TOEFL PREPARATION - Pangsoed 2020

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Section 1 Listening
Comprehension

50 Questions 40 Minutes
( including the reading of the directions for each part )

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversations and talks in English. There are two parts to this section with special directions for each part.
Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. When you
take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write i n your test book.

Part A

Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you
will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After
you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on
your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in ( darken ) the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

1. (A) He doesn‟t mind the traffic
(B) He takes the bus to school.
(C) He has to stand on the bus if he takes it to school.
(D) He wants to ride to school with the woman

2. (A) The woman should not consider her advisor in the decision
(B) The woman should not take Dr. Sullivan‟s section.
(C) The woman‟s advisor will not be offended.

(D) The woman should not take a physics course.

3. (A) She is not interested in the man
(B) She does not like lectures
(C) She would go out with the man on another occasion
(D) She would rather stay at home

4. (A) The bike is in good condition
(B) The man needs to replace the bike
(C) The bike is missing
(D) It is a new bike

5. (A) Something cold (B) Coffee
(C) Tea (D) Both coffee and tea

6. (A) Ask directions (B) Walk to the shopping centre
(C) Take a taxi (D) Wait for the bus

7. (A) She does not plan to study
(B) She has a very busy schedule
(C) She is lost
(D) She has not registered ye

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8. (A) He does not want to listen to the radio
(B) He has changed his opinion about turning on the radio
(C) The radio will not bother him
(D) The radio is not working well

9. (A) Stop worrying (B) Go out more
(C) Talk to a friend (D) Get counseling

10. (A) He prefers to talk another time
(B) He wants the woman to go away
(C) He would like the woman to continue
(D) He doesn‟t know what to think

11. (A) Accept the woman‟s apology
(B) Allow the woman to go ahead of him
(C) Apologize to the woman
(D) Go to the front of the line

12. (A) The neighbors have parties often

(B) She does not like her neighbors
(C) The neighbor‟s party is disturbing her
(D) She will not be invited to the neighbors‟ party

13. (A) Dr. Franklin is not very understanding
(B) The extension was a very bad idea
(C) He is surprised that the woman denied his request
(D) The professor does not have a policy

14. (A) They do not have a telephone (B) They are late
(C) They have been left (D) They got lost

15. (A) Pay the rent half a month
(B) Help the man move
(C) Stay where she is living until the 15th
(D) Move out of the apartment

16. (A) She has already taken the test
(B) She did not want to take classes
(C) She had not taken the placement test
(D) She would take the math classes later

17. (A) The plan is to remain in the class
(B) It is not comfortable in the classroom
(C) He has been absent because he was sick
(D) The weather has been very bad

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Part B

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations, talks and discussions. After each
conversation, talk or discussion, you hear several questions. The conversations, talks, discussions and
questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and
choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in ( darken
) the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on your test papers. 18

to 21 ( Listen to the conversation with a Professor )

18. (A) He was late arriving at registration
(B) He needs an advisor‟s suggestion on a course request form

(C) He is not doing well in the class because it is so large

(D) He must have the permission of the instructor to enroll in a class

19. (A) Help him with the class
(B) Explain some technical vocabulary
(C) Give him special permission to take the class
(D) Take a form to the registration area

20. (A) He has planned to graduate in the fall
(B) He has to take Professor Day‟s class in order to graduate

(C) He needs the professor to sign his application for graduation

(D) He does not have enough credits for graduation

21. (A) Enroll Mike in the class next year
(B) Allow Mike to take the class this term
(C) Give Mike permission to graduate without the class
(D) Register Mike for another class

22 – 25 ( Listen to a talk by a Business Instructor )

22. (A) A slow, soft song
(B) Music in restaurants
(C) Background music
(D) A pleasant addition to the environment

23. (A) Thirteen percent (B) Five to ten percent
(C) One hundred percent (D) Thirty percent

24. (A) Background music that is low in stimulus value
(B) Upbeat music that stimulates sales
(C) Music engineered to reduce stress
(D) Music that starts slow and gets faster at time of the day when people get tired

25. (A) It can cause shoppers to go through the line faster
(B) It can cause shoppers to buy thirty percent more or less
(C) It can cause shoppers to walk slower and buy more
(D) It does not influence sales

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26 – 29 ( Listen to a Public Service Announcement )

26. (A) The “Sun-Up Semester” program
(B) The Community College campus
(C) Video telecourses
(D) Technology for distance learning

