giao trinh 56

Look at the question and list of possible answers. Before you listen,
3.1

underline the key ideas you need to listen for.

What TWO disadvantages of the new mobile phone does the speaker
mention?

A. it isn’t very user-friendly
B. it is very expensive
C. it can’t take photographs
D. it has a short battery life
E. it is quite big

3.2 To help practise scanning a list, listen and put options A-E in the or-
der they are mentioned. Don’t answer the question yet. Remember,
the ideas will be paraphrased, so you may not hear the same words
you see in the options.

A it isn’t very user-friendly
B it is very expensive
C it can’t take photographs
D it has a short battery life
E it is quite big

3.3 Listen again and put a V or an X next to each option A-E,
depending on whether or not it matches the information in the
recording. Which TWO options are correct?

Test Tip
Make sure that you pay close attention to any negatives in the options, as
well as any adjectives. With matching or multiple choice tasks, pay care-
ful attention to the question, as well as the options. The question will tell
you how many answers you have to choose, as well as what you need to
listen for (e.g. problems, solutions, advantages. etc.)

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II. LISTENING SECTION 2: SOCIAL NEEDS – MONOLOGUE

Section 2 is a monologue relating to social needs and arrangements. It
is often based on a speaker giving information to an audience about the
practical arrangements for an event, or the facilities of an institution such
as a college or business hotel. The level of difficulty is slightly higher than
Section1. There are ten questions, and these may use any of the Listening
test formats. In Section2, you may have to listen to directions and identify
parts of a map, or listen to a description of a place and match parts of it
with locations on a map.

Directions and locations

1 For each sentence, choose the correct option. In some sentences,
both options are correct.

1. After about 20 metres, turn right in/into Hedge Street.
2. Then go straight on until you come/arrive to some traffic lights.
3. From the main entrance, go pass/past the ticket office and into
the café.
4. Walk down/along the corridor, all the way to the end.
5. Go up/down the stairs and when you get to the landing, you’ll see
a small door.
6. Goover/round the bridge and park wherever you can find a space.
7. Take a left turn at/on the corner of the street.
8. It only takes a few minutes to walk across/through the park.

Complete the sentences below with the words and phrases in the
2

box.

adjoining away enter via is divided into
leading from nearby runs along side
is on the far side
of

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1. Visitors can _____________________ the main gate or the side gate in
Easton Lane.
2. The path_____________________ the sports ground for about 100
metres.
3. The seating_________________ three zones.
4. There’s a picnic area _____________________ the main part of the
wildlife park.
5. The ticket office _____________________ the car park.
6. There’s a footpath _____________________ the water tower to the
barbecue area.
7. The information office is just a few metres _____________________ .
8. You can get a snack or cup of coffee in the café

Predicting and practising 3

Look at the map and the text that goes with it in the exam
1 question below.

● What do you know about holiday villages?
● What features do they tend to have?
● Where do they tend to be located?
● If you’ve never visited one, what do you imagine they are like?
● Can you guess what any parts of the map are?

2 (Audio 20) Listen to the recording and do the exam task.

Tip
The places on the map are numbered in the order that you hear them.
The lettered options do not necessarily use exactly the same words as
the recording. For example, parking area in the recording could be car
park on the page, or vice versa.

Questions 11–15
Look at the plan of the holiday village below. Choose FIVE answers among
those listed below and write the correct letter, A–F, next to questions 11–15.

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Tip
In the text-matching format, the questions are numbered in the order
you hear them, while the lettered options are in a different order. There
may be more options than you need, or you may need to use some of
them more than once. Read the options and try to remember as much
as you can about them before the recording starts.

A. Sea Breeze restaurant and bar
B. barbecue area
C. children’s play area
D. shop
E. main car park
F. overflow car park

Focus on formats 3: map labelling and matching
The map-labelling task format requires you to identify the parts of
the map by understanding a description of their locations. The parts
are numbered in the order that you will hear them in the recording. A
second type of map-labelling task requires you to identify places on a
map by following directions. The full-length Section 2 Listening test on
page 93 combines this type of map-labelling task with another form of
task based on matching: you have to match text with text.
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TEST 1
SECTION 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. Refreshments will be served
A. at the front counter.
B. in the lobby.
C. at the back of the hall.

12. Nick Noble advertised
A. on the radio.
B. on a billboard.
C. in the newspaper.

13. The original number of founding members was about
A. 12.
B. 20.
C. 200.

14. The club provides activities primarily for reasonably fit
A. males up to 75.
B. females with young children.
C. males and females of any age.

Questions 15-20
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

Activity Days Duration Contact person
15______________
Tuesday & about 3-5 hours Coordinator
16______________ Saturday
up to 3 hours 17______________
Wanderers Thursday &
19______________ Sunday 18______________ leader
Weekends
Sunday all weekend 20______________

Saturday &
Sunday

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TEST 2
SECTION 2: Question 11-20
Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Talk to new kitchen assistants
11. According to the manager, what do most people like about the job of
kitchen assistant?

A. the variety of work
B. the friendly atmosphere
C. the opportunities for promotion
12. The manager is concerned about some of the new staff’s
A. jewellery.
B. hair styles.
C. shoes.
13. The manager says that the day is likely to be busy for kitchen staff be-
cause
A. it is a public holiday.
B. the head chef is absent.
C. the restaurant is almost fully booked.
14. Only kitchen staff who are 18 or older are allowed to use
A. the waste disposal unit.
B. the electric mixer.
C. the meat slicer.

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Questions 15 and 16

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

According to the manager, which TWO things can make the job of kitch-
en assistant stressful?

A. They have to follow orders immediately.
B. The kitchen gets very hot.
C. They may not be able to take a break.
D. They have to do overtime.
E. The work is physically demanding

Questions 17-20
What is the responsibility of each of the following restaurant staff?
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next
to

Questions 17-20

Responsibilities
A training courses
B food stocks
C first aid
D breakages
E staff discounts
F timetables

Restaurant staff ______________
______________
17. Joy Parkins ______________
18. David Field ______________
19. Dexter Wills
20. Mike Smith

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TEST 3
SECTION 2: Questions 11-20
Questions 11-14

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. Most infants are hurt
A. at the supermarket.
B. at home.
C. in car accidents.

