Kertas Model SPM SBP Bhs Inggeris

PKEENRETKARESARPTJUAEPSEMRIOKSDAEALNPEPERIKSAAMNAHIR

Peneraju
Kemahiran
Berfikir
Aras Tinggi

PENTAKSIRAN DIAGNOSTIK AKADEMIK

SPM Format SPM 2021
Skema Pemarkahan
disediakan

BAHASA INGGERIS

1 set Kertas Peperiksaan E KSKLUSIF
Akhir Tahun Tingkatan 4 (SEBENAR) Digubal oleh
4 set Kertas Peperiksaan Fokus Panel Guru Pakar dan Guru
Sijil Pelajaran Malaysia (SPM) Cemerlang Mata Pelajaran SBP
Teknik Menjawab Soalan
Peperiksaan SPM Kertas 1 dengan izin
dan Kertas 2 Bahagian Pengurusan
Sekolah Berasrama Penuh
Kementerian Pendidikan

Malaysia

Contents iii
iv
Format Instrumen Peperiksaan SPM Bahasa Inggeris Mulai Tahun 2021
Tips for SPM SBP 2021 Bahasa Inggeris Kertas 1 & Kertas 2 1 – 12
13 – 16
Peperiksaan Akhir Tahun Tingkatan 4
Kertas 1 17 – 28
Kertas 2 29 – 32

Peperiksaan Fokus Sijil Pelajaran Set 1 33 – 44
Kertas 1 45 – 48
Kertas 2
49 – 60
Peperiksaan Fokus Sijil Pelajaran Set 2 61 – 64
Kertas 1
Kertas 2 65 – 76
77 – 80
Peperiksaan Fokus Sijil Pelajaran Set 3
Kertas 1
Kertas 2

Peperiksaan Fokus Sijil Pelajaran Set 4
Kertas 1
Kertas 2
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD

ii

Format Instrumen Peperiksaan SPM
Bahasa Inggeris Mulai Tahun 2021

Bil. Perkara Kertas 1 (1119/1) Kertas 2 (1119/2) Kertas 3 (1119/3) Kertas 4 (1119/4)
1 Jenis
Ujian Pemahaman Ujian Penulisan Ujian Bertutur Ujian Mendengar
Instrumen (Reading and Use of (Writing) (Speaking) (Listening)
2 Jenis Item English)

3 Bilangan • Objektif Aneka • Subjektif • Subjektif • Objektif Aneka
Soalan PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD
Pilihan (OAP) Respons Terhad Respons Terhad Pilihan (OAP)
4 Jumlah
Markah • Objektif Pelbagai • Subjektif • Subjektif • Objektif Pelbagai

5 Wajaran Bentuk (OPB) Respons Terbuka Respons Terbuka Bentuk (OPB)
6 Konstruk
• Subjektif Respons
7 Tempoh
Ujian Terhad

8 Cakupan Bahagian 1: 8 Bahagian 1: 1 Bahagian 1: 4 Bahagian 1: 7
Konteks soalan (8 markah) soalan (20 markah) soalan untuk setiap soalan (7 markah)
Bahagian 2: 10 Bahagian 2: 1 calon Bahagian 2: 8
9 Aras soalan (10 markah) soalan (20 markah) Bahagian 2: 1 soalan (8 markah)
Kesukaran Bahagian 3: 8 Bahagian 3: 3 soalan untuk setiap Bahagian 3: 5
soalan (8 markah) (Jawab 1 soalan) calon soalan (5 markah)
10 Kaedah Bahagian 4: 6 (20 markah) Bahagian 3: 3 Bahagian 4: 10
Penskoran soalan (6 markah) soalan untuk kedua- soalan (10 markah)
Bahagian 5: 8 dua calon
soalan (8 markah)

40 markah 60 markah 24 markah 30 markah

25% 25% 25% 25%

Kemahiran Kemahiran menulis: Kemahiran bertutur Kemahiran
membaca: mendengar:
• Memahami • Mengaplikasi dan mendengar: • Memahami
• Mengaplikasi • Mengaplikasi
• Menganalisis • Menganalisis • Memahami
• Menilai
• Menilai • Mengaplikasi

• Mencipta • Menganalisis

• Menilai

• Pengetahuan system bahasa
• Nilai

1 jam 30 minit 1 jam 30 minit 13 minit 40 minit

Mencakupi semua standard kandungan dan standard pembelajaran yang terdapat dalam
Dokumen Standard Kurikulum dan Pentaksiran

Mengikut aras penguasaan CEFR: B1 – B2

• Dikotomus • Analitik • Analitik • Dikotomus
• Holistik • Holistik

iii

Tips for SPM 2021 Bahasa
Inggeris Kertas 1 & 2

Paper 1: Reading and Use of English (1 hour 30 minutes)

Part 1: MCQs

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHDSuggested Time: 15 minutesQuestions 1 – 8

What To Do? TIPS

Read the question first.

Study the graphic or stimulus given. Focus on the headlines to get the general idea of the
text.

Read the question carefully. Underline the Familiarise yourself with terms or phrases typically
keywords. Analyse what the question requires, e.g. used in stimulus questions.
most, less, except, true, false.

Analyse the answers. Reject options that are
obviously wrong.

Double check the question with the option that you Look for clues to help you pick the best answer.
have picked.

Part 2: Rational Cloze Questions 9 – 18
Suggested Time: 15 minutes TIPS
What To Do?

Read through the passage once, carefully, and try Re-read the passage to get maximum understanding

to understand the topic that is being discussed. and identify the tense used.

Look at each option. Cross out the most likely
wrong answer.

iv

Choose the answer that fits in grammatically with Take note of the words before and after the blank. It

the sentence and is logically acceptable. helps you to find the correct answer.

Once you have finished, read the whole passage
again. Double check the answer to make sure it
makes sense and has a smooth flow.

Part 3: Reading Comprehension
Suggested Time: 25 Minutes
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD Questions 19 – 26

What To Do? TIPS

Skim through the questions. This helps you • The questions are always asked in the order set, so the
to figure out the general idea of thepassage. answer should follow the text order too. For instance,
the answer to the first question is most probably found
in the first paragraph.

• Questions asked are based on the text only and not on
your general knowledge.

• If a question asks you to draw your own conclusion,
find textual evidence to support your answer.

• Derive meaning from clues found in the sentence
if you come across words or phrases that you do not
understand.

Study the whole passage carefully. Highlight
important details and specific facts.

Go through the questions again one by one.

