2022 EP025 Tutorial Questions

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EP025

PHYSICS SEMESTER II

Tutorial questions

TUTORIAL 1 : ELECTROSTATICS

Objective Questions :

No. Questions

Two electrons are moving in a uniform electric field. The first electron e1 is moving parallel with

the direction of the electric field while the second electron e2 moves perpendicularly with the

field. State the type of motion of the two electrons.

1A 1st electron, e1 2nd electron, e2
Linear motion Projectile motion

B Projectile motion Linear motion

C Circular motion Projectile motion

D Linear motion Circular motion

The following statements are correct about charge except…
A 1 C of charge magnitude is brought by as many as 6.25x10112 electrons.

2 B 1 C of charge magnitude is brought by as many as 6.25x10112 protons.
C There is no such magnitude of charge as 2.0x10-19 C in nature.
D Unit of charge can be written as N V-1 m-1.

The following statements are correct about a positive point charge except…
A The charge repels other positive charges.

3 B The charge produces outwards electric field at its surrounding.
C The charge consists of more protons compared to its electrons.
D The charge requires external work to approach a negative charge.

Subjective Questions : Questions Answer
No Div.

A hydrogen atom consists of proton which is surrounded by an electron. FE = 8.2 pN
The distance between proton and electron is 53 Å. Given the elementary FE = 2.27x1039
charge, e = 1.6 x10-19 C. FG
4 a Calculate the electrostatics force between electron and proton.

If the mass of proton and electron respectively are 1.67 x10-27 kg
b and 9.11 x10-31 kg, determine the ratio of the electrostatic force to

the gravitational force due to the masses.

Three charges, Q1 = -4 nC, Q2 = +3 nC and Q3 = -5 nC are placed with

5 respective coordinate (0cm, 0cm), (-3cm, 0cm) and (2cm, -2cm). FT = 0.31mN
a Determine the resultant force experienced by Q1. aT = 0.21 ms-2

b If Q1 has mass of 1.5g, determine the resultant acceleration
experienced by the charge.

Two charges Q1 and Q2 respectively of magnitude +3 C and

-1.5 C are placed 10 cm apart.

6 Determine the electric field at the mid-point of the two charges as ET = 16.2MNC-1
a well as the electrostatic force experienced by a test charge of FT = 8.1N

+0.5C placed at the point.

b Determine the point where the net electric field is zero. x = 24.1cm from
charge Q2

A charge of mass 1.80g is placed between two vertically parallel plates

which are separated 5.0mm. The plates are charged to be 12.0V to

7 produce a uniform electric field directed upward.

a Determine the magnitude of the electric field. E = 2.4 kVm-1

b Determine the magnitude as well as the type of the charge to keep q = +7.36C
floating from the gravitational force.

Two points P and Q respectively are 3cm and 5cm near to a charge of VP = 600V
+2nC. Determine : VQ = 360V
8 a the electric potential at point P.
WQP = 0.12J
b the electric potential at point Q.
c the work done to bring a test charge of +0.5nC from Q to P.

Three charges, Q1 = +0.5nC, Q2 = +2 nC and Q3 = -3 nC are placed with V1 = -305.4V
respective coordinate (0cm, 0cm), (0cm, -2cm) and (1cm, U1 = -15.3J
9 -2cm). UT = -10.8J

a Determine the electric potential at the point where Q1 is placed. E = 50Vm-1
b Determine the electric potential energy of charge Q1.
c Determine the electric potential energy of the system.

FIGURE 1 shows the cross sections of equipotential surfaces at various
distances, x in an electric field.

V(V) 80 75 70 65

10

x(cm) 10 20 30 40
FIGURE 1

a Determine whether the electric field is uniform.
b Determine the electric field strength.

TUTORIAL 2 : CAPACITORS AND DIELECTRICS

Objective Questions :

No. Questions
The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor can be increased by reducing the …
A area of each plate.

1 B charge of the capacitor.
C separation between the plates.
D potential difference across the capacitor.

A capacitor of capacitance C is charged using a battery. The charge on the capacitor is Q and
the potential difference across the capacitor is V. If the battery is removed and an identical
capacitor which is not charged is connected in parallel to the charged capacitor, which of the
following statements is correct?
2 A The effective capacitance is ½ C.