12. Children should learn good safety habits from
A. their pre-school teachers.
B. television programmes.
C. their parents.

13. Why are kitchens more dangerous for infants than adults?
A. They may get stood on.
B. They may get burnt.
C. They may cut themselves.

14. Poisons should never be kept
A. in glass drink bottles.
B. within reach of adults.
C. in their original containers.

Questions 15 and 16

Which TWO items of playground equipment pose the most danger for
children?

A. Roundabouts
B. Slides
C. Swings
D. Seesaw
E. Climbing frames

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Questions 17-20

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

17. If you are bathing the baby and the phone rings, what should you do?
_______________________________________________________________________
18. What can you install to stop a child from poking things into a power
point?
_______________________________________________________________________
19. Where should a parent go to smoke a cigarette?
_______________________________________________________________________
20. When can a parent leave a young child alone in a room with a heater?
_______________________________________________________________________

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LISTENING WEEK 4

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I. Places and directions

In this unit you will practise:
- understanding a description of a place
- following directions
- labelling a map

Test Tip
For labelling a map or plan in IELTS, you may need to follow directions,
or you may hear a description of a location.

1 Describing a place

For some questions in the Listening paper, you need to look
at a map of a place, or a plan of a building.

1.1 Look at drawings A-F and decide what the images are.

AD

BE

CF

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Test Tip
For labelling a map or plan in IELTS, you may need to follow directions,
or you may hear a description of a location.

1.2 Study the map in section 3.3 for 30 seconds.

1.3 Try to answer questions 1-4 without looking back at the map.

1. What is it a map of?
2. Name three landmarks on the map.
3. Where is the entrance?
4. What is in the centre of the map?
Features already on the map are often used as landmarks to help you find
your way.

1.4 (Audio 16) Listen to extracts from the four sections of the Listening
test. Complete the first column in the table by choosing the correct
letter (A, B or C).

landmark(s) locating words/
phrases

1 Where is the gift shop? lifts • The entrance is
________________
• Then go
________________
• The shop you want
is ________________
•_______________lifts

2 Where can you buy stamps? • In ____________
resort, you’ll see a
courtyard, you’ll find
a…
• It’s just __________
tree

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3 What is the proposed location • I was
of the new bridge? thinking of putting
it _______________
4 Where is the ideal habitat for • I Think it would
the Traviston Frog? be better if it’s
_______________
motorway

• ... it is unable to live
in __________ of a
pond
• . .. it does need to
live in __________ to
water
• ... in a tiny burrow
__________ bushes

Listen again and complete the table on the previous page. Write
1.5

down the landmarks mentioned and fill in the gaps in the phrases
that help you to locate the correct answer

Test Tip
You may need to follow directions to locate a place on the map or plan.
Marking the way directly on the map can be helpful.

2 Following directions

2.1 (Audio 17) Listen and decide which diagram ( A, B or C) shows the
directions described by the speaker.

Test Tip
The distractors for this type of task might be extra buildings marked on
the map, or they might be extra options in a list of possible answers.

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 113

Listen again and make a note of any words or phrases that are
2.2

used to give directions.

3 Labeling a map

Sometimes, a map completion task asks you to identify an area on a map
then choose an answer from a list. For this type of question, you need to
familiarise yourself with both the list of options and the features on the
map before you start.

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Test Tip
Before you listen, read the options several times so that you become
familiar with the information you need to listen for. Don’t cross out any
options unless you are sure they are wrong. If you can’t decide between
two answers, write both down and decide later.

Look at this map completion task. Which landmarks might be
3.1

used to help you to find your way around?

3.2 (Audio 18) Listen and label the map with the correct letter ( A-F).

3.3 Check your answers, then listen again.

Questions 1-4
Label the map below.
Choose the correct letter A-F and write the answers next to questions 1-4.

A. farm animal B. fresh bread C. ticket booth
D. picnic area
E. second-hand book stall F. cookery shows

Brookside Market

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II. Preparing to answer 2

Look very briefly at Questions 11-15 in the exam task below and answer
1 these questions.

a. Will the talk be about an event, a place or a building development?
b. Are there more options than questions, or vice versa?

2 Now look very briefly at Questions 16-20 and answer these questions.

a. Are there more options than questions, or vice versa?
b. What is the theme linking the questions?

3 (Audio 21) Now listen and do the exam task

Questions 11-15

Look at the plan of the boat show below. Write the correct letter, A-F, next
to questions 11-15.

11. electronic notice-board _______________
_______________
12. first-aid station _______________
_______________
13. food and drinks stall _______________

14. cash machines

15. equipment and supplies stands

Questions 16-20

What does the speaker say about the arrangements for this year’s show?
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 16-20.?

A. will cost more than last year Arrangements

B. will stay the same price 16. Paper tickets ________

C. will cost less than last year 17. Electronic tickets ________

18. Exhibiting at the show ________

19. The show brochure ________

20. The show shuttle bus ________

________
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III. Check and challenge

Writing and saying names, dates, times, numbers, etc.

Check:
1. Give three different ways to say the date of your birthday.
2. Give three different ways to write the date of your birthday.
3. Give three different ways to say the time it is right now.
4. Give three different ways to write the time it is right now.

Challenge: Working with a partner, dictate and write personal names,
place names, dates, times, phone numbers and other practical informa-
tion associated with Listening Section 1. How do the written forms relate
to the spoken forms?

The exam format

Check: Decide whether these statements about Listening Sections 1 and
2 are true (T) or false (F).
1. Section 1 is played twice.
2. Section 1 may feature one, two or three speakers.
3. Section 2 is played once.
4. Section 2 will probably seem a little more difficult than Section 1.
5. Instructions such as ‘Write no more than three words’ are a suggestion.
It doesn’t matter if you write more.
6. Section 2 always includes a map-labelling task.
7. In both Sections 1 and 2, you are given two pauses to read the questions.