Look at each option. Cross out the most likely
wrong answer.

v

Part 4: Gapped Text

Suggested Time: 20 minutes Questions 27 – 32

What To Do? TIPS

The gapped text questions require careful attention. In the missing sentences, identify contrasting
The first thing to do is to read the entire passage from statements. Go back to the passage and find sentences
start to finish. Afterwards, read the sentences that that indicate a transition is coming.
have been pulled from the passage.
After you’ve placed all of the sentences into the gaps,
Then, go back to the passage and read the sentences go back and read the passage to see if it sounds right.
that come before and after the missing sentences. If not, locate which sentences sound out of place.
These sentences will help you figure out what ideas
come before and after. Pay special attention to You don’t have to start with the first gap. Start with
pronouns and subject-verb agreement when choosing the easiest gap first and work your way up to the
a paragraph for the missing section. For example, if hardest one.
the sentence before a gap has the word ‘he’ in it, then
you know that the next sentence shouldn’t refer to an
‘it’ or a ‘they’.

YOU HAVE TO RULE OUT 2 UNWANTED
STATEMENTS FROM 8 GIVEN.
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD
Part 5: Matching Questions 33 – 40
Suggested Time: 15 Minutes TIPS
What To Do? Questions 33 – 36

Skim through the questions. This helps you to figure out the general idea of the
article or information given.

They are labelled A – F.

Study the whole passage carefully. Highlight important details and specific facts.

Go through the questions again one by one to match Check the letters again.
the corresponding paragaraphs labelled A – F

Questions 37 – 40

Read the questions with blanks carefully and fill in Ensure the spelling is accurate.
using only one word from the text.

vi

Paper 2 Writing (1 hour 30 minutes)

Part 1: Writing E-Mails or Messages (in about 80 words)

What To Do? TIPS

Suggested Time: 20 minutes

Read and understand the task set.

Circle or underline the important questions asked in
the email.

Understand to whom you should be writing.

Make sure you do not write extremely long emails
for this section.
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD These questions must be answered in your response.

Use appropriate verbs and structure for e.g. to
persuade, to encourage, to invite, to decline, etc.

Part 2: Essay-Writing (within 125 – 150 words)

Suggested Time: 30 Minutes

What To Do? TIPS

Read the question carefully and identify the type of This is essay writing and as such the structure is

essay you are required to write. simple with introduction, content and conclusion.

Brainstorm for ideas and expand on the notes given. Add your own relevant details to make your essay
more interesting. Identify the correct tense to use.
Apply the 5W1H rule.

Reasons given must be logical and can be Increase your vocabulary by learning collocation and
understood easily. interesting expressions.

Plan the outline for you to organise the essay and REMEMBER: The words and expressions must be
stay focused on the topic at hand. used accurately.

Once you have finished, revise your essay and work Use 4 to 5 paragraphs with around 25 to 35 words in
on editing. a paragraph.
Check if the paragraphs are well linked.
In order grab the attention of your reader, start your
essay with a strong introduction and end with an
effective conclusion. In your introduction, you may use
a quotation, question, anecdote, general statement, etc.

Look for grammatical errors, spelling and
punctuation mistakes.

Use of discourse markers, logical connectors gives
merit to your writing.

vii

Part 3: Narrative (in about 200 – 250 words) TIPS

Suggested Time: 40 minutes Read all the 3 questions given carefully.

What To Do? Pick the topic that interests you the most and make
sure you are knowledgeable about the topic.
There are 3 choices given.

(1) ARTICLE OR REPORT (with format)
(2) REVIEW
(3) STORY
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD
Proceed to brainstorm for ideas. State your main points clearly in each paragraph and
Plan the outline. support them by providing convincing supporting
ideas.

Proofread your essay once you are done writing. Check your language style.

viii

SULIT

PENTAKSIRAN DIAGNOSTIK AKADEMIK
SEKOLAH BERASRAMA PENUH

PEPERIKSAAN AKHIR TAHUN TINGKATAN 4 1119/1

BAHASA INGGERIS

KERTAS 1
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD
1 1 jam Satu jam dan tiga puluh minit
2

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

Arahan: For Examiner’s Use
1. Kertas ini mengandungi LIMA bahagian: Bahagian 1, 2, 3, 4 dan 5.
2. Jawab kesemua bahagian di dalam kertas jawapan yang disediakan. Part Total Marks
3. Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 15 minit untuk Bahagian 1,
18
15 minit untuk Bahagian 2, 25 minit untuk Bahagian 3, 20 minit
untuk Bahagian 4 dan 15 minit bagi Bahagian 5. 2 10

Instructions: 38
1. This question paper consists of FIVE parts: Parts 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
2. Answer all parts on the answer sheet provided. 46
4. You are advised to spend 15 minutes on Part 1, 15 minutes on
58
Part 2, 25 minutes on Part 3, 20 minutes on Part 4 and 15 minutes
on Part 5. Total 40

1119/1 © Hak Cipta BPSBP [Lihat halaman sebelah]
SULIT

SULIT 2 1119/1

Part 1

Questions 1 to 8
Read the text carefully in each question. Choose the best answer A, B or C. For each question, mark the correct
answer A, B or C in the answer sheet.

MYPHONE – MALAYSIA’S OWN
HANDPHONE BRAND
10th Anniversary

As a sign of our heartfelt appreciation for the
strong support of our products by fellow
Malaysians, we are celebrating our 10th
anniversary by offering a buy 1 get 1 free
promotion.

The offer is for selected products purchased
from selected stores only.
Thank you, Malaysia.
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD 1 The purpose of the advertisement is to
A highlight a new product.
B inform people about MYPHONE’s
sales.
C celebrate MYPHONE as a Malaysian
brand.

NOTICE 2 Which statement is true about the notice?
A Students will be given advice on how
Please be advised that to use Computer Lab A and B.
Computer Lab A B Users of Computer Lab B have to send
a notice to the technician before they
is currently undergoing system can use it.
maintenance. All students and C The technician will inform the users
teachers can use Computer Lab B when Computer Lab A is operational
again.
until further notice.

Lab Tech

1119/1 © Hak Cipta BPSBP SULIT

SULIT 3 1119/1

BOOK SIGNING 3 The poster tells us that
A Habib is a bookseller at KLCC.
“I AM A KING’S SCOUT” B Habib will sign his book if you buy
by one.
C Habib organises scouting activities.
HABIB ABDUL HAMID

Date: 31 December
Venue: KLCC, Kuala Lumpur
Time: 9.00 a.m. – 11.00 a.m.