27. (A) To clarify how to register
(B) To advertise the college
(C) To provide a listing of courses
(D) To give students an alternative to video tapes

28. (A) They should come to campus
(B) They can call the Community College
(C) They must contact the instructor
(D) They can use computers

29. (A) By using e-mail
(B) By calling KCC7-TV
(C) By writing letters
(D) By making video tapes

30 – 33 ( Listen to a part of a conversation between two friends on campus )

30. (A) The woman‟s health
(B) The woman‟s grade
(C) The man‟s joke
(D) The man‟s stress

31. (A) She was taking too many classes
(B) She was very tired because she studied too late
(C) She had been ill last semester
(D) She may have to withdraw from school this semester

32. (A) Many students get mono while they are in college
(B) If one student gets mono, the whole college becomes infected
(C) It is a joke about college students that the woman tells
(D) The disease was first identified on a college campus

33. (A) Drop out of school for a semester and return later
(B) Study harder to learn all the lessons this semester
(C) Take fewer hours each semester and add one semester to the program
(D) Add extra classes to the program even if it requires another semester

34 – 37 ( Listen to a talk by a College Professor )

34. (A) The relationship between language and culture
(B) The culture of Hopi society
(C) Native American cultures
(D) The life of Benjamin Lee Whorf

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35. (A) European languages
(B) South American languages
(C) Native American languages
(D) Computer languages

36. (A) All languages are related
(B) All Native American languages are related
(C) Language influences the manner in which an individual understands reality
(D) Language and culture are not related

37. (A) The Sapir-Hypothesis
(B) The Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis
(C) The Sapir-Whorf-Boas Hypothesis
(D) The American Indian Model of the Universe

38 – 41 ( Listen to a part of a class discussion in an Environment Science class )

38. (A) Air Pollution
(B) Acid rain
(C) Fossil fuels
(D) The Great Lakes

39. (A) Precipitation that is polluted by sulfuric acid and nitric acid
(B) Rain that falls after a long period of severe drought
(C) Large concentration of acid in the soil around the Great Lakes
(D) Water vapor that is mixed with a high concentration of sulfur

40. ( could be 1 of 2 correct answers )
(A) The air now contains dangerous levels of carbon monoxide
(B) Weather patterns have been distributed
(C) Water resources have been polluted
(D) The soil has been depleted of nutrients

41. (A) Companies in the United States must control pollution that could affect Canadian resources
(B) There are limits placed on the quantity of acidic deposits that can cross the border
(C) Governments and agencies will regulate automobile emissions
(D) Fuels cannot contain any sulfur near the border

42 – 45 ( Listen to a part of a lecturer in a Microbiology Class )

42. (A) Three major types of bacteria
(B) How microscopic organisms are measured
(C) How bacteria is used for research in genetics
(D) Diseases caused by bacteria

43. ( could be 1 of 2 correct answers )
(A) They have one cell
(B) They are harmful to humans
(C) They reproduce quickly
(D) They die when exposed to air

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44. cocci bacteria?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

45. (A) Bacteria have unusual cell formations
(B) Bacteria live harmlessly on the skin, mouth, and intestines
(C) Bacteria are similar to other life forms
(D) Bacteria cause many diseases in humans

46 – 50 ( Listen to a part of a conversation between a Student and an Academic Advisor in a campus )

46. (A) The man needs help changing his schedule
(B) The man is looking for a job in the morning
(C) The man is trying to get a student loan
(D) The man is changing his major to sociology

47. (A) He wants to graduate as soon as possible
(B) He must be a full-time student to qualify for his loan
(C) His advisor insists that he study full time
(D) All the courses are required

48. (A) It is a required course
(B) It is offered in the afternoon
(C) It is taught by Dr. Brown
(D) It is a sociology class

49. (A) Help the man withdraw from school
(B) Change the man‟s class schedule
(C) Give the man a student loan
(D) Change the man‟s major

50. (A) Go to Dr. Brown‟s office
(B) See Dr. Brown in class
(C) Call Dr. Brown
(D) Send the form to Dr. Brown

THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING COMPREHENSION SECTION

TOEFL New Edition

DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST

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Section 2
Structure and Written Expressions

40 Questions 25 Minutes
( including the reading of the directions for each part )

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard
written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.