Challenge: Use this book and other sources,such as the official IELTS
website (www.ielts.org), to make sure that you are really familiar with the
format of the exam,that you know exactly what to expect, and that you
know the requirements for each question format. Don’t lose points by
misunderstanding what you have to do!

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TEST 1

SECTION 2 Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD for each answer.

Fiddy Working Heritage Farm

Advice about visiting the farm
Visitors should
• take care not to harm any (11)____________
• not touch any (12)____________
• wear (13) _____________
• not bring (14)_____________ into the farm, with certain exceptions

Questions 15-20
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter A-l, next to Questions 15-20.

15. Scarecrow ________ 18. Black Barn ________
16. Maze ________
17. Cafe ________ 19. Covered picnic area ________

20. Fiddy House ________

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TEST 2

SECTION 2. Questions 11-20

New staff at theatre

Questions 11 and 12

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO changes have been made so far during the refurbishment of

the theatre?

A. Some rooms now have a different use.

B. A different type of seating has been installed.

C. An elevator has been installed.

D. The outside of the building has been repaired.

Questions 13 and 14
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO facilities does the theatre currently offer to the public?

A. room for hire
B. backstage tours
C. hire of costumes
D. a bookshop
E. a cafe

Questions 15 and 16
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO workshops does the theatre currently offer?

A. sound
B. acting
C. making puppets
D. make-up
E. lighting

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Questions 17-20
Label the plan below.
Write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 17-20.

Ground floor plan of theatre

17. box office ________
18. theatre manager’s office ________
19. lighting box ________
20. artistic director’s office ________

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Test 3

SECTION 2. Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 16

What does the speaker say about each of the following collections?

Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to

Questions 11-16.

Comments
A was given by one person
B was recently published in the media
C includes some items given by members of the public
D includes some items given by members of the public
E includes the most popular exhibits in the museum
F is the largest of its kind in the country
G has had some of its contents relocated

Collections _________
_________
11. 20th- and 21st-century paintings _________
12. 19th-century paintings _________
13. Sculptures _________
14. ‘Around the world’ exhibition _________
15. Coins
16. Porcelain and glass

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 121

Questions 17-20
Label the plan below.
Write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 17-20.

17. Restaurant __________
18. cafe __________
19. baby-changing facilities __________
20. cloakroom __________

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READING WEEK 1

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READING WEEK 1
Change and consequences

Unit aims:

● Scanning
● Sentence completion (gapped)
● True/False/Not Given

I Scanning

1 Look at the photo and answer the questions below.

a. What are the main causes of the expanding desert in the picture?
b. Do you think the situation can be reversed? If so, what can be done?
c. Is the responsibility for trying to stop this problem local or global?
d. What are the consequences to mankind in general? Are they social,
economic, or environmental?

2 Look quickly at the block of text. Find the words Sahel and
desertification and underline them. Then answer the questions
below.

dkdnnvtruenncmcompletinomnSahelvocmdessertnfindi
ksssjoodesertificationdeesosjdvf nvffkmvmdmvfalsekdw

rfvdcnvtextadnvmlffl

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a. Why can you see the word Sahel easily? Choose a reason.
● because it is a large word
● because it is in the middle of the text
● because it has a capital letter
● because you don’t have to look for the meaning.

b. Can you see the word desertification as easily? Why/Why not?

3 When you scan a piece of text, you look over it to find one
word or phrase, not to understand the whole text. Which of the
suggestions a-g do you think are most helpful for scanning?

a. Look only for specific words or phrases.
b. Look for each word or phrase in turn.
c. Look at every word in the text.
d. Try not to think of the meaning as you scan.
e. Use a pencil to guide you.
f. Underline the word when you find it.
g. Think of the meaning of the word you are looking for.

The box below contains words and phrases from the text
4

Deforestation and desertification. Scan the text to find the
words, then underline them. The first word has been underlined
for you.

zone marginal steadily crept Botswana increasing

population overcultivation plant species management

DEFORESTATION AND DESERTIFICATION

A The Sahel zone lies between the Sahara desert and the fertile
savannahs of northern Nigeria and southern Sudan. The word sahel
comes from Arabic and means marginal or transitional, and this is a good
description of these semi-arid lands, which occupy much of the West
African countries of Mali, Mauritania, Niger, and Chad.

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 125

B Unfortunately, over the last century the Sahara desert has steadily
crept southwards eating into once productive Sahel lands. United
Nations surveys show that over 70 per cent of the dry land in
agricultural use in Africa has deteriorated over the last 30 years. Droughts
have become more prolonged and more severe, the most recent lasting
over twenty years in parts of the Sahel region. The same process of
desertification is taking place across southern Africa as the Kalahari
desert advances into Botswana and parts of South Africa.

C One of the major causes of this desert advance is poor agricultural
land use, driven by the pressures of increasing population. Overgrazing
-keeping too many farm animals on the land-means that grasses and
other plants cannot recover, and scarce water supplies are exhausted.
Overcultivation-trying to grow too many crops on poor land-results in
the soil becoming even less fertile and drier, and beginning to break up.
Soil erosion follows, and the land turns into desert.

D Another cause of desertification is loss of tree cover. Trees are cut
down for use as fuel and to clear land for agricultural use. Tree roots help
to bind the soil together, to conserve moisture, and to provide a habitat
for other plants and animals. When trees are cut down, the soil begins to
dry and loosen, wind and rain erosion increase, other plant species die,
and eventually the fertile topsoil may be almost entirely lost, leaving only
bare rock and dust.

E The effects of loss of topsoil and increased drought are irreversible.
They are, however, preventable. Careful conservation of tree cover

and sustainable agricultural land use have been shown to halt
deterioration

of soils and lessen the effects of shortage of rainfall. One project in
Kita in south-west Mali funded by the UNDP has involved local
communities in sustainable management of forest, while at the same
time providing

a viable agricultural economy based on the production of soaps,
bee- keeping, and marketing shea nuts. This may be a model for similar
projects in other West African countries.