* Please adhere to Covid-19 SOPs
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD
Idlan, 4 Idlan’s mother left a note to ask him to
A feed the cats since she might be coming
I have been invited to talk at the home home late.
owners’ association meeting in the afternoon and B attend the meeting with Kaboo and
it might take a long time. Please make sure Bandita.
Kaboo and Bandita eat their food. Give them the C prepare dinner as she might be returning
new cat food that I bought yesterday. I will buy home late.
you dinner.

Love,
Mum

TO : [email protected] 5 The writer believes that
A she should investigate the case herself.
SUBJECT : Report on illegal dumping B the containers contain hazardous
substance.
I would like to report that I saw suspicious men C officers should take legal action against
burying old steel containers in the forest reserve the men.
near my hometown. I suspect that they are illegally
dumping dangerous materials. Please send officers
to investigate.

1119/1 © Hak Cipta BPSBP [Lihat halaman sebelah]
SULIT

SULIT 4 1119/1

Hashim : I think we have a good chance of 6 Which statement is true?
winning the competition. A Hashim is confident that they can
definitely win the competition.
Albert : Well, I am not sure. The other teams B Albert feels that the competition is not
have been training intensively too. going to be difficult.
C Hashim and Albert will give their best
Hashim : Don’t worry. If we try our best, we shot to be the champions.
can win this PUBG championship.

Albert : Yes, that we will do.

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHDTOUCH RUGBY TRY-OUT 7 The rugby club
A is looking for girls under 16 years of
The rugby club is looking for new players to age to play touch rugby.
represent the school touch rugby team for the B will select players to join the school
2021 tournaments. The try-out is only open to rugby team for 2021 tournaments.
Form 3 and Form 4 girls. Details are as follows: C will select girls from all forms to join
the school team.
Date: 10 January, 2021
Venue: School Field
Time: 3.00 p.m.

+601012345678~Hani 8 Which statement in the chat is NOT
I need your help with my car. TRUE?
A Husna is not knowledgeable about cars.
+6010987654321~Husna B Hani’s car battery is not working.
Ok. What seems to be the problem? C Hani forgot to switch the headlights
off again.
+601012345678~Hani
I cannot get it to start. SULIT

+6010987654321~Husna
Is the battery indicator flashing?

+601012345678~Hani
Oh no! The battery is dead, I think.

+6010987654321~Husna
Did you leave the headlights on again?

+601012345678~Hani
Oops…

1119/1 © Hak Cipta BPSBP

SULIT 5 1119/1

Part 2
Questions 9 to 18
Read the text below and choose the best word for each space. For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet.

Why e-Sports?

E-sports are here to stay in colleges and high schools. They are not here in any small way.

(0) gaming, for example, has become a billion-dollar business and is projected

to grow (9) . The prevalence of e-sports in schools is, likewise, rapidly

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHDexpanding.

Team sports teach (10) skills. Many parents encourage their children to

participate in a team sport for just this reason. Team sports provide an arena for teaching important

lessons and life skills beyond the classroom. The skills practised and (11) as

part of a team apply equally to any sport. E-sports are no exception. These skills include:

• Working with others. Call it teamwork, cooperation or collaboration. By whatever name,

working well with others requires the development of countless additional skills like

communication, assertiveness and compromise. It also enhances knowledge regarding conflict

management, active listening, and respect for one another.

• Social skills. Social skills are the building blocks of (12) relationships.

They are integral to working well with teammates and coaches. In addition to those noted

above, social skills include critical basics like maintaining eye contact and using appropriate

body language, (13) from interrupting, and knowing when and how to

share ideas. For many teenagers, these skills do not come naturally. Those with limited social

experience are particularly prone to skill deficits. Participating in a school e-sports team

provides an environment for these kids to learn and practise these skills.

• Strategic thinking and planning. Sports require students to set goals, (14)

the competition and consider their individual strengths and weaknesses. As members of a team,

students learn to establish tactics, put together game plans and adjust execution as needed.

Thinking quickly and strategically is part and parcel of any sport.

• Managing success and failure. Team sports teach the tough lesson that life is not always fair.

No matter how hard you prepare, you would not always come out on top. Learning to manage

the emotions of (15) and winning helps teenagers to become resilient.

• Time management. To qualify to participate in school teams, students need to maintain

their academic standing. This requires learning and applying executive function skills like

(16) and time management.

• Travel skills. School e-sports teams typically travel to tournaments several times each season.

This provides the opportunity to plan, pack, budget, schedule, and manage the many ins and

outs of travel. It may present the need to use public transportation, adjust to different regional

cultures and share space with a roommate. Travel builds critical thinking skills, adaptability,

and fortitude.

• Pro-social values. Team sports of any kind provide an opportunity for coaches to instil

positive values. (17) and standards of behaviour like good sportsmanship

and fair play. Persistence, honesty, fun and healthy competition. These values can guide

students throughout their (18) .

(Adapted from https://www.viewsonic.com/library/education/esports-schools-good/)

1119/1 © Hak Cipta BPSBP [Lihat halaman sebelah]
SULIT

SULIT 6 1119/1

0 A Competition 14 A assess

B Compete B amend

C Competitor C adduce

D Competitive D deduce





9 A drastically 15 A lost

B exponentially B losing

C regularly C lose

D gradually D loser





10 A valuable 16 A organiser
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD
B valued B organise

C value C organisation

D valuation D organised





11 A sharpened 17 A Principle

B honed B Principal

C improved C Principled

D developed D Principles





12 A intrapersonal 18 A lives

B interactive B life

C interpersonal C live

D inter-discipline D lifespan

13 A restraining
B repeating
C refraining
D resisting

1119/1 © Hak Cipta BPSBP SULIT

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHDSULIT 7 1119/1

Part 3

You are going to read an extract from an article. For questions 19 to 26, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D)
and mark the correct letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