B The energy remains the same.
C The final charge on each capacitor is ½ Q.
D The potential difference across the both capacitors is V.

When a charged capacitor is connected in series with a filament lamp (load) and a variable
resistor, then the lamp lights up. The lamp will stay lighted for a longer period if the …

3 A resistance of the resistor is small.
B capacitance of the capacitor is large.

C resistance of the filament lamp is small.

D potential difference across the lamp is small.

Subjective Questions : Questions Answer
No Div.
A = 24.1cm2
The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is 8.5pF. It consists of Q = 51pC
two parallel plates separated by a distance of 2.5mm. The capacitor
4 is charged to a battery of 6.0V. Determine : E = 2.4 kV m-1
a the area of each plate.
b the charge accumulated on the capacitor. Ceq = 1.2 F
c the electric field strength between the plates. Q1 = 12 C
Two capacitors of capacitance C1 = 2F and C2 = 3F are Q2 = 12 C
connected in series. The capacitors are connected to a battery of
10.0V. Determine : V1 = 6 V
V2 = 4 V
5 a the equivalent capacitance.
Ceq = 5 F
b the charge accumulated on each capacitor. V1 = 10 V
V2 = 10 V
c the potential difference across each capacitor. Q1 = 20 C
Q2 = 30 C
Two capacitors of capacitance C1 = 2F and C2 = 3F are
connected in parallel. The capacitors are connected to a battery of
10.0V. Determine :
6 a the equivalent capacitance.
b the potential difference across each capacitor.

c the charge accumulated on each capacitor.

Three capacitors of capacitance C1 = 2F, C2 = 3F and C3 = 4F
are arranged as shown in FIGURE 1. The combination of the
capacitors is connected to a battery of 12.0V.

C1 C2 

7

C3

FIGURE 1

Determine : Ceq = 4.3 F
a the equivalent capacitance.
b the charge accumulated on each capacitor. Q1 = 16 C
Q2 = 36 C
c the potential difference across each capacitor. Q3 = 16 C

V1 = 8 V
V2 = 12 V
V3 = 4 V

Two capacitors of capacitance C1 = 2F and C2 = 3F are UT = 60 J
connected in series. The capacitors are connected to a battery of U1 = 36 J
8 10.0V. Determine : U2 = 24 J
a the total energy stored in the capacitors.

b the energy stored in capacitance C1.

c the energy stored in capacitance C2.

A capacitor of capacitance C = 2F is charged using a battery of

6.0V. The charged capacitor is then discharged through a 60k

9 resistor. Determine : Q = 12 C
a the charge accumulated on the capacitor.

b the time constant for discharging process.  = 0.12 s

c the time taken for the charge on the capacitor to decreased to ¾ of t = 34.5 ms
its initial value.

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance Co has plates of area Ao

with separation do between them. It has charge of Qo when

10 connected with a battery of Vo. It is then disconnected from the
battery and the space between the plates is filled with an insulator

of dielectrics constant 3. Determine the new …

a charge accumulated on the plates. Q = Qo
V = Vo /3
b Potential difference across the plates.

TUTORIAL 3 : ELECTRIC CURRENT & DIRECT CURRENT (DC)

Objective Questions :

No. Questions
When the temperature of a metal is increases, the electrical conductivity…
A increases because the rate of collision among free electrons and atoms increases.

1 B decreases because the rate of collision among free electrons and atoms increases.
C increases because the rate of collision among free electrons and atoms decreases.
D decreases because the rate of collision among free electrons and atoms decreases.

The resistance of a resistor depends on the following factors EXCEPT…
A The temperature of the resistor.

2 B The potential difference across the resistor.
C The material of the resistor.
D The length of the resistor.

Which of the following statements are correct about electric current.

i 1 A refers to the flow of as many as 6.25 x1018 electrons through a conductor for every 1s.
ii Electric current refers to the flow of free electrons from a negative to a positive terminal of

dry cell via the circuit.
3 iii When the temperature of a conductor increases, the rate flow of electrons decreases.

iv. The flow of free electrons in a metal is due to the production of electric field by a dry cell.
A i, ii, iii, iv
B i, ii, iii
C i , iii, iv
D ii, iii, iv

Subjective Questions : Questions Answer
No Div.
Ro = 0.56 
A tungsten wire has length of 20 cm and diameter of 0.16 mm. The I = 2.69 A
R = 0.61
resistivity of tungsten is 5.6x10-8  m at 30 oC.
r = 0.14
a Determine the resistance of the wire. P = 3.24W

4 b If the wire is connected to a battery of 1.5V, determine the current
flow through the wire.