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When you scan for a word or phrase, avoid looking at other words.
5

The diagrams 1-5 show five techniques for doing this. Match each
diagram with the correct description a-e.

a. Scan the text in a zigzag from right to left.
b. Scan from the bottom right to left, then left to right.
c. Scan from the bottom. Move right to left, right to left.
d. Scan vertically from the bottom to the top.
e. Scan from the bottom right of a paragraph to the top left. Look at either
side of the diagonal line.

Use scanning technique 4 to find the following words in the pas-
6

sage, then underline them.

transitional unfortunately surveys severe
exhausted bind eventually shea

7 Use scanning technique 2 to find words and phrases with these
meanings. Use the paragraph reference and the first letter to
help you.

a. It begins with o and means cover. ( Paragraph A)
b. It begins with t and means happening. ( Paragraph B)
c. It begins with s and means limited. ( Paragraph C)
d. It begins with e and means completely. (Paragraph D)
e. It begins with h and means stop. (Paragraph E)

8 Choose a scanning technique in 5. Scan the whole text for words
or phrases with these meanings.

a. It begins with p and means long. 127
b. It begins with p and means fertile.
c. It begins with e and means wearing away.

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56

II Sentence completion (gapped)

9 Read sentences 1-6 taken from a Sentence completion task.
Decide whether the missing words are adjectives or nouns.

1. The climate of the Sahel is described as ___________
2. In some areas of the Sahel, there has been no rainfall for more than
___________
3. Desertification is caused by overgrazing, but this in turn is due to the
pressure from ___________
4. When trees are cut down, the soil is affected, which leads to the death of
the surrounding ___________
5. The consequences of the loss of topsoil cannot be reversed, but they are
______
6. Looking after trees reduces the consequences of a lack of ___________

10 Scan the reading passage using one of the techniques in 5 and
complete the sentences in 9. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS from the passage for each answer

III True/False/Not Given

11 Statements 1-7 are taken from a True/False/Not Given task.
Underline words which could be used to scan the passage.
Explain your choices.

Example: The semi-arid land of the Sahel is found only in Mali.
Scan for Mali because it is easy to see (capital letter) and cannot be
expressed in another way.

1. The Sahara has spread slowly northwards into the Sahel region.
__________________________________________________________________________
2. Just over 70 per cent of the dry land in agricultural use in Africa has de-
teriorated over the last 30 years.
__________________________________________________________________________
3. Desertification is taking place faster in southern Africa than in the Sahel.
__________________________________________________________________________

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4. The advance of the desert is not the result of poor agricultural land use.
__________________________________________________________________________
5. The loss of tree cover is a minor cause of desertification.
__________________________________________________________________________
6. If there is a loss of tree cover, the deterioration in the soil is halted.
__________________________________________________________________________
7. Tree conservation is more effective than sustainable agricultural land use
in reducing the consequences of lack of rain.
__________________________________________________________________________

Look again at the statements in 11. Underline words that qualify
12

or limit each statement, especially adverbs and adjectives.

Example: The semi-arid land of the Sahel is found only in Mali.

13 Decide whether the statements in 11 are False or Not Given
according to the passage.

14 Explain why each statement 1-4 below is Not Given in the text.
Use the example to help you.

Example: The Sahel covers more of the land in Mali than it does in
Chad.
Not Given because there is no comparison in the text. We know that
it covers much of Mali and Chad, but we do not know which country
has more.

1. Agricultural land in Africa could deteriorate further in the coming years.
2. There could be another severe drought in the Sahel over the next three
decades.
3. In some areas, the UNDP may provide financial support for forestry
management to local communities in the future.
4. A second project has been planned in Mali to develop sustainable
forestry management.

Reading Passage 1

You should spend 20 minutes on questions 1-14, which are based on
Reading Passage 1.

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Technique
Read the title and skim the questions first. Use the information from
these to predict the content of the reading passage.

Swallows in migration
Every April, along with many other species of birds, the swallow arrives to
spend the summer months in northern Europe, in Russia, Iran, and parts
of Siberia. Here it will breed and raise its young.

The swallow is well known throughout its range for several reasons. Firstly,
it is very distinctive, with its forked tail and characteristic acrobatic swoop-
ing flight. Secondly, it is very common, and, like its near relative the house
martin, lives in close proximity to human habitation, at least in rural areas.
It is, however, rarely to be encountered in towns or cities.

For centuries, people have observed swallows, noted their arrival and their
10 patterns of feeding. In several countries, these observations have passed
into the language as proverbs or sayings. In England, people comment on
unpredictable late spring weather by saying, ‘one swallow does not make
a summer’. Similarly, if the swallows are flying low, this was held to predict
rainy, even stormy weather. There may be some truth in this observation,
though it is the insects the swallows feed on that seem to be more suscep-
tible to the fall in barometric pressure that heralds a storm. Insects keep low
in these conditions, and so do the swallows that hunt them. At the end of
the summer season, when the swallows are about to leave, they frequently
flock together in large numbers on convenient high open perches, like roof
ridges and telegraph wires. When people remark that “the swallows are
gathering’, they mean that autumn has arrived.

At some point in mid-September the swallows leave together, usually all
on the same day. One day there are thousands, the next there are none,
and none will be seen again until the following spring. For centuries, this
was a complete mystery to people. The Hampshire naturalist Gilbert White,
writing in the late eighteenth century, believed that the swallows dived
into ponds and rivers in autumn and remained in the bottom mud the
whole winter, re-emerging the following spring. This idea seems extraordi-
nary to us, but White was not a stupid man: many of his other observations
of natural life were informed and accurate. In this case, however, he simply

130 IZONE - IELTS TRAINING ACADEMY

had no means of determining the truth and was forced to make a random
guess. The idea that swallows migrate to central or southern Africa would
have seemed as fanciful to him as his theory seems to us.