The man in the baseball cap and sunglasses waited for the teller to notice him. The morning
of May 26, 2000, was quiet inside the LaSalle Bank in Highland Park, Illinois, a suburb of
Chicago.
“May I help you?” said the young woman behind the counter. The man reached to the back
of his khakis as if to fish out a wallet. Instead, he presented her with an index card. The teller’s
smile wilted as she stared at the words: “THIS IS A ROBBERY. PUT ALL OF YOUR MONEY
IN THE BAG.”
The robber, a slender man wearing a blue oxford shirt, returned the card to his pocket.
“Nice and easy,” he said coolly, handing over a plastic shopping bag. While the teller anxiously
transferred bundles of cash, the man gently pressed his palms together as if he were about to
whisper “Namaste.” “Thank you,” he said, and walked out the front door.
Less than two minutes later, Tom emerged from an underground parking lot carrying a
bicycle on one shoulder and a messenger bag over the other and wearing a red, white, and blue
spandex bodysuit. He climbed onto the bike and began to ride leisurely.
Tom cruised up to a trash can. After fishing two crisp $20 bills out of the plastic bag, he held
it upside down over the can. Several bundles of cash – $4,009 in all – tumbled into the trash. The
man returned the empty sack to his messenger bag and pedalled away.
Thirteen-year-old Tom Justice watched in awe as the cyclists careened around the outdoor
track of the Ed Rudolph Velodrome, outside Chicago. Every time the pack whirled by, it cut the
air, unleashing a concentrated whoosh. Before that summer of 1983, Tom had never seen a bicycle
race, let alone a velodrome. But from the moment he entered the stadium, he was transfixed.
He returned a week later with his maroon Schwinn. As the stadium lights buzzed, a dozen
suburban kids gathered on the track. Everyone was wearing T-shirts and gym shorts except for
Tom, who stood out in the professional-grade jersey and padded cycling shorts his father had just
bought him.
Tom won the 12-to-14-year-old heat easily. Straddling his bike, his chest still heaving, he
felt a surge of adrenaline. He had finally found something at which he excelled at. His father, Jay
Justice, a Navy veteran with an abundance of athleticism, was thrilled.
By Tom’s junior year at high school, his identity hinged on cycling. In 1987, just four
years after his first velodrome victory, Tom was selected to attend the Olympic training camp in
Colorado Springs, Colorado.
However, after high school, Tom’s commitment to cycling and everything else lapsed.
Instead of training, he broke into empty houses to smoke cigarettes and chug beers with his
buddies.
As Tom’s Olympic dream slipped away, he fantasised about identities he could substitute
for the thrilling instant gratification of cycling. He made a list, and then wandered from interview
to interview, growing increasingly unhappy with his mundane life. Then, robbing came easily
enough.
After that, Tom’s real life seemed mediocre and unfulfilling. He wrestled with depression
and brooded over the realisation that at 29, his opportunity to become a world-class cyclist had
nearly passed. If he wanted to pursue his Olympic dream, he had to do it now.

(www.rd.com/article/the-bank-robber-%2%80%a8on-the-bicycle/)

1119/1 © Hak Cipta BPSBP [Lihat halaman sebelah]
SULIT

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHDSULIT 8 1119/1

19 In paragraph 2, why did the teller’s smile wilt?
A The man took out his wallet that looked like an index card.
B She was reading the message on the index card.
C It was her routine to smile to the customers.
D She realised that it was a robbery.

20 In paragraph 3, how do we know that it was not the first time the man robbed a bank?
A The man handed over a plastic shopping bag to the teller.
B The man walked out through the front door.
C The man acted calmly and thanked the teller.
D The teller followed his instructions.

21 In paragraph 4, what was the proof that the man was indifferent after robbing a bank?
A He emerged from an underground parking lot.
B He was carrying a bicycle on one shoulder.
C He was wearing a spandex bodysuit.
D He cycled leisurely.

22 In paragraph 6, how did Tom Justice get interested in cycling?
A He was taken to see a velodrome.
B He participated in a bicycle race.
C He watched the cyclists careen around the outdoor track.
D He was transfixed on the sound that the cyclists made in the track.

23 What effect did winning in the race for the first time have on Tom?
A He made his father, Jay Justice, happy.
B He was going to be an Olympic gold medallist.
C He finally found something that he was good at.
D His identity was hinged on cycling by his senior years.

24 What happened to Tom’s Olympic dream?
A He spent more time hanging out with friends than going to training.
B He could not achieve it because he abandoned his training.
C He felt that his life did not change and was mundane.
D He started to vandalise the properties in the area.

25 How did Tom feel after he left high school?
A He enjoyed his new life.
B He learnt to accept his fate.
C He attended interview after interview.
D He became more miserable as time passed by.

26 What do we know about Tom in the last paragraph?
A He managed to achieve his Olympic dream.
B He still wanted to be a world-class cyclist.
C He was satisfied with his life.
D He beat his depression.

1119/1 © Hak Cipta BPSBP SULIT

SULIT 9 1119/1

Part 4

Questions 27 to 32
You are going to read an article about earthquakes.
Six sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A to H the one which
fits each gap (27 to 32). There are two extra sentences which you do not need to use.
Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet.

An earthquake is any sudden shaking of the ground caused by the passage of seismic waves

through Earth‘s rocks. 27 Earthquakes occur most often along geologic faults, narrow
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD
zones where rock masses move in relation to one another. The major fault lines of the world are

located at the fringes of the huge tectonic plates that make up Earth’s crust.

Little was understood about earthquakes until the emergence of seismology at the beginning

of the 20th century. 28 About 50,000 earthquakes large enough to be noticed without the

aid of instruments occur annually over the entire Earth. Of these, approximately 100 are of sufficient

size to produce substantial damage if their centres are near areas of habitation. 29 Over

the centuries they have been responsible for millions of deaths and an incalculable amount of

damage to property.

Earth’s major earthquakes occur mainly in belts coinciding with the margins of tectonic

plates. This has long been apparent from early catalogues of felt earthquakes and is even more

readily discernible in modern seismicity maps, which show instrumentally determined epicentres.

30 It is estimated that 80 percent of the energy presently released in earthquakes comes

from those whose epicentres are in this belt. The seismic activity is by no means uniform throughout

the belt, and there are a number of branches at various points.

Earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy within some limited region of the

rocks of the Earth. 31 Of all these the release of elastic strain is the most important cause,

because this form of energy is the only kind that can be stored in sufficient quantity in the Earth to

produce major disturbances. 32

1119/1 © Hak Cipta BPSBP [Lihat halaman sebelah]
SULIT

SULIT 10 1119/1

A Tectonic earthquakes are explained by the so- E The most important earthquake belt is the
called elastic rebound theory, formulated by the Circum-Pacific Belt, which affects many
American geologist Harry Fielding Reid after populated coastal regions around the Pacific
the San Andreas Fault ruptured in 1906, causing Ocean – for example, those of New Zealand,
the great San Francisco earthquake. New Guinea, Japan, the Aleutian Islands,
Alaska, and the western coasts of North and
B Seismology, which involves the scientific South America.
study of all aspects of earthquakes, has yielded
answers to such long-standing questions as why F Very great earthquakes occur on average about
and how earthquakes occur. once per year.