If the temperature coefficient of resistance of tungsten is

c 4.5x10-3oC-1, determine the resistance of the wire at temperature
50oC.

A dry cell of e.m.f. 1.5V is connected with a resistor, R. When a

5 current of 3.0A flows from the cell, the potential difference across
the resistor is 1.08V. Determine :

a the internal resistance, r of the dry cell.

b the power dissipated by the resistor R.

Three resistors of resistance R1 = 2, R2 = 3 and R3 = 4 are
arranged as shown in FIGURE 1. The resistors are connected with
a battery of 6.0V.

R1 R2 

6

R3
FIGURE 1

Determine : RT = 2 
a the effective resistance of the circuit.

b the current flows through each resistor. I1 = 1A
I2 = 2A
c the potential difference across each resistor. I3 = 1A
V1 = 2V
In FIGURE 2, the e.m.f. of the battery is 1 = 20V and its internal V2 = 6V
resistance is negligible. The e.m.f. of the battery 2 = 15V and its V3 = 4V
internal resistance r2 = 0.5.

R1 2

R3

7 1

FIGURE 2 R2

Determine :

a the current flow in each resistor. I1 = 7.24A
I2 = 5.86A
b the potential difference across each resistor. I3 = 1.38A
V1 = 14.48V
V2 = 17.58V
V3 = 5.52V

In FIGURE 3, the length of the slide wire is 100cm and its
resistance is 10.0. Resistor R1 = 3  and R2 = 5 . The
accumulator 1 has e.m.f. of 2.0V and negligible internal resistance.
If switch S is open (OFF) the galvanometer G is balanced when the
length AJ is 61.5cm. The cell 2 has an internal resistance of 0.5 .

1 R1

8 A J
B

2 r2 G

CD

R2 S
FIGURE 3

a Determine the e.m.f. 2. 2. = 0.95V
LAJ = 56.1cm
b If the switch is closed (ON), determine the new balanced point from
point A.

TUTORIAL 4 : MAGNETIC FIELD

Objective Questions :

No. Questions

The magnitude of magnetic force produced on a charge is depend on the following factors
exept…

1 A the magnetic field.
B the type of the charge.

C the velocity of the charge.

D the angle between the magnetic field and the velocity of the charge.

An electron is placed in a uniform magnetic field. What will happen to the charge then?
A It will undergo a linear motion.

2 B It will undergo a circular motion.
C It will never undergo any motion.
D It will undergo a projectile motion.

The torque acting on a rectangular coil carrying a DC current in a radial magnetic field is due
to …

A a constant force acting along the axis of the coil perpendicular to the field.

3 B a constant force acting perpendicular to the plane of the coil at the centre of the coil.

C a pair of equal and opposite parallel forces acting on the two branches of the coil
parallel to the field.

D a pair of equal and opposite parallel forces acting on the two branches of the coil
perpendicular to the field.

Subjective Questions : Questions Answer
No Div.

a Sketch the magnetic field lines (within direction) of :  = 1.48 mWb
(i) magnet bar (ii) current carrying conductor.  = 29.5 mWb

4 A coil of 20 turns and diameter 5.0 cm is placed in a uniform
b magnetic field of magnitude 1.5 T. If the angle between the
magnetic field and the plane of the coil is 30o, determine the
magnitude of the magnetic flux and magnetic flux linkage..

a Determine the magnetic field at the centre of the coil with 10 turns B = 0.19 mT
and radius 5.0 cm which carrying current of 1.5 A. Suggest the

direction of the magnetic field.