Structure

Direction: Question 1 – 15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence, you will see four
words or phrases, mark (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes
the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in ( darken ) the space so that the
letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

1. Simple photographic lenses cannot _______ sharp, undistorted images over a wide field.
A. to form
B. are formed
C. forming
D. form

2. Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one _______ the most.
A. it influencers farmers
B. that influences farmers
C. farmers that it influences
D. why farmers influence it

3. Beverly sills, _________________, assumed directorship of the New York City Opera in 1979.
A. be a star soprano
B. was a star soprano
C. a star soprano and
D. a star soprano

4. ____________ of tissues is known as histology.
A. Studying scientific
B. The scientific study
C. To study scientifically
D. That is scientifically studying

5. With the exception of mercury, __________ at standard temperature and pressure.
A. the metallic elements are solid
B. which is solid metallic element
C. metallic elements being solid
D. since the metallic elements are solid

6. Potential dehydration is ___________________ that a land animal faces.
A. the often greatest hazard
B. the greatest often hazard
C. often the greatest hazard
D. often the hazard greatest

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7. By tracking the eye of a hurricane, forecasters can determine the speed at which __________.
A. is a storm moving
B. a storm is moving
C. is moving a storm
D. a moving storm

8. Tie Grapes of Wrath, a novel about the Depression years of the 1930’s, is one of John Steinback’s
_____ books.
A. most famous
B. the most famous
C. are most famous
D. and most famous

9. Technology will play a key role in ______ future life-style.
A. to shape
B. shaping
C. shape of
D. shaped

10. The computer has dramatically affected _______ photographic lenses are constructed.
A. is the way
B. that the way
C. which way do
D. the way

11. The early railroads were ______ the existing arteries of transportation: roads, turnpikes, canals,
and other waterways.
A. those short lines connected
B. short lines that connected
C. connected by short lines
D. short connecting lines

12. ______ as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it was created.
A. Ranks
B. The ranking
C. To be ranked
D. For being ranked

13. Jackie Robinson, ________ to play baseball in the major leagues, joined the Brooklyn Dodgers in 1947.
A. The Black American who first
B. The first Black American
C. Was the first Black American
D. The first and a black American who

14. During the flood of 1927, the Red Cross, ______ out of emergency headquarters in Mississippi,
set up temporary shelters for the homeless.
A. operates
B. is operating
C. has operated
D. operating
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15. In bacteria and in other organisms, ______ is the nucleic acid DNA that provides the genetic information.
A. both
B. which
C. and
D. it

Written Expressions

Direction: In question 16 – 40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined
parts of the sentences are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one word or phrase that must be
changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in ( darken
) the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

16. Twenty to thirty year after a mature forest is cleared away a nearly impenetrable thicket of trees

(A) (B) (C)
and shrubs develops.

(D)

17. The first national park in word Yellowstones National Park, was established in 1872.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

18. Because it does not have a blood supply, the cornea takes their oxygen directly form the air.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

19. Magnificent montains and coastal scenery is British Columbia’s chief tourist attraction .

(A) (B) (C) (D)

20. Scientists at universities are often more involved in theoritical research than in practically

(A) (B) (C) (D)

research.

21. John Rosamond Johson he composed numerous songs, including Lift Every Voice and Sing, for
(A) (B) (C)

which his brother, James Weldon Johnson, wrote te words.
(D)

22. Nylon, a synthetic done from a combination water, air and a by-product of coal, was first

(A) (B) (C)

introduced in 1938.
(D)

23. Ornithology, the study of birds, is one of the major scientific fields in which amateurs play a role

(A) (B) (C)

in accumulating, researching, and publishing data.
(D)

24. Animation is a technique for creating the illusion of life in inanimate things.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

25. The nonviolent protest advocated by Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., proving highly effective in an
(A) (B)

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age of expanding television news coverage.
(C) (D)

26. On December 7, 1787, Delaware became a first state to ratify the constitution.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

27. Nutritionist believe what diet affects how one feels physically and emotionally.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

28. Meali Kalama, creator over 400 Hawaiian quilts, was granted a National Heritage Felowship in
(A) (B)

1985 herself contributions to folk art.
(C) (D)

29. A jetty serves to define and deepen a channel, improve navigate, or protect a harbour.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

30. Minoru Yamasaki is an American architect whose works departed from the austerity frequently

(A) (B) (C)

associated with architecture in the United States after the Second World War.