C As a fault rupture progresses along or up G The energy can be released by elastic strain,
the fault, rock masses are flung in opposite gravity, chemical reactions, or even the motion
directions and thus spring back to a position of massive bodies.
where there is less strain.
H Earthquakes associated with this type of energy
D Seismic waves are produced when some form release are called tectonic earthquakes.
of energy stored in Earth’s crust is suddenly
released, usually when masses of rock straining
against one another suddenly fracture and “slip”.
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD

1119/1 © Hak Cipta BPSBP SULIT

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHDSULIT 11 1119/1

Part 5
Questions 33 to 40
Here is a text about renewable energy. Read the text below and answer the questions that follow.

RENEWABLE ENERGY

A In any discussion about climate change, renewable energy usually tops the list of changes
the world can implement to stave off the worst effects of rising temperatures. That is because
renewable energy sources such as solar and wind do not emit carbon dioxide and other
greenhouse gases that contribute to global warming.

B Clean energy has far more to recommend it than just being “green.” The growing sector
creates jobs, makes electric grids more resilient, expands energy access in developing
countries, and helps lower energy bills. All of those factors have contributed to a renewable
energy renaissance in recent years, with wind and solar setting new records for electricity
generation.

C For the past 150 years or so, humans have relied heavily on coal, oil, and other fossil fuels
to power everything from light bulbs to cars to factories. Fossil fuels are embedded in nearly
everything we do, and as a result, the greenhouse gases released from the burning of those
fuels have reached historically high levels.

D As greenhouse gases trap heat in the atmosphere that would otherwise escape into space,
average temperatures on the surface are rising. Global warming is one symptom of climate
change, the term scientists now prefer to describe the complex shifts affecting our planet’s
weather and climate systems. Climate change encompasses not only rising average
temperatures but also extreme weather events, shifting wildlife populations and habitats,
rising seas, and a range of other impacts.

E Of course, renewables – like any source of energy – have their own trade-offs and associated
debates. One of them centres on the definition of renewable energy. Strictly speaking,
renewable energy is just what you might think: perpetually available, or as the US Energy
Information Administration puts it, “virtually inexhaustible.” But “renewable” doesn’t
necessarily mean sustainable, as opponents of corn-based ethanol or large hydropower dams
often argue. It also does not encompass other low or zero emissions resources that have
their own advocates, including energy efficiency and nuclear power.

F Renewable energy conserves the nation’s natural resources. Renewable energy provides
reliable power supplies and fuel diversification, which enhance energy security and lower
risk of fuel spills while reducing the need for imported fuels. Importantly, renewable energy
also helps conserve the nation’s natural resources.

1119/1 © Hak Cipta BPSBP [Lihat halaman sebelah]
SULIT

SULIT 12 1119/1

Questions 33 to 36
Which paragraph (A – F) describes the following ideas of renewable energy?
Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet.

Statements Paragraph

33 Renewable energy sector provides job opportunities.

34 Climate change results in so many things.

35 Renewable energy might be the answer to climate change.

36 Greenhouse gases is caused by our dependency on fossil fuels.

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD
Questions 37 to 40
Complete the notes below using information from the text. Choose no more than one word from the passage for
each answer.
Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet.

Renewable Energy – Random Facts

• Besides creating job opportunities, renewable energy sector also supplies more access to energy especially in

developing countries, besides helping to reduce energy (37) .

• Renewable energy has always been discussed alongside the issue of (38) change.

• Renewable energy does not mean that it will be constantly (39) .

• Climate change is a term used to label the complex modifications which affect our world’s

(40) and climate systems.

KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

1119/1 © Hak Cipta BPSBP SULIT

SULIT

PENTAKSIRAN DIAGNOSTIK AKADEMIK
SEKOLAH BERASRAMA PENUH

PEPERIKSAAN AKHIR TAHUN TINGKATAN 4 1119/2

BAHASA INGGERIS

KERTAS 2
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD
1 1 jam Satu jam dan tiga puluh minit
2

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

Arahan: For Examiner’s Use
1. Kertas ini mengandungi TIGA bahagian: Bahagian 1, 2 dan 3.
2. Jawab kesemua bahagian di dalam kertas jawapan yang disediakan. Part Total Marks
3. Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 20 minit untuk Bahagian 1,
30 minit untuk Bahagian 2, dan 40 minit bagi Bahagian 3. 1 20

Instructions: 2 20
1. This question paper consists of THREE parts: Parts 1, 2 and 3.
2. Answer all parts in the answer booklet or test pad provided. 3 20
3. You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Part 1, 30 minutes on Part 2,
and 40 minutes on Part 3. Total 60

[Lihat halaman sebelah]
1119/2 © Hak Cipta BPSBP SULIT

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHDSULIT 14 1119/2
Part 1

You must answer this question.
Question 1
Read the following email you received from your sister, Diana.

Hi Susan,
I am thinking of getting mum a birthday present for her 44th birthday. How about a new handbag or a trip
to Langkawi? You might have something in mind too. By the way, the sale is on with plenty of discounts
for many items.
So, let me know.
Bye!

Now write an email to your sister in about 80 words. Write your answer below.

EMAIL

TO :

SUBJECT :















SEND SULIT
1119/2 © Hak Cipta BPSBP

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHDSULIT 15 1119/2

Part 2
You must answer the question. Write your answer in 125–150 words in an appropriate style.

Question 2
Your class has been discussing where to go for your class trip during the year-end school holiday, and your teacher
has asked you to write an essay about where you would like to go.
In your essay, write about:

• the place you have chosen to go
• cost of the trip
• activities you have planned for the class trip

Write your essay using all of the notes and give reasons for your point of view.

























1119/2 © Hak Cipta BPSBP [Lihat halaman sebelah]
SULIT

SULIT 16 1119/2

Part 3
Write an answer to one of the questions 3 – 5 in this part. Write your answer in 200 – 250 words in an appropriate
style on this question paper. Put the question number in the box at the top of the answer space.

Question 3
You have been asked to share advice and ways on how students can look after themselves and manage their studies
while they are at home during lockdown as a result of the Covid-19 pandemic. Your article will be published in the
school magazine.

Write your article.

Question 4
You recently saw this notice in an online magazine.