5 b Determine the magnetic field on the axis of a solenoid of length B = 0.94 mT
20.0 cm and has 100 turns which carrying current of 1.5 A. Suggest

the direction of the magnetic field.

c Determine the magnetic field at a point 5.0 cm from a long straight B = 6.0 T
wire which carrying current of 1.5 A. Suggest the direction of the

magnetic field.

An electron moves with velocity of 2 x105 m s-1 perpendicularly

across a uniform magnetic field of magnetic field strength 0.2 T and

6 undergoes circular motion. Calculate the : FB = 6.4 x10-15 N
a magnetic force

b radius of circular path r = 5.69 m

c period of revolution of the charge. T = 1.79 x10-10 s

A copper wire of length 12.0 cm is placed at an angle 40 ° in a

7 uniform magnetic field of strength 0.2 T. If the wire carries a current
of 5 A.

a Calculate the magnetic force on this wire. FB = 7.71x10-2 N

b Sketch an appropriate diagram and show the direction of the force.

8 Two long straight parallel copper wires P and Q are placed at a
distance 5.0 cm apart. Wire P carries current of 6 A and Q carries

current of 10 A in the opposite direction.

a Calculate the force per unit length acting on the wires. FB/L = 2.4 x10-4
N m-1
b Find the position of a point X from wire P where the resultant
magnetic field will be zero. X = 1.9 cm
from wire P

9 In a moving coil galvanometer, the coil of 500 turns has a  = 1.29 x10-3
rectangular shape of dimensions 4.0 cm x 3.0 cm. The radial Nm
magnetic field has a magnetic flux density of 0.18T. Determine the

torque on the coil if a current of 0.012 A flows in it.

A helium ion of charge +2e and mass 6.6x10-27 kg is accelerated

from rest by a voltage of 2400 V. The accelerated ion then moves

with velocity v into a perpendicular uniform magnetic field of

10 magnitude 0.24 T. Determine :

a the magnitude of the velocity of the charge. v = 482.4 x103
m s-1

b the centripetal force produced on the charge. FC = 3.7 x10-14 N

c the radius of circular path traveled by the charge. r = 4.0 cm

TUTORIAL 5 : ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

Objective Questions :

No. Questions
Which of the following statements are correct about electromagnetic induction?

i The induced e.m.f. produced if there is the change in magnetic flux upon time.
ii The induced e.m.f is assigned as negative if the magnetic flux increases.
iii The magnetic flux depends on the magnetic field and the cross sectional area of a coil.
1 iv. The magnitude of induced e.m.f is always positive.

A i, ii, iii, iv
B i, ii, iii
C i , iii, iv
D ii, iii, iv

Which of the following is not a methode to produce induced e.m.f.?

2 A Relative motion between magnet bar and a coil.
B Adjusting current of one of the two neighbouring coils.

C Moving rod parallel to the uniform magnetic field.

D Revolution of revolving rotor across a uniform magnetic field.

Subjective Questions : Questions Answer
No Div.

a An equilateral triangle 20.0 cm on each side is placed in a uniform  = 0.15 Wb
magnetic field of 10.0 T which makes an angle of 60o with the plane of

3 the coil. Calculate the magnetic flux through the triangle.

b A 15.0 cm long solenoid has 200 turns. The solenoid has a diameter of  = 4.21x10-3
4.0 cm and carries 10.0 A current. Calculate the magnetic flux through Wb

the circular cross-sectional area of the solenoid.

A coil of 50 turns and cross-sectional area 0.8 cm2 lying perpendicularly in a

magnetic field which changes from 2.0 x 10-3 T to 8.0 x 10-3 T in 0.50 s.

4 a Calculate the induced e.m.f. generated. ind = 4.8 x 10-5 V
Iind = 2.4 A
b If its resistance is 20 what current will flow in the coil?

c Sketch a diagram (including a galvanometer) to show the current
direction.

A conducting rod of 10.0 cm length is moving perpendicularly in a uniform
magnetic field of 15.0 T with velocity of 20 cm s-1.

5 a Calculate the induced e.m.f. generated. ind = 0.3 V
Iind = 0.03 A
b If its resistance is 10  what current will flow in the rod?

c Sketch a diagram (including a galvanometer) to show the current
direction.

A coil in an electric generator with magnetic field 1.96 T is rotating at 20

revolutions per minute and has 102 turns with an area of 100 cm2.