Although we now know that swallows migrate, there are still unanswered
questions. Why do they go so far? Why not stay on the shores of the Mediter-
ranean? The majority continue to equatorial Africa, and some even further
south. Also it appears that populations of swallows that have bred in differ-
ent countries also spend the winter in different areas. Those from France,
Germany, and much of western Europe have mostly been traced to East
Africa, Kenya, or Tanzania for example. Above all, how does a bird weigh-
ing approximately twenty grammes find its way across mountain ranges,
ocean, and desert to winter in the south, and then return the following year
to the very location it was born, in some cases to the very same nest?

Birds can navigate by the sun, and are also able to detect the magnetic
field of the earth. Species that migrate at night are also able to navigate by
the stars. By these means, they travel long distances. The close navigation
that brings them back to the same field or nest appears to be related to
memory of local landmarks imprinted on the minds of young birds as they
criss- cross the area in the weeks before departure.

Nevertheless, the journey is very dangerous. Long sea crossings, where
there is little available food or water, are generally avoided. In western Eu-
rope, most swallows cross to Africa via the Straits of Gibraltar, or fly the
length of Italy before tackling the relatively short crossing to Tunisia in
North Africa. However, in storms they may be blown hundreds of kilome-
tres off course. Exhausted swallows sometimes come to rest on ships way
out in the Atlantic Ocean. They have to cross mountain ranges too, where
again the weather may be unpredictable and food scarce.

Along the coast of North Africa, many young swallows become the prey 60

of Eleonora’s falcons, which time their breeding to coincide with the migra-

tion of young birds southwards. But the most dangerous part of the jour-

ney is the crossing of the Sahara desert. Here, there is little food or water,

sandstorms may delay and exhaust the already weakened birds, and many

die. It is estimated that around 50 per cent of adult birds die, and up to 80

per cent of young birds, but enough survive to ensure the continuation of

the species. GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 131

Technique:True/False/Not Given
1. Look for words in each statement to help you scan.
2. Identify comparisons or qualifying expressions in the statements.
3. Try to predict some answers
4. Find your scan words in the text. Then read around them to locate

the answers

Questions 1-6
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the pas-
sage?
Write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
1. The swallow is the only species of bird that migrates to spend the sum-
mer in northern Europe.
2. The swallow is easily noticeable because of its tail and the way it flies.
3. The swallow is frequently seen in cities.
4. The insects, not the swallows themselves, appear to predict stormy
weather.
5. Swallows form larger flocks than other birds when they depart in the au-
tumn.
6. White’s theory seems strange to people now.

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Technique: Sentence completion
1. Remember that the answers are in order
2. Note the word limit for each gap
3. Look for words in each sentence to help you scan.
4. Find your scan words in the text. Then read around them to locate

the answers.

Questions 7-12
Complete the sentences
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

7. In the past, the destination of the swallows in the autumn was a
_____________ .
8. As White could not verify what happened to the swallows, he made a
_____________.
9. Despite knowing that swallows migrate, we are still left with _____________
.
10. Sometimes, swallows have been known to return not just to the same
area, but even to the _____________.
11. Birds that travel by night can find their way using the _____________ .
12. Bird navigation appears to be connected with the memory of
_____________ .

Questions 13 and 14
Choose TWO letters, A-F
Which TWO of the following dangers faced by swallows during migration
are mentioned in the text?

A The Sahara desert
B Long sea crossings
C Lack of nesting places
D Hungry sailors
E Eleanora’s falcons
F The crossing to Tunisia

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 133

IV Improve your IELTS word skills

1 Complete the sentences with a word from the box.

consequence factor change result
impact effect cause role

a. Technology has had a huge ____________ on our lives.
b. The area has undergone many ____________ in recent years.
c. Planting trees can have a knock-on ____________ on the economy of arid
areas.
d. Deforestation can have unforeseen ____________ for the ecology of a
region.
e. It is sometimes difficult to discover the exact ____________ of a problem
f. To achieve the best ____________, it is important to initiate change at a
local level
g. The main ____________ contributing to success in any organization is a
happy workforce.
h. The climate has played a major____________ in this region’s economic
history.

2 Complete the sentences with a phrase from the box.

gradual limited impact far-reaching dramatic
development consequences changes
underlying
favourable cause profound effect
outcome

a. Government intervention has had ______________for regional growth.
b. Shock tactics can bring about ______________ in people’s behaviour.
c. ______________ is much more acceptable than rapid change.
d. The introduction of new farming practices has had a ______________ on
people’s lives.
e. To achieve the most ______________ the countries involved need to nego-
tiate.

134 IZONE - IELTS TRAINING ACADEMY

f. The ______________ in this particular case is not easy to find.
g. The huge sums invested had only a ______________ on the neighborhood.

Decide whether the words in brackets have the same or
3 opposite meaning to the words in italic.

Example
Tourists have changed the coastline dramatically. (slightly)
Opposite meaning

a. The wasteland was completely transformed. (totally) _________________
b.The government fully accept the consequences of their actions. (partially)
_________________
c. The marine life in the coral reef is highly sensitive to temperature fluctu-
ations. (exceedingly) _________________
d. Alternative sources of energy like solar power can vastly improve life in
remote communities. (marginally) _________________
e. The rising sea level will greatly affect the livelihoods of people on some
Pacific islands. (considerably) _________________

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 135

READING EXERCISE

READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage I below.

A disaster of Titanic proportions
At 11.39 p.m. on the evening of Sunday 14 April 1912, lookouts Frederick Fleet
and Reginald Lee on the forward mast of the Titanic sighted an eerie, black
mass coming into view directly in front of the ship. Fleet picked up the
phone to the helm, waited for Sixth Officer Moody to answer, and yelled
“Iceberg, right ahead!” The greatest disaster in maritime history was about
to be set in motion.