MY FAVOURITE MOVIE THIS YEAR

Have you watched any interesting movies lately?
Send us your movie review.

Say what you enjoyed about the movie. What did you think about the plot and the
characters? What were the strengths and weaknesses of the movie?
Would you recommend the movie to your friends? Why?

Write your review.

Question 5
Your teacher has asked you to write a story for the school magazine. The story must have the title:

The Most Important Day of My Life

Your story should include:
• a description of the day
• the reasons the day was very important and meaningful

Write your story.
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD

1119/2 © Hak Cipta BPSBP SULIT

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHDMarking Scheme for
Kertas 2 Penulisan

SPM Assessment Marking Criteria

All of the Examination Syndicate’s English language proficiency examinations are now aligned with the levels
described by the CEFR (Common European Framework of Reference). SPM writing assessment criteria (and
tasks) have been developed in accordance with the CEFR descriptors and the features of performance which
they ascribe to different proficiency levels.

Guidance for writing examiners

• In every instance, the primary consideration is: which descriptor best describes the composition being
evaluated. If you are unsure about other considerations (e.g. this seems to be covered under both sub-scale
x and y; I may be penalising the candidate more than once; but what about feature x?; would this candidate
pass or not; why is no one getting a 5), go back to asking this fundamental question.

▪ Positive phrasing of descriptors does not mean that a performance at that level has no weaknesses.
By comparing a descriptor to those adjacent to it, above and below, it should be evident what level of
ability and weakness is being described. For descriptors 1 and 5 in a particular level’s scale, the adjacent
lower and higher descriptor may be found in the overall scale.

▪ Candidates may achieve high marks on one criterion but low marks on another criterion; they should
be marked accordingly. For example, a composition may cover and develop all content elements, but
use the wrong genre and register. In that case, it may get a 5 for Content and a 1 for Communicative
Achievement.

▪ When achievement of descriptors vary, (e.g. stronger vocabulary coupled with weaker grammar,
content elements covered but not appropriately developed), or not all parts of the descriptor achieved, the
adjacent score point may be the most appropriate.

▪ Score points 2 and 4: There are two ways for compositions to receive the undefined levels (2 and 4):
(1) a performance that reflects part of the higher descriptor and part of the lower descriptor, and (2) a
performance is clearly better than the lower descriptor and also clearly worse than the higher descriptor.

▪ Base evaluations on the totality of the writing presented. For example, do not overly focus on any
one particular instance of a spelling error, and do not let that one particular instance over-influence the
candidate’s mark for Language.

▪ When in doubt about some aspect of a performance, look for evidence elsewhere in the performance that
might remove the ambiguity.

▪ Overlength/underlength scripts: Length is not a criterion in the mark scheme. Scripts should be read in
full and marked as presented. A response that is longer/shorter than the guideline number of words may
be entirely appropriate, and its score should not be affected. On the other hand, an over-length script may
result in irrelevance (assessed under Content) or have an adverse effect on the target reader (assessed
under Communicative Achievement) and should be marked down as appropriate in those sub-scales.

A1

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHDSimilarly, an under-length script may not exhibit an adequate range of language, may not communicate
effectively and/or provide adequate information, which would affect its score in the relevant sub-scales.

▪ Lifting from the input beyond key words and phrases: Candidates should not be given credit for parts of
their response that have been lifted from the input. Lifted output may however provide negative evidence
about candidates’ abilities and should be considered and evaluated accordingly.

▪ Varieties of English: Candidates are expected to use a particular variety of English with some degree of
consistency in areas such as spelling, and not for example switch from using a British spelling of a word
to an American spelling of the same word in the same written response to a given task.

▪ Spelling is considered under the Language criterion.

▪ Punctuation is one factor among others under the Organisation criterion.

▪ ‘Generally’ is a downshifting qualifier meaning ‘not in every way/instance’. Thus, ‘generally
appropriately’ is not as good as ‘appropriately’.


A2

SPM Writing
Assessment Scale

SPM Writing Part 1

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHDSCORE CONTENTCOMMUNICATIVEORGANISATION LANGUAGE
ACHIEVEMENT
5 All content is Uses simple Uses basic vocabulary
relevant to the Produces a text connectors and a appropriately.
task. that communicates limited number of
straightforward ideas cohesive devices Uses simple
Target reader is using the conventions appropriately. grammatical forms
fully informed. of the communicative with a good degree of
task reasonably control.
appropriately.
While errors
are noticeable,
meaning can still be
determined.

4 Performance shares features of Scores 3 and 5

3 Minor Produces a text that Text is connected Uses basic vocabulary

irrelevances and/ communicates simple using basic, reasonably.

or omissions ideas in simple ways. high frequency

may be present. connectors. Uses simple

grammatical forms

Target reader with some degree of

is on the whole control.

informed.

Errors may impede

meaning at times.

2 Performance shares features of Scores 1 and 3

1 Irrelevances Produces isolated short Production unlikely Produces basic

and/or units about simple and to be connected, vocabulary of isolated

misinterpretation concrete matters, not though punctuation words and phrases.

of the task may always communicating and simple

be present. successfully. connectors (e.g. Produces few simple

and) may be used on grammatical forms

Target reader occasion. with only limited

is minimally control.

informed.

0 Content is totally

irrelevant. Target Performance below Score 1
reader is not

informed.

A3

SPM Writing Part 2

SCORE CONTENT COMMUNICATIVE ORGANISATION LANGUAGE
ACHIEVEMENT
5 All content is Text is generally Uses a range of
relevant to the Uses the conventions well-organised and everyday vocabulary
task. of the communicative coherent, using a with occasional
task to hold the target variety of cohesive inappropriate use of
Target reader is reader’s attention devices. less common lexis.
fully informed. and communicate
straightforward ideas Uses a range of simple
appropriately. and some complex
grammatical forms
with a good degree of
control.
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD
Errors do not impede
communication.

4 Performance shares features of Scores 3 and 5

3 Minor Produces a text Uses simple Uses basic vocabulary

irrelevances and/ that communicates connectors and a appropriately.

or omissions straightforward ideas limited number of

may be present. using the conventions cohesive devices Uses simple

of the communicative appropriately. grammatical forms

Target reader task reasonably with a good degree of

is on the whole appropriately. control.

informed.

While errors are
noticeable, meaning
can still be determined

2 Performance shares features of Scores 1 and 3

1 Irrelevances Produces a text that Text is connected Uses basic vocabulary

and/or communicates simple using basic, reasonably.

misinterpretation ideas in simple ways. high frequency

of task may be connectors. Uses simple

present. grammatical forms

with some degree

0 Content is totally
irrelevant.

Target reader is Performance below Score 1
not informed.