6 a What is the maximum voltage ? εmax = 4.18 V
Imax = 2.79 A
b If its resistance is 1.5  what is the maximum current will flow in the
rod?

c Explain the direction of the current flown.

a When the current in a coil is changing at a rate of 200 A s-1, the back L = 0.625 H

7 e.m.f induced is 25V. Calculate the self-inductance of this coil.

b A solenoid containing 150 turns with the length of 20 cm and cross- L = 7.07x10-5 H
sectional area of 5cm2. Calculate the inductance of the solenoid.

Primary coil of a cylindrical core with a length of 25 cm and radius 1.5 cm has

8 100 turns. If the secondary coil has 50 turns, calculate : M = 17.8 μH
a its mutual inductance. ε = 79.9 μV

b the induced e.m.f. in the secondary coil if the current flowing in the
primary coil is changing at the rate of 4.5 A s-1.

TUTORIAL 6 : GEOMETRICAL OPTICS

Objective Questions :

No. Questions
Determine the properties of image of an object situated in front of a convex mirror.
A Real, erect, magnified.

1 B Virtual, upright, magnified.
C Real, inverted, diminished.
D Virtual, upright, diminished.

Which of the following statements are correct about reflection.

i Reflection occurs when light incidents on any type of surface.
ii Concave mirror is also known as diverging mirror.
iii Reflection on the diverging mirror always prodices virtual-upright image.
2 iv. Plane mirror does not has focal point.

A ii , iii
B i , iv
C i , iii
D ii , iv

Which of the following statements are correct about refraction.

i Refraction occurs when light incidents on any transparent medium.
ii Frequency of light does not changed when refreacted into new medium.
iii Refraction into the concave lens always produces virtual-upright image.
3 iv. Convex lens is also known as converging lens.

A i , iii
B i , iv
C i , iii , iv
D i , ii , iii , iv

Subjective Questions :

No Div. Questions Answer

4 A convex mirror of radius of curvature 20.0cm forms an image which is half of | u | = 10cm
the height of the object. Calculate the object and image distance. | v | = 5cm

An object is placed 25.0cm near the converging mirror of radius of curvature

20.0cm.

5 a Determine the image distance using a suitable formula. | v | = 16.7cm

b Determine the image distance using a proper ray diagram (use a graph
paper with scale 1 cm : 5 cm).

c Determine the properties of image produced. Compare the result through
the both methods.

A light of wavelength 589nm travels in vacuum towards a piece of glass of r = 26.3o
refractive index 1.45 at an angle of 40o to the normal and passes through it.
6 a Determine the angle of refraction. v = 0.69c
λ = 406nm
b Determine the speed of light in glass.
c Determine the wavelength of light in glass.

A glass sphere has a radius of 10.0cm and refractive index of 1.50. A point 40cm from the
object is placed 20.0cm from the centre of the sphere. An image is formed due centre.
7 to refraction at the surface of the sphere nearest to the object.

a Determine the position of the image.

b Is it real or virtual?

8 A lens is made up of glass having an index of refraction of 1.5. One side of the
lens is flat while the other is concave with radius of curvature of 20.0cm.

a Determine the focal length of the lens. | f | = 40cm

b If an object is placed 40.0cm near the lens, where should the image be 20cm in front
produced? the lens

a An object is placed 25.0cm in front a convex lens of focal length 10cm. | v | = 16.7cm
Determine the image distance.
12.57 cm
9 Based on the above question, if another convex lens of focal length of behind the 1st
b 5.0cm is then placed 25.0cm behind the 1st convex lens, determine the
position of the final image and final magnification produced through the lens
both lenses. M = 1.01

TUTORIAL 7 : PHYSICAL OPTICS

Objective Questions : Questions
No.

For two waves to be coherent, they need not have …

1 A the same amplitude.
B the same frequency.

C the same wavelength.

D a constant phase difference.

Which of the following statements are incorrect about physical optics.

i Phase angle of 2 radian equivalents with 180o.

ii Path difference refers to the difference of distance at a point from two light sources.

2 iii Destructive interference occurs when two inphase lights overlaps.
iv. A reflected wave does not change its phase when incident on denser medium.