Thirty-seven seconds later, despite the efforts of officers in the bridge and
engine room to steer around the iceberg, the Titanic struck a piece of sub-
merged ice, bursting rivets in the ship’s hull and flooding the first five wa-
tertight compartments. The ship’s designer, Thomas Andrews, carried out
a visual inspection of the ship’s damage and informed Captain Smith at
midnight that the ship would sink in less than two hours. By 12.30 a.m., the
lifeboats were being filled with women and children, after Smith had given
the command for them to be uncovered and swung out 15 minutes earli-
er. The first lifeboat was successfully lowered 15 minutes later, with only 28
of its 65 seats occupied. By 1.15 a.m., the waterline was beginning to reach
the Titanic’s name on the ship’s bow, and over the next hour every lifeboat
would be released as officers struggled to maintain order amongst the
growing panic on board.

The closing moments of the Titanic’s sinking began shortly after 2 a.m., as
the last lifeboat was lowered and the ship’s propellers lifted out of the wa-
ter, leaving the 1,500 passengers still on board to surge towards the stern.
At 2.17 a.m., Harold Bride and Jack Philips tapped out their last wireless
message after being relieved of duty as the ship’s wireless operators, and
the ship’s band stopped playing. Less than a minute later, occupants of the
lifeboats witnessed the ship’s lights flash once, then go black, and a huge
roar signalled the Titanic’s contents plunging towards the bow, causing the
front half of the ship to break off and go under. The Titanic’s stern bobbed
up momentarily, and at 2.20 a.m., the ship finally disappeared beneath the
frigid waters.

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What or who was responsible for the scale of this catastrophe? Explana-
tions abound, some that focus on very small details. Due to a last minute
change in the ship’s officer line-up, iceberg lookouts Frederick Fleet and
Reginald Lee were making do without a pair of binoculars that an officer
transferred off the ship in Southampton had left in a cupboard onboard,
unbeknownst to any of the ship’s crew. Fleet, who survived the sinking, in-
sisted at a subsequent inquiry that he could have identified the iceberg in
time to avert disaster if he had been in possession of the binoculars.

Less than an hour before the Titanic struck the Iceberg, wireless opera-
tor Cyril Evans on the Californian, located just 20 miles to the north, tried
to contact operator Jack Philips on the Titanic to warn him of pack ice in
the area. “Shut up, shut up, you’re jamming my signal”, Philips replied. “I’m
busy.” The Titanic’s wireless system had broken down for several hours ear-
lier that day, and Philips was clearing a backlog of personal messages that
passengers had requested to be sent to family and friends in the USA. Nev-
ertheless, Captain Smith had maintained the ship’s speed of 22 knots de-
spite multiple earlier warnings of ice ahead. It has been suggested that
Smith was under pressure to make headlines by arriving early in New York,
but maritime historians such as Richard Howell have countered this per-
ception, noting that Smith was simply following common procedure at the
time, and not behaving recklessly.

One of the strongest explanations for the severe loss of life has been the
fact that the Titanic did not carry enough lifeboats for everyone on board.
Maritime regulations at the time tied lifeboat capacity to ship size, not to
the number of passengers on board. This meant that the Titanic, with room
for 1,178 of its 2,222 passengers, actually surpassed the Board of Trade’s re-
quirement that it carry lifeboats for 1,060 of its passengers. Nevertheless,
with lifeboats being lowered less than half full in many cases, and only 712
passengers surviving despite a two and a half hour window of opportunity,
more lifeboats would not have guaranteed more survivors in the absence
of better training and preparation. Many passengers were confused about
where to go after the order to launch lifeboats was given; a lifeboat drill
scheduled for earlier on the same day that the Titanic struck the iceberg
was cancelled by Captain Smith, in order to allow passengers to attend
church.

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 137

Questions 1-6
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

Time Person’s Position Action

11.39 p.m. 1. __________ 2. ___________ Reported sighting of iceberg

3. ________ Andrews Ship’s designer Reported how long the
Titanic could stay afloat

12.15 a.m Smith Captain Ordered 4. ___________ to be
2.17 a.m released
Bride &
Philips 5. ___________ Relayed final 6. __________

Questions 7-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading
Passage 1?
In boxes 7–13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

7. The binoculars for the men on watch had been left in a crew locker in
Southampton.
8. The missing binoculars were the major factor leading to the collision
with the iceberg.
9. Philips missed notification about the ice from Evans because the Titan-
ic’s wireless system was not functioning at the time.
10. Captain Smith knew there was ice in the area.
11. Howell believed the captain’s failure to reduce speed was an irresponsi-
ble action.
12. The Titanic was able to seat more passengers in lifeboats than the Board
of Trade required.
13. A lifeboat drill would have saved more lives.

138 IZONE - IELTS TRAINING ACADEMY

READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

Cork
Cork - the thick bark of the cork oak tree (Quercus suber) - is a remarkable
material. It is tough, elastic, buoyant, and fire-resistant, and suitable for a
wide range of purposes. It has also been used for millennia: the ancient
Egyptians sealed their sarcophagi (stone coffins) with cork, while the an-
cient Greeks and Romans used it for anything from beehives to sandals.

And the cork oak itself is an extraordinary tree. Its bark grows up to 20 cm
in thickness, insulating the tree like a coat wrapped around the trunk and
branches and keeping the inside at a constant 20°C all year round. Devel-
oped most probably as a defence against forest fires, the bark of the cork
oak has a particular cellular structure - with about 40 million cells per cubic
centimetre - that technology has never succeeded in replicating. The cells
are filled with air, which is why cork is so buoyant. It also has an elasticity
that means you can squash it and watch it spring back to its original size
and shape when you release the pressure.

Cork oaks grow in a number of Mediterranean countries, including Portu-
gal, Spain, Italy, Greece and Morocco. They flourish in warm, sunny climates
where there is a minimum of 400 millimetres of rain per year, and not more
than 800 millimetres. Like grape vines, the trees thrive in poor soil, putting
down deep boots in search of moisture and nutrients. Southern Portugal’s
Alentejo region meets all of these requirements, which explains why, by
the early 20th century, this region had become the world’s largest produc-
er of cork, and why today it accounts for roughly half of all cork production
around the world.