(D)

31. Chemical research provides information that is useful for the textile industry in the creation of

(A) (B) (C) (D)

synthetic fabrics.

32. Jane Addams, social worker, author, and spokeswoman for the peace and women’s suffrage

(A)

movements, she received the Nobel prize in 1931 for her humanitarian achievements.

(B) (C) (D)

33. Bromyrite crystals have a diamond-like luster and are usually colorless, but they dark to brown
(A) (B) (C)

when exposed to light.
(D)

34. Stars in our universe vary in temperature, color, bright, size, and mass.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

35. Ice is less denser than the liquid from which it is formed.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

36. The 1983 Nobel prize in Medicine was awarded to barbara McClintock for her experiments with
(A) (B)

maize and her discoveries regardless the nature of DNA.
(C) (D)

37. In 1866 to 1883 the bison population in North America was recuced from an estimeted 13
(A) (B) (C)

million to a few hundred.
(D)

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38. Most of the damage property attributed to the San Francisco erarthquake of 1906 resulted from

(A) (B) (C)

the fire that followed.

(D)

39. James Baldwin’s plays and short stories, which are to some degree autobiograhical, established

(A) (B)
him as a leading figure in the United States civil right movement.

(C) (D)

40. Thunder can be listened from a maximun distance of about ten miles except under unsual

(A) (B) (C) (D)
atmospheric conditions.

THIS IS THE END OF THE STRUCTURE & WRITTEN EXPRESSIONS SECTION

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE 25 MINUTES HAS ENDED,
CHECK YOUR WORK ON SECTION 2 ONLY

DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST

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Section 3
Reading Comprehension

50 Questions 55 Minutes
( including the reading of the directions for each part )

Direction: In this section, you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions
about it. For questions 1 – 50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D) to each
question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in ( darken ) the space so that the letter
inside the oval cannot be seen.

Answer all questions about the information in the passage on the basis of what stated or implied in that
passage.

Questions 1 - 5

The English names of the last four months of the Gregorian calendar ( September, October, November,
December ) have rather interesting histories. The Gregorian calendar is a twelve-month calendar, so these
months are the ninth, tenth, eleventh, and twelfth months respectively. However, their names do not reflect
their positioning in the calendar. The name September comes from the Latin word septum, which means
”seven.” This month was originally the name of the seventh rather than the ninth month. Similarly, the
name October comes from the Latin octo ( “eight” ); the name November comes from the Latin novem (
“nine” ); the name December comes from the Latin decem („ten”).

1. The main topic of this passage is ….. (B) The Gregorian calendar
(D) Ten- and twelve-month calendars
(A) The origin of certain month names
(C) The numbers in Latin

2. The first month on the Gregorian calendar is probably ….

(A) March (B) May
(C) January (D) December

3. The passage states that in the original version of the calendar, September was the name of …

(A) The sixth month (B) The seventh month
(C) The eighth month (D) The ninth month

4. It can be inferred from the passage that November ….

(A) used to be the ninth month of the year
(B) is no longer part of the Gregorian calendar
(C) has always been the eleventh month
(D) was not part of the original Gregorian calendar

5. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage about December ?

(A) It is the twelfth month on the Gregorian calendar.
(B) Its name is derived from a Latin word.
(C) Its meaning comes from the number ten.
(D) It has 31 days.

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Questions 6 – 10

The largest diamond ever found is the Cullinan Diamond. This diamond weighed 3,106 carats in its
uncut state when it was discovered in South Africa on January 25, 1905.

The Cullinan Diamond was cut into 9 major stones and 96 smaller ones. The largest of the cut stones,
and still the largest cut diamond in the world, is the pear-shaped Cullinan I at 530 carats. This diamond,
which is also known as the Greater Star of Africa, is more than 2 inches (5,4 cm) Long and 1.75 inches (4.4
cm) wide. It became part of the British crown jewels in 1907.

6. What is the best title for this passage?

(A) Diamond Cutting
(B) The world‟s Biggest Diamond, Uncut and Cut
(C) Measuring Diamonds in Carats
(D) The British Crown Jewels

7. The word “uncut” in line 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

(A) Finished (B) Unnatural
(C) Pear (D) Whole

8. The word “discovered” in line 2 is closest in meaning to …..

(A) created (B) found
(C) buried (D) weighed

9. All of the following are true about the shape of the Greater Star of Africa EXCEPT that …

(A) It is in the shape of a pear (B) It is 5.4 centimeters long
(C) It is longer than it is wide (D) It is 4.4 inches wide

10. Where in the passage does the author mention the Cullinan Diamond‟s weight when

it was mined ?