A ii , iii
B i , iv
C i , iii
D ii , iv

A light is traveling from the air into a thin film. The following statements are correct except …

3 A the speed of light decreases.
B the frequency of the light increases.

C the wavelength of the light decreases.

D the energy is split to be transmitted and reflected.

Subjective Questions : Questions Answer
No Div.

In a Young double-slits experiment, the slits separation is 0.1 mm. It produces  = 512 nm
4 bright and dark fringes on a screen at 20 cm from the slits. The distance

between the 5th bright fringe and 3rd dark fringe is 2.56 mm. Determine the
wavelength of the light used.

Explain (by giving reasons) what is going to happen to the double slits

interference pattern if :

5 a A light of longer wavelength is used.

b The experiment is carried out in a denser medium.

c A thin film is placed in front of one of the slit which causes a phase
difference is  radian.

6 A soap film is illuminated with sodium light ( = 589.3 nm). What is the least tmin = 0.21m
thickness of the film to be missing reflected? Given the refractive index of the

soap, n = 1.38.

A glass lens is coated with a thin film of a transparent composite compound in

7 order to make the non-reflecting lens. The lens is illuminated by a light of tmin = 0.12m

wavelength 610 nm. What will the minimum thickness of the film be if the

refractive index of glass is 1.50 and that of the composite material is 1.28?

Light of wavelength 640 nm passed through a single slit of width 1.0 m. The

8 diffraction pattern is formed on the screen which is 20.0 cm from the slit.
Calculate the width of the central bright fringe :

a in degrees.  = 79.6o
y = 25.6 cm
b in centimeters

A diffraction grating of 5.0x105 lines per unit length is normally illuminated by a 9 fringes
9 light of wavelength 495 nm.

a How many maximum can be observed on the screen?
b State two ways on how to obtain more number of these bright fringes?

TUTORIAL 9 : WAVE PROPERTIES OF MATTER

Objective Questions :

No. Questions

The expression  = h represents wave-particle duality. The wave and particle properties are…
mv

1A Particle property Wave property
 m

Bm v

Cv h

Dh 

Which of the following objects has the longest de Broglie wavelength?
A A proton moves at 1x107 ms-1.

2 B An electron moves at 1 x107 ms-1.
C A nitrogen molecule moves at 300 ms-1 (Mass number of nitrogen, A = 14) .
D A bullet of mass 10g moves at 300 ms-1.

An electron beam is diffracted by a crystalline solid. Which of the following is the correct deduction?
A The electron beam has wave properties.

3 B There are centres of positive charge in the crystalline solid.
C There are empty spaces between atoms in the crystalline solid.
D X rays are produced when electrons collide with a crystalline solid.

Subjective Questions : Questions Answer
No Div.

An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 2.0 kV. Kmax = 3.2x10-16 J
Determine : vmax = 2.65x107ms-1
a the maximum kinetic energy possessed by the electron.
4 b the maximum speed of the electron. p = 2.41x10-23
kgms-1
c the maximum momentum of the electron.
deBroglie
d the minimum de Broglie wavelength of the electron. = 2.75x10-11 m

A proton is accelerated through a potential difference of 2.0 kV. Determine :

a the maximum kinetic energy possessed by the proton. Kmax = 3.2x10-16 J
5 b the maximum speed of the proton. vmax = 6.19x105ms-1

c the maximum momentum of the proton. p = 1.03x10-21
kgms-1

d the minimum de Broglie wavelength of the proton. deBroglie
= 6.44x10-13 m

An athlete of mass 65 kg is running consistently along 100 m within 9.75 s.

a Determine the momentum of the athlete. p = 666.67 kgms-1

6 b Determine the kinetic energy possessed by the athlete. Kmax = 14.11 x106 J
c Determine the de Broglie wavelength of the athlete.
deBroglie
= 9.94x10-37m

d Based on table 1 below, can the athlete exhibit the wave property? Justify
for answer.

A nickel crystal is used to diffract an electron beam which is accelerated

through a potential difference of 2.0 kV (refer question 4). The beam of

electron is strongly diffracted at an angle of 75.08o to the normal of atomic

plane of the crystal.