A4

SPM Writing Part 3

SCORE CONTENT COMMUNICATIVE ORGANISATION LANGUAGE
ACHIEVEMENT
5 All content is Text is well- Uses a range of
relevant to the Uses the conventions of organised and vocabulary, including
task. the communicative task coherent, using a less common lexis,
effectively to hold the variety of cohesive appropriately.
Target reader is target reader’s attention devices with
fully informed. and communicate generally good Uses a range of
with ease, fulfilling effect. simple and complex
all communicative grammatical forms
purposes. with control and
flexibility.
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD
Occasional errors and
slips may be present.

4 Performance shares features of Scores 3 and 5

3 Minor Uses the conventions Text is generally Uses a range of

irrelevances and/ of the communicative well-organised and everyday vocabulary

or omissions task to hold the coherent, using a with occasional

may be present. reader’s attention variety of cohesive inappropriate use of

and communicate devices. less common lexis.

Target reader straightforward ideas

is on the whole appropriately. Uses a range of simple

informed. and some complex

grammatical forms

with a good degree of

control.

Errors do not impede
communication.

2 Performance shares features of Scores 1 and 3

1 Irrelevances Produces a text Uses simple Uses basic vocabulary

and/or that communicates connectors and a appropriately.

misinterpretation straightforward ideas limited number of

of task may be using the conventions cohesive devices Uses simple

present. of the communicative appropriately. grammatical forms

task reasonably with a good degree of

Target reader appropriately. control.

is minimally

informed. While errors

are noticeable,

meaning can still be

determined.

0 Content is totally
irrelevant.

Target reader is Performance below Score 1
not informed.

A5

PEPERIKSAAN AKHIR TAHUN TINGKATAN 4

KERTAS 1PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD19 D
1 C 20 C
2 C 21 D
3 B 22 C
4 A 23 C
5 B 24 A
6 C 25 D
7 B 26 B
8 A 27 D
9 B 28 B
10 A 29 F
11 B 30 E
12 C 31 G
13 C 32 H
14 A 33 B
15 B 34 D
16 C 35 A
17 D 36 C
18 A

37 bills
38 climate
39 sustainable
40 weather

*Questions 37 – 40 accept only word perfect responses

KERTAS 2
Sample answers
Part 1

Hi Diana,
Thanks for asking me. I simply cannot believe that Mum is turning 44! I think a new handbag is a good idea as she
only has one other handbag that Dad had bought ages ago. Besides, that handbag looks the worse for wear. I cannot
bear to see Mum carrying it any longer! She deserves something elegant and functional at the same time. The trip
to Langkawi is a great idea as well. However, Mum would insist on a family outing to the island as opposed to her
spending some time away from her responsibilities. That is the reason I would prefer we get her a handbag. As you
said, the sale is on. As such, we are bound to get a good bargain. I will be coming home this weekend so, we could
head to town to get it if you are agreeable with my suggestion.
Let me know. Bye.

Part 2
I would like to suggest having our year-end class trip on Pulau Redang. Why? Simply because there is a lot to

do there! First of all, the beaches there have crystal clear waters meaning that you can see what’s beneath the waves.
It would be the best place to be and have a holiday for our class.

We can spend four days three nights there in the hotel that is very affordable. It would be cheaper if we were to
book it this month. Booking.com and Agoda are giving very attractive discounts. It would cost RM100 per person
for a night. This covers three meals per day as well as activities arranged by the hotel. It comes to RM300 per person.
Transportation is another RM100 per person which includes the bus rental and the boat ride to the island. So the total
would be RM400.

A holiday there would mean we can enjoy the beautiful beach, the crystal clear waters and have a whale of a time
snorkeling. We can quite literally swim with the fishes. The underwater scenery is also mesmerising and bewitching
due to the coral reefs and a multitude of sea dwellers such as giant clams, sea urchins and tonnes of different fishes.

Furthermore, the hotel can also arrange for us to have a seaside bbq one of the nights so that would be great fun.

A6

PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHDWe could have a campfire too. In addition to swimming and snorkelling, we can also play beach volleyball and go
island hopping, which can be arranged by the hotel, but at an additional cost of course.

I think these reasons are enough to justify my location of choice. Let’s make it happen for our class. We deserve
it.

Part 3
Question 4

Review of the film ‘Schindler’s List’
Steven Spielberg took to the screen to tell a tragic yet very real series of events that had gone untold since the
tragic events of the Holocaust. With every frame, Spielberg demonstrates the power of the film maker to create a
movie that tells a story respectfully, but in all brutal honesty.
The film depicts so many different messages to the audience, but the reality that one man can make a difference
is the hardest hitting. Schindler’s List was nominated for twelve Academy Awards and won seven of them, and out of
respect for the people that had lost their lives in Auschwitz; Spielberg did not film inside the camp. The use of black
and white, added elements of colour, offscreen killing and audio only ground the film more and add to its success.
The point of the film is not to enjoy watching a movie with friends, it is supposed to jerk emotions and these elements
bring you back to reality; that this story is real and horrifying.
Almost all the film is presented in black and white and by using this technique Spielberg gives the audience a
more vivid sense of being in the same era as World War II in which the movie is set. Because the colour is drained,
so too is the feeling of happiness or freedom, as absence of colour compared to abundance of colour can very easily
represent depressing settings compared to cheerful settings. The scene in which Jewish working women are telling
‘bedtime stories’ on the way other Jews were treated really captures the use of black and white and how dark it makes
the scene. The women tell the others in the cabin that people were lined up and forced into a bunker to ‘shower’ but
were gassed instead, which is the truth but at this time none of them believe it, and the use of black and white in such
a scene shows that there is no hope, no life or colour despite the women not wanting to believe this woman is telling
the truth. They start to justify how this had to be rumour, and this shows them clinging to false hope in a black and
white scene. One of the techniques that the film is famous for is its use of colour in an all-black and white setting. The
film begins in colour, and this colour serves as hope. The candle being lit for the Sabbath shows a time where Jewish
tradition was upheld, but the smoke from the candle quickly fades into train smoke – again in black and white to show
hope fading away like smoke. The colour represents a time in which Nazism had not yet sucked the life and colour
from the world. Beginning this movie with a Jewish tradition reinforces that this film is about the story of the Jewish
people, not the Nazi’s. The effective use of colour in this scene allows us to set a scene for the time before the Nazi
party took over, when there was colour, hope and tradition for the Jewish people.
A filming technique that is commonly used by Spielberg is offscreen killings or assumptive killings. Although
the movie has its fair share of bloodshed, there are certain moments where the actual execution of the Jews is done
off screen and left to the imagination. During the scene at Auschwitz where a female Schindler Jew views another
group of Jews being led down into an underground room. Instead of showing us what goes on in there, the camera
tilts upward showing a large smoking chimney, which leaves the audience to imagine that the Jews are being burned
alive. Since the audience didn’t view what happened, they are left to their own imagination which allows them to
reflect on the reality which is why this filming technique works so well.
Another example of this technique is when the ashes fall from the sky, and although the children are oblivious
to it, some of the older and wiser people realise where it has come from, as do the audience and again you are left to
reflect on what you believe is happening. This allows the audience to play into their imagination using the information
gathered so far, which can be more confronting than viewing the murders on screen.
The use of audio in the film is used effectively to help the audience relate in a sense to the Jewish and alienate
the Germans; this is done not only through music but through language. In the scene where hundreds of Jewish
bodies are being burned in a large fire, there is a sombre choir track used which elevates the presence of evil. The
slow music only allows you to concentrate on the confronting scene more. One audio aspect of the film is designed
on the basis that most of the audience watching will be of English speaking background, so that when they hear the
German soldiers speaking in German, they probably won’t understand what they are saying, which alienates the
already sourly portrayed Nazis and puts the audience in the position of the Jews, who speak English. It is a common
belief that humans fear worst what they don’t understand, and the Jews are constantly subjected to vicious yelling in
a language they don’t understand whilst being ordered around. This makes both them and the audience wonder where
they’re going to be taken and creates the fear of what horrors may come rather than what horrors are already present.
This is effective in allowing us to relate to a certain part of the movie, and when you can relate to the confusion and
fear you are able to gather how the Jewish must be feeling.