(A) Lines 1 – 2 (B) Line 3
(C) Lines 4 – 5 (D) Line 6

Questions 11 – 16

It is a characteristic of human nature that people like to get together and have fun, and people living
during America‟s frontiers days were no exception. However, because life was hard and the necessities of
day-to-day living took up their time, it was common for recreation to be combined with activities necessary
for survival.

One example of such a form of recreation was logrolling. Many frontier areas were heavily wooded,
and in order to settle an area it was necessary to remove the trees. A settler could cut down the trees alone,
but help was needed to move the cut trees. After a settler had cut a bunch of trees, he would then invite his
neighbors over for logrolling.

A logrolling was a community event where families got together for a combination of work and fun.
The women would bring food and have a much needed and infrequent opportunity to relax and chat with
friends, the children would play together exuberantly, and the men would hold lively competitions that
involved rolling logs from place to place as possible. This was a day of fun everyone involved, but at its
foundation was the need to clear the land.

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11. The main idea of the passage is that in America‟s frontier days …….

(A) people combined work with recreation
(B) people cleared land by rolling logs
(C) it was necessary for early settlers to clear the land
(D) a logrolling involved the community

12. According to the passage, what did people have to do first to settle an area?

(A) Develop recreation ideas (B) Build farms
(C) Get rid of the trees (D) Invite neighbors over

13. The word “ exuberantly” in line 11 is closest in meaning to ….

(A) privately (B) laboriously
(C) enthusiastically (D) neatly

14. It can be inferred from the passage that competitions were held because …..

(A) It was the only way to move the logs
(B) Competition made the work fun
(C) Men refused to help unless there was competition
(D) The children could then help move the logs

15. Where in the passage does the author indicate what a settler did when he had a number of cut trees?

(A) Lines 2 – 4 (B) Line 5
(C) Lines 7 – 8 (D) Lines 9 – 10

16. This passage would most probably be assigned reading in which of the following courses?

(A) Forestry (B) Environmental Studies
(C) Psychology (D) History

Questions 17 – 22

Schizophrenia is often confused with multiple personality disorder yet is quite distinct from it.
Schizophrenia is one of the more common mental disorders, considerably more common than multiple
personality disorder. The term “ schizophrenia ” is composed of roots which mean “ a splitting of the mind,
“ but it does not refer to a division into separate and distinct personalities, as occurs in multiple personality
disorder. Instead, schizophrenic behavior is generally characterized by illogical thought patterns and
withdrawal from reality. Schizophrenia often live in a fantasy world where they hear voices that others
cannot hear, often voices of famous people. Schizophrenics tend to withdraw from families and friends
and communicate mainly with the “voices” that they hear in their minds.

It is common for the symptoms of schizophrenia to develop during the late teen years or early twenties,
but the causes of schizophrenia are not well understood. It is believed that heredity may play a part in the
onset of schizophrenia. In addition, abnormal brain chemistry also seems to have a role; certain brain
chemicals, called neurotransmitters, have been found to be at abnormal levels in some schizophrenics.

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17. The paragraph preceding the passage most probably discusses ….

(A) the causes of schizophrenia (B) multiple personality disorder
(C) the most common mental disorder (D) possible cures for schizophrenia

18. Which of the following is true about schizophrenia and multiple personality disorder?

(A) They are relatively similar.
(B) One is a psychological disorder, while the other is not
(C) Many people mistake one for the other
(D) Multiple personality disorder occurs more than schizophrenia.

19. “ Disorder “ in line 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

(A) Disruption (B) Untidiness
(C) Misalignment (D) Disease

20. It can be inferred from the passage that a “ schism” is …..

(A) a division into factions (B) a mental disease
(C) a personality trait (D) a part of the brain

21. According to the passage, how do schizophrenics generally relate to their families?

(A) They are quite friendly with their families.
(B) They become remote from their families.
(C) They have an enhanced ability to understand their families.
(D) They communicate openly with their families.

22. The word “onset” in line 11 is closest in meaning to …..

(A) start (B) medication (D) age
(C) effect

Questions 23 – 30

Psychologists have found that privately made resolutions are rarely followed, whereas a public commitment
to achieve some goal, such as losing weight or giving up smoking, is likely to be much more effective.
This is because the approval of others for reaching one‟s target is valued. In contrast, disapproval for failure
can lead to feelings of shame.

