minutes for the discussion. Situation In the event of an emergency, who would you contact? Task B: Discuss which of the following should be the first to be contacted in an emergency. (i) A family member (ii) An emergency hotline (iii) A friend (iv) A neighbour

40 PRACTICE 2 CANDIDATE B Instructions to candidates: This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B. Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions and the tasks given. Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare your response. You have two minutes to present your views. Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for the group interaction in Task B. Situation In the event of an emergency, who would you contact? Task A: You would contact an emergency hotline. Why? Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion. You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A. In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views. At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision. You are given ten minutes for the discussion. Situation In the event of an emergency, who would you contact? Task B: Discuss which of the following should be the first to be contacted in an emergency. (i) A family member (ii) An emergency hotline (iii) A friend (iv) A neighbour

41 PRACTICE 2 CANDIDATE C Instructions to candidates: This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B. Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions and the tasks given. Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare your response. You have two minutes to present your views. Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for the group interaction in Task B. Situation In the event of an emergency, who would you contact? Task A: You would contact a friend. Why? Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion. You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A. In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views. At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision. You are given ten minutes for the discussion. Situation In the event of an emergency, who would you contact? Task B: Discuss which of the following should be the first to be contacted in an emergency. (i) A family member (ii) An emergency hotline (iii) A friend (iv) A neighbour

42 PRACTICE 2 CANDIDATE D Instructions to candidates: This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B. Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions and the tasks given. Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare your response. You have two minutes to present your views. Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for the group interaction in Task B. Situation In the event of an emergency, who would you contact? Task A: You would contact a neighbour. Why? Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion. You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A. In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views. At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision. You are given ten minutes for the discussion. Situation In the event of an emergency, who would you contact? Task B: Discuss which of the following should be the first to be contacted in an emergency. (i) A family member (ii) An emergency hotline (iii) A friend (iv) A neighbour

43 PRACTICE 3 CANDIDATE A Instructions to candidates: This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B. Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions and the tasks given. Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare your response. You have two minutes to present your views. Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for the group interaction in Task B. Situation You are planning to live on your own. How do you prepare yourself for this life? Task A: You have to learn how to manage your money. Why is this important? Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion. You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A. In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views. At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision. You are given ten minutes for the discussion. Situation You are planning to live on your own. How do you prepare yourself for this life? Task B: Discuss which of the following is the most important step to take to prepare yourself to live on your own. (i) Learn how to manage your money (ii) Learn how to cook (iii) Learn how to keep your home clean (iv) Learn how to manage your time

44 PRACTICE 3 CANDIDATE B Instructions to candidates: This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B. Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions and the tasks given. Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare your response. You have two minutes to present your views. Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for the group interaction in Task B. Situation You are planning to live on your own. How do you prepare yourself for this life? Task A: You have to learn how to cook. Why is this important? Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion. You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A. In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views. At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision. You are given ten minutes for the discussion. Situation You are planning to live on your own. How do you prepare yourself for this life? Task B: Discuss which of the following is the most important step to take to prepare yourself to live on your own. (i) Learn how to manage your money (ii) Learn how to cook (iii) Learn how to keep your home clean (iv) Learn how to manage your time

45 PRACTICE 3 CANDIDATE C Instructions to candidates: This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B. Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions and the tasks given. Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare your response. You have two minutes to present your views. Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for the group interaction in Task B. Situation You are planning to live on your own. How do you prepare yourself for this life? Task A: You have to learn how to keep your home clean. Why is this important? Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes) You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion. You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A. In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views. At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision. You are given ten minutes for the discussion. Situation You are planning to live on your own. How do you prepare yourself for this life? Task B: Discuss which of the following is the most important step to take to prepare yourself to live on your own. (i) Learn how to manage your money (ii) Learn how to cook (iii) Learn how to keep your home clean (iv) Learn how to manage your time