A7

The film Schindler’s List is not one for enjoyment or entertainment but for knowledge, and to remind us of the
horrors of war, which should never be repeated.

Question 5
The Most Important Day of My Life

The most important day of my life had just happened recently. It all started out when some friends and I were
bored. We wanted to do something that was fun and cool which also happened to be very bad. We decided we were
going to make a big firecracker.

The first thing we did was to go to a hardware store. We went there and looked around for a long time, till we
decided what we wanted to use in the firecracker. I watched a TV show the night before about bombs on PBS (Public
Broadcast System). So when I told my friends what I watched we decided to make a pipe-bomb. We bought the pipe
and went back to my house.

Once we got back to my house we started assembling the bomb. I remember watching how to make it off PBS.
So we first drilled a hole on one end of the cap so that the fuse could fit through it. Then we began to fill the pipe with
black powder. Once it got half full we stuck the fuse in, and began to fill it up with more black powder. Once it was
almost full we stopped, and we filled the rest up with hot glue. We did not know if the glue would ignite it or not
so we tested it out on a small sample of black powder. The glue did not ignite the black powder, so we filled up the
pipe with hot glue. We then screwed the steal cap back on the pipe with the fuse sticking out. We were done with
making the bomb.

Last we decided what to do with it now that it was done. All of us were in a destructive mood at the time. So
we ended up going out in the middle of the woods where no one lived for 10 km. We found these bed mattresses that
someone had thrown away. So we stuck the bomb in between there and lit it and took off in a car. We were about
1 km away, and we stopped and got out of the car. All of us were sitting there wondering if it would go off or not. It
was about two minutes and nothing happened. Then out of nowhere it exploded. You saw the huge explosion first
then heard it. We all were amazed how big of a smoke cloud it made and how loud it was. Everyone was scared,
and we decided to leave in case someone saw it. Later that day we went back to see what the explosion did to the
mattresses. It put a hole through both of the mattresses and a 3 foot crater in the ground. Everyone was laughing and
looking at each other saying “That was cool.” Nobody ever was caught for that or got in any trouble.

In conclusion that was the most important day of my life because it was the most fun I ever had in my life. It
also showed me what you can do if you put your mind to it. This story is 100% fictional because I could not think of
my most important day.
PESBNPERBBaIhTasMaAInHIgRgeSriDsN BHD
PEPERIKSAAN FOKUS SIJIL PELAJARAN MALAYSIA SET 1

KERTAS 1 19 D
1 A 20 D
2 A 21 A
3 A 22 A
4 C 23 A
5 B 24 D
6 C 25 C
7 B 26 D
8 C 27 H
9 A 28 A
10 C 29 F
11 D 30 C
12 A 31 B
13 D 32 E
14 D 33 A
15 A 34 C
16 C 35 B
17 B 36 F
18 D

37 Mantanani
38 Survivor

A8

KERTAS MODEL PEPERIKSAAN

SBPPeneraju
Kemahiran
Berfikir
Aras Tinggi

PENTAKSIRAN DIAGNOSTIK AKADEMIK

SPM

BAHASA INGGERIS

Kertas Model Peperiksaan Sekolah Berasrama Penuh (SBP) digubal berdasarkan
format peperiksaan SPM terbaharu 2021. Siri ini dirancang khusus untuk murid
menghadapi peperiksaan sekali gus mencapai keputusan cemerlang.
Kelebihan siri ini ialah:

Soalan yang menepati piawaian SPM.
Soalan berkualiti yang dibentuk oleh guru-guru pakar SBP.
Soalan Kemahiran Ber kir Aras Tinggi (KBAT).
Skema jawapan berstruktur untuk penskoran A+.
Diguna pakai sepenuhnya di sekolah-sekolah yang menghasilkan keputusan cemerlang.

Judul-judul dalam siri ini:

BAHASA MELAYU MATEMATIK TAMBAHAN
BAHASA INGGERIS FIZIK
SEJARAH KIMIA
PENDIDIKAN ISLAM BIOLOGI
MATEMATIK

Mahir Holdings Sdn. Bhd.(172427-D) Semenanjung Malaysia: RM8.90
Sabah & Sarawak : RM9.70
PENERBIT MAHIR SDN. BHD. (183897-P) ISBN 978-967-2221-71-5
8, Jalan 7/152, Taman Perindustrian OUG,
Batu 6 1/2, Jalan Puchong, 9 789672 221715
58200 Kuala Lumpur.
Tel : +603 7772 7800
Fax : +603 7785 1800
[email protected]