Advertising agencies have designed studies bearing out the truth of this observation. In their research,
a group of strangers was bombarded with information about the qualities of a particular product. They were
then asked to either announce out loud or write down privately whether they intended to buy the product. It
was later discovered that those who publicly declared their intention to buy were considerably more likely
to do so than those who affirmed their intentions in private.

In another study, an experimenter claiming to represent a local utility company interviewed
homeowners, telling them he was investigating ways in which energy consumption could be reduced.

Half the subjects, randomly selected, were told that if they agreed to converse energy, their names
would be mentioned in an article published in the local newspaper; the remaining half were told their names
would not be used. All those interviewed agreed to cooperate and signed a form either giving consent for
their names to be used. Later in the year, the amount of gas consumed in each house was recorded. The owners
who had agreed to their names being published had used significantly less gas than those who remained
anonymous.

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23. What is the main topic of this passage ?

(A) The commitment to converse energy
(B) The effectiveness of publicly stated commitments
(C) The results of studies done on advertising agencies
(D) The observations of the effects of advertising

24. The word “resolutions” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to …..

(A) declarations (B) explanation
(C) speculations (D) persuasions

25. It can be inferred that all of the following help motivate a person to achieve a goal EXCEPT

(A) a desire for approval (B) a fear of disapproval
(C) a fear of failure (D) a sense of no commitment

26. The word shame in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ….

(C) humility (A) anger(B) disgrace
(D) inadequacy

27. Why were advertising agencies probably interested in conducting their study ?

(A) They wanted to introduce their people to more products.
(B) They wanted to demonstrate the quality of their clients‟ products.
(C) They wanted to know if people intended to purchased their clients‟ products.
(D) They wanted to find the best way to get people to buy their clients‟ products.

28. The word bombarded in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ….

(A) bombed (B) attacked
(C) saturated (D) hampered

29. Look at the word They in paragraph 2, refers to ….

(A) advertising agencies (B) a group of strangers
(C) the qualities (D) their intentions

30. How did the experimenter in paragraph 3 find out how much gas the subject used?

(A) The amount was recorded.
(B) The amount was stated in the contract.
(C) The people published the amount.
(D) The people were given a limited amount.

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Questions 31 – 41

Robert Capa is a name that has for many years been synonymous with war photography.
Born in Hungary in 1913 as Friedmann Endre Ernő, Capa was forced to leave his native country after
his involvement in anti government protests. Capa had originally wanted to become a writer, but after his
arrival in Berlin had first found work as a photographer. He later left Germany and moved to France due to
the rise in Nazism. He tried o find work as a freelance journalist and it was here that he changed his name to
Robert Capa, mainly because he thought it would sound more American.
In 1936 after the breakout of the Spanish Civil war Capa went to Spain and it was here over the next
three years thathe built his reputation as a war photographer. It was here too in 1936 that he took one of
his most famous picture, The Death of a Loyalist Soldier. One of Capa‟s most famous quotes was „If your
pictures aren‟t good enough, you‟re not close enough.‟ And he took his attitude of getting close to the action
to an extreme. His photograph, The Death of a Loyalist Soldier is a prime example of this as Capa captures
the very moment the soldier falls. Though many have questioned the authenticity of this photograph,
claiming that it was staged.
When World war II broke out, Capa was in New York, but he was soon back in Europe covering the
war for Life magazine. Some of his most famous work was created on 6 th June 1944 when he swam ashore
with the first assault on Omaha Beach in the D-Day invasion of Normandy. Capa, armed only with two
cameras, took more than one hundred photographs in the first hour of the landing, but a mistake in the
darkroom during the drying of the film destroyed all but eight frames. It was the images from these frames
however that inspired the visual style of Steven Spielberg‟s Oscar winning movie „Saving Private Ryan‟.
When Life Magazine published the photographs, they claimed that they were slightly out of focus and Capa
later used this as the title of his autobiographical account of the war.
Capa‟s private life was no less dramatic. He was friend to many of Hollywood‟s directors, actors and
actresses. In 1943 he feel in love with the wife of actor Jane Austin. His affair with her lasted until the end
of the war and became the subject of his war memoirs. He was at one time lover to actress Ingrid Bergman.
Their relationship finally ended in 1946 when he refused to settle in Hollywood and went off to Turkey.
In 1947 Capa was among a group of photojournalists who founded Magnum Photos. This was a co-
operative organization set up to support photographers and help them to retain ownership of the copyright
to their work.
Capa went on to document many other wars. He never attempted to glamorize war though, but record the
horror. He once said, “The desire of any war photographer is to be put out of business”
Capa died as he had lived. After promising not to photograph any more wars, he accepted an assignment
to go to Indochina to cover the first Indochina war. On May 25th 1954 Capa was accompanying a French
regiment, when he left his jeep to take some photographs of the advance and stepped on a land mine. He
was taken to a nearby hospital, still clutching his camera, but was pronounced dead on arrival. He left behind
him a testament to the horrors of war and a standard for photojournalism that few others have been able to
reach.
Capa‟s legacy has lived on though and in 1966 his brother Cornell founded International Fund for
Concerned Photography in his honor. There is also a Robert Capa Gold Medal, which is given to the
photographer who publishes the best photographic reporting from abroad which demands exceptional
courage. But perhaps his greatest legacy of all are the haunting images of human struggles that he capture.