Most cork forests are family-owned. Many of these family businesses, and
indeed many of the trees themselves, are around 200 years old. Cork pro-
duction is, above all, an exercise in patience. From the planting of a cork
sapling to the first harvest takes 25 years, and a gap of approximately a
decade must separate harvests from an individual tree. And for top-quality
cork, it’s necessary to wait a further 15 or 20 years. You even have to wait for
the right kind of summer’s day to harvest cork. If the bark is stripped on a
day when it’s too cold - or when the air is damp - the tree will be damaged.

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 139

Cork harvesting is a very specialised profession. No mechanical means of
stripping cork bark has been invented, so the job is done by teams of high-
ly skilled workers. First, they make vertical cuts down the bark using small
sharp axes, then lever it away in pieces as large as they can manage. The
most skilful cork- strippers prise away a semi-circular husk that runs the
length of the trunk from just above ground level to the first branches. It
is then dried on the ground for about four months, before being taken to
factories, where it is boiled to kill any insects that might remain in the cork.
Over 60% of cork then goes on to be made into traditional bottle stoppers,
with most of the remainder being used in the construction trade. Cork-
board and cork tiles are ideal for thermal and acoustic insulation, while
granules of cork are used in the manufacture of concrete.

Recent years have seen the end of the virtual monopoly of cork as the ma-
terial for bottle stoppers, due to concerns about the effect it may have on
the contents of the bottle. This is caused by a chemical compound called
2,4,6-trichloroanisole (TCA), which forms through the interaction of plant
phenols, chlorine and mould. The tiniest concentrations - as little as three
or four parts to a trillion - can spoil the taste of the product contained in the
bottle. The result has been a gradual yet steady move first towards plastic
stoppers and, more recently, to aluminium screw caps. These substitutes
are cheaper to manufacture and, in the case of screw caps, more conve-
nient for the user.

The classic cork stopper does have several advantages, however. Firstly, its
traditional image is more in keeping with that of the type of high quality
goods with which it has long been associated. Secondly - and very impor-
tantly - cork is a sustainable product that can be recycled without difficul-
ty. Moreover, cork forests are a resource which support local biodiversity
and prevent desertification in the regions where they are planted. So, given
the current concerns about environmental issues, the future of this ancient
material once again looks promising.

140 IZONE - IELTS TRAINING ACADEMY

Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading
Passage 1?
In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. The cork oak has the thickest bark of any living tree.
2. Scientists have developed a synthetic cork with the same cellular struc-
ture as natural cork.
3. Individual cork oak trees must be left for 25 years between the first and
second harvest.
4. Cork bark should be stripped in dry atmospheric conditions.
5. The only way to remove the bark from cork oak trees is by hand.

Questions 6-13
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 6–13 on your answer sheet.

Comparison of aluminium screw caps and
cork bottle stoppers

Advantages of aluminium screw caps
● do not affect the 6. ____________ of the bottle contents
● are 7. ____________ to produce
● are 8. ____________ to use
Advantages of cork bottle stoppers
● suit the 9. ____________ of quality products
● made from a 10. ____________ material
● easily 11.____________
● cork forests aid 12. ____________
● cork forests stop 13. ____________ happening

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 141

READING WEEK 2

142 IZONE - IELTS TRAINING ACADEMY

READING WEEK 2
THE IMPORTANCE OF THE PAST

Unit aims:
● Skimming
● True/False/Not Given
● Sentence Completion (Matching endings)

I Skimming

1 Look at the photo and answer questions a-d below.

a. Where is the place shown in the photo? Can you think of other famous
historical monuments around the world?
b. Are places like these relevant in any way to the modern world? How?
c. Do you think knowing the past helps us to define the future? Or is his-
tory more or less bunk as Henry Ford said?
d. Is there any historical place in your home country which is special to
you?

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 143

As the reading texts in IELTS are not meant to be studied, you
2

need to skim the text fast. Which alternative (a-d ) below best
explains how to skim?

a. You extract the meaning or topic of a text without looking at all of the
words,
b. You read every word as fast as you can.
c. You look for one word or phrase only,
d. You look at a text in detail.

3 Read the lists of words 1-5 and answer questions a-d.

1. architect building skyscraper construct design
2. train travel passenger ticket luggage
3. nostalgia past memories read former times history
4. airport luggage air steward fly aeroplane boarding pass
5. in the up to the of a of the enormous and that we with the in

4 Read the title of the passage on the next page. Underline the
words in the box which you would expect to see in the passage.
How do the words relate to the title?

football construction bridges hairdressing engineers
dictionary industrial projects railway

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The greatest of Victorian engineers

A. In the hundred years up to 1860, the work of a small group of con-
struction engineers carried forward the enormous social and eco-
nomic change that we associate with the Industrial Revolution in
Britain. The most important of these engineers was Isambard King-
dom Brunei, whose work in shipping, bridgebuilding, and railway
construction to name just three fields, both challenged and motivat-
ed his colleagues. He was the driving force behind a number of huge-
ly ambitious projects, some of which resulted in works which are still
in use today.

B. The son of an engineer, Brunei apprenticed with his father at an early
age on the building of the Thames Tunnel. At the age of just twenty,
he became an engineer in charge of the project. This impressive plan
to bore under the Thames twice suffered two major disasters when
the river broke through into the tunnel. When the second breach oc-
curred in 1827, Brunei was seriously injured during rescue operations
and further work was halted.