7 a Sketch a suitable labeled diagram of the experiment setup to show the
diffraction of the electron beam.

b By using Bragg’s equation, determine the separation between the atomic d = 53.4pm
planes in the crystal.

A beam of proton is used instead the beam of electron. Determine the

c glance angle for the strongest diffraction pattern. Does it happen? Justify for

answer.

8

Assume that an electron moves with the speed of light. In this case :

a Determine the de Broglie wavelength of the electron. deBroglie
= 2.43x10-12m
b Determine the potential difference needed to accelerate the electron.
V = 0.26 MV

c Does diffraction pattern of a crystal of atomic plane separation 0.91Å
produced? Justify your answer.

9 Sketch a graph to show the variation of :
a the de Broglie wavelength with velocity.

b the de Broglie wavelength with glance angle.

10 Between optical microscope, electron microscope and proton microscope (if
able), which one is the best microscope. Justify your answer by giving two

acceptable reasons.

Note :
Table 1 : Range of e.m. wavelength.

Type of e.m. Radio- Micro- Infra- Visible Ultra- X-ray Gamma
waves wave wave red light violet ray
0.3 3.0x10-4 7.0x10-7 3.0x10-9 3.0x10-12
Range of 4.0x10-7 - < 3.0x10-12
wavelength - - - -
300 0.3 - 4.0x10-7 3.0x10-9
(m) 3.0x10-4 7.0x10-7

TUTORIAL 9 : NUCLEAR & PARTICLE PHYSICS

Objective Questions :

No. Questions
Which of the following statements is incorrect about nucleus?
A Nucleus is positively charge.

1 B Nucleus contribute almost mass of an atom.
C Nucleus consists of protons, neutrons and nucleons.
D There are gravitational, electrostatic and nuclear forces among nucleons in a nucleus.

Which of the following statements is incorrect about isotopes?
A Isotopes have different number of neutron.

2 B Isotopes have the same physical properties.
C Isotopes have the same chemical properties.
D Isotopes have the same number of proton and electron.

Which of the following is incorrect about an alpha particle?
A It is a helium nucleus.

3 B It has high penetrating power.
C It has twice magnitude of electron’s charge.
D It is deflected by electric and magnetic fields.

Which of the following is incorrect about the activity of a decay process?
A It is measured in of Ci or Bq.

4 B It refers to the rate of decay process.
C It increases exponentially with time.
D It is directly proportional to the number of atoms present at that instant.

Which of the following is incorrect about the half life of a radioactive element?
A It is directly proportional to the decay constant.

5 B It indicates the stability of the radioactive element.
C It is a constant which depends on the type of the radioactive element.
D It refers to the time taken for half of the initial number of radioactive elements to undergo decay.

Subjective Questions :

No Div. Questions Answer

FIGURE 1 shows the identity of sodium (natrium) atom based on the Q = +1.76x10-18 C

periodic table. Mp
= 1.8399x10-26 kg
11
Na FIGURE 1 = 11.0800 u
22.98977 Mn
4
= 2.0099x10-26 kg
Determine : = 12.1040 u
a the number of proton and electron of sodium atom. Me
b the number of nucleon of sodium atom.
c the number of neutron of sodium atom. = 1.0020x10-29 kg
d the charge of sodium nucleus. = 6.0344x10-3 u

Based on question 4, determine : m
= 3.3254x10-28 kg
a the total mass of proton of sodium atom (in kg and u).
= 0.2003 u
5 E = 2.9929x10-11 J
b the total mass of neutron of sodium atom (in kg and u).

c the total mass of electron of sodium atom (in kg and u).

Based on question 4 and 5, determine :
6 a the mass defect of sodium nucleus (in kg and u).

b the binding energy of sodium nucleus (in Joule and eV).

= 186.541MeV

c the average binding energy (binding energy per nucleon) of sodium nucleus En = 1.3013x10-12 J

(in Joule and eV). = 8.1105MeV

FIGURE 2 shows the identity of hydrogen isotope based on periodic table.

1
H FIGURE 2
7 1.007825

Determine :
a the number of proton and electron of the hydrogen isotope.
b the number of nucleon of the hydrogen isotope.
c the number of neutron of the hydrogen isotope.