31. Why did Capa change his name?

(A) To hide his identity
(B) Because he had been involved in protests
(C) To sound more American
(D) Because he had to leave Hungary

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32. Capa originally wanted to be …… (B) a writer
(D) a protestor
(A) a photojournalist
(C) American

33. Capa went to Spain to …. (B) build his reputation
(D) take photographs.
(A) fight in the civil war
(C) have a holiday

34. Capa‟s famous picture Death of a Loyalist Soldier ……

(A) was taken by someone else (B) was definetly genuine
(C) wasn‟t even taken in Spain (D) cannot be proven genuine or staged

35. When World War II broke out Capa …. (B) swam a shore on Omaha Beach
(D) went to Normandy
(A) went to New York
(C) went to Europe

36. A mistake meant that …..

(A) only one hundred of Capa‟s photographs were published

(B) Capa lost both of his two cameras
(C) Capa‟s images inspired on Oscar Winning movie
(D) most of Capa‟s images of the D-Day landing were destroyed

37. Capa‟s private life was ….. (B) show how glamorous war can be
(D) make lots of money
(A) less dramatic than his professional life
(B) spent mostly in Hollywood
(C) very glamorous
(D) spent in Turkey

38. Capa wanted his work to ….

(A) be very famous
(C) show the true horror of war

39. Which sentence best paraphrases paragraph 5?

(A) Capa had a tragic private life and was never able to settle down and find happiness
(B) Despite having many good friends and lovers, Capa always put his work first.
(C) Capa wanted to make friend with important people in Hollywood so that he could move into

the movie industry
(D) Capa‟s private life was very complicated He could not choose between the two women he

loved, so he went off to work in Turkey

40. Which sentence best paraphrases Paragraph 4?

(A) Capa never tried to avoid danger. He risked his life to take photograph of the D-Day
invasion but then destroyed most of them

(B) Capa took some of his most famous photograph during the D-Day invasion, but most were
tragically destroyed in an accident.

(C) Capa only kept the best eight D-Day photographs as the others were out of focus. These
inspired the visual style of Hollywood film.

(D) Capa left Europe when the war broke out and went to take his most famous photographs of the
D-day invasion.

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41. Which THREE sentences in the box to your right best summarize the passage ?

 Sentence 1  Sentence 3  Sentence 5
 Sentence 2  Sentence 4  Sentence 6

1) Capa’s work tried to show the beauty within the horror of war, that’s why so many
photograph have tried to copy his work.

2) From his earliest years Capa was active in political journalism and reporting. This often got
him into trouble with the authorities.

3) Capa was not afraid to get close to his work and often risked his life to ensure that his
photographs were as good as they could be.

4) Capa wanted to have a glamorous life style and so he made friends with Hollywood film stars
and even had a film, ’Saving Private Ryan’ made about him.

5) Capa was deeply committed to trying to stop war and he left behind him a legacy that
photojournalists to continue this work.

6) Capa had always wanted to be as American as possible, so after the war he changed his
name and went to live in America.