C. While recovering from his injuries, Brunei entered a design compe-
tition for a new bridge over the Avon Gorge near Clifton. The original
judge of the competition was Thomas Telford, a leading civil engineer
of his day, who rejected all entries to the competition in favour of his
own design. After considerable scandal, a second contest was held
and Brunei’s design was accepted. For reasons of funding, however,
exacerbated by social unrest in Bristol, the project was abandoned in
1843 with only the towers completed. After Brunei’s death, it was de-
cided to begin work on it again, partly so that the bridge could form
a fitting memorial to the great engineer. The entire structure was fi-
nally completed in 1864. Today, the well-known Clifton Suspension
Bridge is a symbol of Bristol, just as the Opera House is of Sydney.
Originally intended only for horse-drawn traffic, the bridge now bears
over four million motor vehicles a year.

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 145

Read the title again and skim paragraph A. Look only at the
5

words that are connected with the word engineer. Ignore the
other words as in the diagram. Which words would you skim?

Skim the whole text and match each title below with a para-
6 graph. Which words in the text help you match the title?
1. The contest for and construction of a suspension bridge
2. An inspiring engineer
3. The construction of a tunnel under a river

II True/False/Not given

Statements 1-7 are taken from a True/False/Not Given task. These
7

often contain comparison structures. Read the statements and
underline phrases that contain a comparison.
1. Brunei was less important than the other construction engineers in Brit-
ain during the Industrial Revolution.
2. Brunei was less involved in railway construction than other engineering
fields.
3. Brunei worked only on shipping, bridge-building, and railway construc-
tion.
4. Brunei’s work was largely ignored by his colleagues.
5. All projects Brunei contributed to are still used today.

146 IZONE - IELTS TRAINING ACADEMY

6. Brunei became an apprentice with his father at the same age as other
engineers.
7. The Thames Tunnel Project was more difficult than any previous con-
struction venture undertaken in Britain.

8 Decide whether the statements in 7 are False or Not Given

9 Make simple changes to statements 1-3 in 7 to make them True.

10 The flowchart below shows how to decide between True, False,
and Not Given in comparison statements. Complete the flow-
chart by inserting True, False, or Not Given into the appropriate
gaps a-c.

11 With reference to the passage on page 15, decide whether the
statements below are False or Not Given. Use the flowchart in 10
to decide the answer

1. More change took place during the Industrial Revolution than has hap-
pened since.
2. Brunei was involved in more engineering fields than his colleagues.
3. Brunei was less influential than his colleagues in some of the works that
survive today.

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 147

III Sentence completion (Matching endings)

Read the sentence beginnings 1-7 taken from a Sentence com-
12

pletion task. Which two beginnings are most likely to be followed
by an effect?

1. Thomas Telford
2. Scandal about the result of the first competition
3. Brunei’s design for the bridge
4. Funding problems
5. The towers
6. Work on the bridge
7. The Clifton Suspension Bridge

Read the sentence endings A-H taken from the same task. De-
13

cide which endings indicate an effect. Then make questions by
adding a question word to each ending.

Example:
A. Which were the only parts completed during Brunei’s lifetime?

A. were the only parts of the bridge completed during Brunei’s lifetime.
B. was an important civil engineer.
C. meant the completion of the bridge was delayed.
D. is a symbol of Bristol.
E. was recommenced as a suitable memorial to Brunei.
F. was chosen in the second competition.
G. led to a second contest to design the bridge.
H. symbolizes Sydney

Based on your answers in 13, predict which sentence beginnings
14

and endings can possibly match. Then skim paragraph C in the
passage and complete each sentence beginning 1-7 with the cor-
rect ending A-H

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Read the following statements from a Sentence completion task
15

which a student matched. Decide which statements are correct
and which are wrong and recombine the sentences. Give rea-
sons for the changes you make

a. Many historical sites worldwide are often rewritten by historians,
b. Many old films are rarely conducted for a long period of time,
c. Archaeological digs were known for their breadth of knowledge,
d. Samuel Johnson and Leonardo da Vinci are being destroyed by visitors,
e. Past events are being restored and digitally mastered,
f. Past events are inaccessible to us, even more so than a distant place.

Reading Passage 2

You should spend 20 minutes on questions 1-14, which are based on
Reading Passage 1.

Technique
Read the title and then skim the questions. Remember that the
questions are a summary of the passage

GIÁO TRÌNH IELTS 56 149

Chartism: a people’s petition to Parliament
The early decades of the 1800s are well known as a period of discontent
and social unrest. The Industrial Revolution meant the decline of tradition-
al rural communities and the growth of a working class urban population,
particularly in the new industrial towns of the North such as Manchester.
Living and working conditions for the urban factory worker were frequent-
ly appalling and gave rise to a number of movements aimed at bettering
working class conditions. One such movement was Chartism, which aimed
to present a people’s charter, or petition for reform, to parliament. It had a
number of aims, but first and foremost among them was the granting of
universal suffrage or the vote for all men over the age of 21.

There had been several previous attempts in the early 1800s to build a solid
working-class movement, most notably the attempt to establish a univer-
sal trade union known as the Grand National Consolidated Trade Union or
GNCTU. In 1834, however, this trade union collapsed. The subsequent disil-
lusionment led to a growth of interest in other possible ways of giving voice
to the desires and grievances of the workers. In 1836, the London Working
Men’s Association was founded, led by William Lovett. Its aim was to reform
parliament, and in 1838 it issued a charter demanding six political reforms,
including universal suffrage. Most of these demands were to be taken up
by the Chartist petitioners.

So began the Chartist movement. Other centres of this movement were
located in Birmingham, and in the north of England. In Birmingham, the
movement was championed by Thomas Attwood, a banker who was inter-
ested in leading the movement for parliamentary reform in the Midlands,
and Joseph Sturge, a wealthy corn merchant. The key figure in the north
of England was Fergus O’Connor, at that time the editor of the newspaper
The Northern Star.

In 1839, a Chartist National Convention assembled in London. The delegates
talked of proclaiming a ‘sacred month’ or general strike, and collected sig-
natures for a great petition. This petition was presented to parliament but
it was rejected in the Commons by 235 votes to 46. Thereupon the Nation-
al Convention proclaimed a general strike, but a week later cancelled the
proclamation and ignominiously dismissed itself. The government mean-

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