Based on question 7, determine :

a the total mass of hydrogen nucleon (in kg and u). Mnucleon
= 1.67x10-27 kg
8
= 1.007276 u

b the mass defect of the hydrogen nucleus (in kg and u).

c the binding energy of the hydrogen nucleus (in Joule and eV).

d the average binding energy (binding energy per nucleon) of the hydrogen
nucleus (in Joule and eV).

FIGURE 3 shows the identity of uranium atom based on periodic table.

92
U FIGURE 3
9 238.0289

Determine :
a the number of proton and electron of uranium atom.
b the number of nucleon of uranium atom.
c the number of neutron of uranium atom.

Based on question 9, determine : Mnucleon
a the total mass of uranium nucleon (in kg and u). = 3.9517x10-25 kg

10 b the mass defect of uranium nucleus (in kg and u). = 237.9784 u

c the binding energy of uranium nucleus (in Joule and eV). m
= 3.2482x10-27 kg
d the average binding energy (binding energy per nucleon) of uranium
nucleus (in Joule and eV). = 1.9561 u
E = 2.9234x10-10 J
= 1822.095 MeV

En = 1.2283x10-12 J
= 7.66MeV

11 By comparing the binding energy and the average binding energy between
sodium and uranium, which nucleus is more stable? Justify your answer.

Determine the type of decay process and state the radiation, X emits for the
following reaction :

a 238 U  23940Th + X
92

12 b 14 C  14 N + X
6 7

c 18 Fe  18 O + X
9 8

d 238 U *  238 U + X
92 92

The half life of carbon-14 is 5700 years.

13 a Explain the above statement.

b Determine the decay constant of carbon-14. What does it mean by the  = 3.86x10-12
value? decay / s

14 1g of freshly (pure) carbon-14 sample is taken from a living tree. The half life
of carbon-14 is 5700 years. Determine :

a the number of carbon-14 atom at that instant. No = 4.3x1022
b the activity of carbon-14 atom at that instant. atoms
c the number of carbon-14 atom after 1000 years later.
d the activity of carbon-14 atom after 1000 years later. Ao = 1.66x1011
atoms / s

N = 3.81x1022
atoms

A = 1.47x1011
atoms / s

(Refer question 5 and 6). 1g of carbon-14 sample is taken from an N = 5.04x1010
archeological object and gives a decay rate of 700 decays per hour. The atoms
15 half life of carbon-14 is 5700 years.
a Determine the number of carbon-14 atom at that instant. t = 226,000 years

b Estimate the archeological age of the object.
c Sketch a graph of number of C-14 versus time.

Two radioactive samples A and B initially have 1 mol of atom. Sample A and

B respectively have half-life of 5.8 days and 2.3 days. Determine :

a the decay constant of the both samples. What conclusion can be made? A = 0.12 decays /
day

B = 0.30 decays /
day

16 AA = 7.22x1022
b the activity of both samples at that instant. What conclusion can be made?
decays / day
AB = 1.81x1023

decays / day

N’A = 3.42x1023

atoms

c the number of nucleus decay for both samples after a week later. N’B = 5.28x1023

atoms

Two identical radioactive samples P and Q have half-life of 5.8 days. P = Q = 0.12
Sample P and Q respectively have 1 mol and 2 mol of atom. Determine : decays / day

a the decay constant of the both samples. What conclusion can be made?

17 AP = 7.22x1022
b the activity of both samples at that instant. What conclusion can be made?
decays / day
AQ = 1.44x1023

decays / day

NP = 2.60x1023

c the number of nucleus remaining for both samples after a week later. What atoms
conclusion can be made? NQ = 5.19x1023

atoms

a Two radioactive samples X and Y have the same half-life. The initial activity AX = 2
of X is twice that of Y. Determine the ratio of the activity of X to Y after a AY

time which is equivalent to three half-life.

18 b The rate decay of a radioactive sample decreases to 1/8 of its initial value T1/2 = 12 hours
after 36 hours. Determine the half-life of the sample.

c The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is T1/2. The initial activity of a sample of n = 10
this nuclide is Ao. After a time t = nT1/2, the activity of the sample becomes

Ao/1000. Determine the value of n.

END OF QUESTION