(A) Sentence 1,3,5 (B) Sentence 2,4,6
(C) Sentence 2,3,5 (D) Sentence 1,4,6

Question 42 – 45

The Hubble Telescope

The Hubble telescope was launched into space with great fanfare on April 25, 1990. Although there are
many powerful telescopes at various locations on Earth, the Hubble telescope was expected to be able
provide considerably better information because it would be able to operate from the vacuum of space,
without interference from the Earth‟s atmosphere. By launching the Hubble telescope into space, NASA
was, in essence, placing an observatory above the Earth‟s atmosphere.

Unfortunately, the Hubble telescope was initially delayed in relaying its first pictures back from space
due to a simple mathematical miscalculation. The Hubble telescope relies upon certain stars to orient its
observations and astronomers working on the pointing instructions for the telescope used charts created in
1950, with adjustments for the movements of the stars in the ensuing period. In making these adjustments,
however, astronomers added the amount of the adjustment rather than subtracting it ~a simple checkbook-
balancing error. The adjustment was a change of only half a degree, but by adding half a degree rather than
subtracting it, the telescope‟s aim was misdirected by millions of miles.

42. Why does the author mention “many power full telescopes at various locations on Earth” in
paragraph 1?

(A) To emphasize the need for telescopes at various locations on Earth
(B) To show that the Hubble telescope was different from existing telescopes
(C) To indicate how the atmosphere improves the quality of information from space
(D) To emphasize the similarities between the Hubble telescope and other telescope

43. The author mentions “ a simple checkbook-balancing error” in paragraph 2 in order to
suggest that ……

(A) the astronomers must have difficulties with their checkbooks
(B) the adjustment made by the astronomers should have been more than half a degree
(C) a more balanced approach was needed when making adjustments
(D) the mistake made by the astronomers was a simple, everyday error

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44. Why does the author begin paragraph 2 with ”unfortunately”?
(A) It indicates that NASA has been unhappy with all of Hubble‟s photographs.
(B) It shows that NASA‟s plan to use stars to orient the Hubble telescope was misguided
(C) It emphasizes the need to have telescopes on Earth
(D) It indicates that high expectations were not initially met

45. The author uses the phrase “in essence” in paragraph 1 in order to indicate that the
information that follows the phrase …

(A) provides a simplified description of a previously stated situation
(B) indicates the cause of a previously stated effect
(C) provides further details about a previously stated main idea
(D) indicates the classification to which previously stated examples belong

Question 46 – 50

The earliest authentic works on European alchemy are those of the English monk Roger Bacon and
the German philosopher St. Albertus Magnus. In their treatises, they maintained that gold was the perfect
metal and that inferior metals such as lead and mercury were removed by various degrees of imperfection
from gold. They further asserted that these base metals could be transmuted to gold by blending them with a
substance even more perfect than gold. This elusive substance was referred to as the “philosopher‟s stone”

Most of the early alchemists were artisans who were accustomed to keeping trade secrets and often
resorted to cryptic terminology to record the progress of their work. The term sun was used for gold, moon
for silver, and the five known planets for base metals. This convention of substituting symbolic language
attracted a group of mystical philosophers who compared the search for the perfect metal with the struggle
of mankind for the perfection of the soul. The philosophers began to use the artisan‟s terms in the mystical
literature that they produced. Thus, by the fourteenth century, alchemy had developed two distinct groups of
alchemists continued to work throughout the history of alchemy, but of course it was the literary alchemist
who was most likely to produce a written record; therefore, much of what is known about the science of
alchemy is derived from philosophers rather than from the alchemists who laboratories.

46. Roger Bacon and St. Albertus Magnus had the same ….

(A) profession (B) premise
(C) education (D) nationality

47. According to the alchemists, what was the difference between base metal and gold?

(A) Perfection
(B) Weight
(B) Temperature
(D) Chemical content

48. What is the author‟s main point?

(A) Roger Bacon and St. Albertus Magnus wrote about alchemy.
(B) The philosopher‟s stone was essential to alchemy
(C) Base metals can be transmuted to gold by blending them with a substance more perfect than

gold
(D) There were both laboratory and literary alchemists

49. The word ”authentic” could best be replaced by …..

(A) alchemy (B) valuable
(C) works (D) genuine

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50. The word “those’ refers to (B) works
(D) alchemy
(A) treatises
(C) metals

THIS IS THE END OF THE READING COMPREHENSION SECTION IF YOU
FINISH BEFORE 55 MINUTES HAS ENDED,
CHECK YOUR WORK ON SECTION 3 ONLY

END OF TOEFL TEST
New Edition

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