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38. 114 Take this in Bite-Sized Pieces. If the actual cost is 50% greater than expected, and Carol expected
the cost to be $1,600 (as question 37 tells us), then the actual cost was 1,600 + 0.50(1,600) =
$2,400. This is the new value of C2. Plug this value into the equation, using the same values as be-
fore for C1, Q2, and Q1: M = 2,400 − 900 = 30. To find the percent increase in marginal cost, use
200 −150
the equation percent change = difference ×100 . In question 37 you determined the original value
original
was 14, so the percent change is 30 −14 × 100 = 114% .
14
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|Practice Test 7: Answers and Explanations 3 1
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RAW SCORE CONVERSION TABLE SECTION AND TEST SCORES
Raw Score Math Reading Writing Raw Score Math Reading Writing
Section Test Score and Section Test Score and
(# of correct Score Language (# of correct Score Language
answers) 10 Test Score answers) 28 Test Score
10 28
0 200 10 10 30 530 29 29 Please note that the
1 200 11 10 31 540 29 30 numbers in the table may
2 210 12 10 32 550 30 30 shift slightly depending
3 230 13 10 33 560 30 31 on the SAT’s scale from
4 240 14 11 34 560 31 32 test to test; however, you
5 260 15 12 35 570 31 32 can still use this table to
6 280 15 13 36 580 32 33 get an idea of how your
7 290 16 13 37 590 32 34 performance on the prac-
8 310 17 14 38 600 33 34 tice tests will translate to
9 320 17 15 39 600 33 35 the actual SAT.
10 330 18 16 40 610 34 36
11 340 19 16 41 620 35 37
12 360 19 17 42 630 35 38
13 370 20 18 43 640 36 39
14 380 20 19 44 650 37 40
15 390 21 19 45 660 37
16 410 21 20 46 670 38
17 420 22 21 47 670 38
18 430 22 21 48 680 39
19 440 23 22 49 690 40
20 450 23 23 50 700 40
21 460 24 23 51 710
22 470 24 24 52 730
23 480 25 25 53 740
24 480 25 25 54 750
25 490 26 26 55 760
26 500 26 26 56 780
27 510 27 27 57 790
28 520 28 58 800
29 520 28
CONVERSION EQUATION SECTION AND TEST SCORES
Convert
READING TEST READING TEST
RAW SCORE SCORE
(10–40)
(0–52)
Convert + = x 10 =
WRITING AND WRITING AND READING TEST READING AND EVIDENCE-BASED READING
LANGUAGE TEST LANGUAGE TEST SCORE WRITING TEST AND WRITING
(10–40) SECTION SCORE
RAW SCORE SCORE SCORE (200–800)
(0–44) (10–40) (20–80)
+ = Convert +=
EVIDENCE-BASED READING
AND WRITING
MATH TEST MATH TEST MATH SECTION MATH SECTION SECTION SCORE TOTAL SAT
NO CALCULATOR CALCULATOR RAW SCORE SCORE (200–800) SCORE
RAW SCORE (0–58) (200–800)
RAW SCORE (400–1600)
(0–20) (0–38)
3 2 | Practice Test 7: Answers and Explanations
Practice Test 8:
Answers and
Explanations
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PRACTICE TEST 8 ANSWER KEY
Section 1: Section 2: Section 3: Section 4:
Reading Writing & Language Math (No Calculator) Math (Calculator)
1. B 27. B 1. D 23. A 1. B 11. C 1. B 20. A
2. D 28. B 2. D 24. B 2. A 12. C 2. A 21. B
3. B 29. D 3. D 25. A 3. A 13. D 3. C 22. B
4. C 30. C 4. C 26. B 4. D 14. B 4. A 23. C
5. C 31. B 5. B 27. C 5. C 15. D 5. D 24. D
6. A 32. C 6. C 28. C 6. C 16. 16 6. C 25. B
7. B 33. A 7. B 29. D 7. A 17. 90 7. D 26. B
8. A 34. C 8. C 30. A 8. C 3 8. A 27. C
9. A 35. D 9. D 31. B 9. B 18. 5 or 9. B 28. A
10. D 36. C 10. D 32. D 10. D 10. B 29. A
11. D 37. D 11. D 33. C 0.6 11. C 30. C
12. B 38. D 12. A 34. A 1 12. D 31. 120
13. A 39. A 13. B 35. B 19. 4 or 13. A 32. 5
14. C 40. B 14. A 36. D 14. B 33. 880
15. C 41. A 15. D 37. D 0.25 34. 20
16. B 42. B 16. C 38. A 35. 950
17. D 43. A 17. D 39. C 20. 64 15. C 36. 40
18. B 44. B 18. D 40. D 16. A 37. 1.03
19. D 45. A 19. D 41. A 17. D 38. 17.8
20. A 46. A 20. B 42. B 18. B
21. C 47. C 21. A 43. C 19. C
22. C 48. D 22. B 44. A
23. A 49. A
24. C 50. D
25. D 51. C
26. A 52. A
2 | Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations
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PRACTICE TEST 8 EXPLANATIONS
Section 1: Reading
1. B The question asks what the narrator’s initial shock shifts to during the passage as a whole. General
questions such as this should be done after all of the specific questions. Also note that the following
question is a best evidence question, so Q1 and Q2 can be answered in tandem. Look at the answers
for Q2 first. Although the thought that my number was up all right might support (D) in Q1, at that
point in the passage, the narrator is still deep in thought and his responses continue to evolve as the
passage unfolds. Eliminate (2A). This is also true for the idea that the police would simply laugh at the
narrator and eventually charge him with the murder and hang him, so eliminate (2B) and (2C). By
the end of the passage, he has decided that he was pretty well bound to carry on Scudder’s work. The
most likely place to find lines that describe how the narrator feels by the end of the passage would be
near the end of the passage, and (D) offers lines that how the narrator feels pretty well bound to carry
on Scudder’s work. Since the remainder of the passage details why he feels he must become involved
in the plot, these lines best articulate the overall shift in his attitude and support (B) in Q1. The cor-
rect answers are (1B) and (2D).
2. D (See explanation above.)
3. B The sentence immediately following this phrase is There was nobody there, nor any trace of anybody,
but I shuttered and bolted all the windows and put the chain on the door. This sentence indicates that
the narrator was afraid that someone might still be in the apartment, and that the reason he went
over the apartment was to ensure that no one was in fact there. The narrator also mentions the pos-
sibility that the murderer might return later in the same paragraph. This best supports (B). There is
no discussion of trying to determine the identity of the killer(s), so eliminate (A). The narrator has
not yet decided he must vanish, which means (C) is incorrect. There is also no indication that he
thinks another victim may be there, only the attacker, so eliminate (D). The correct answer is (B).
4. C When asked for the meaning of a word or phrase in context, be sure to base your answer on the
context of the passage rather than your previous knowledge of the word. Earlier in this sentence
the narrator states that It took me about an hour to figure the thing out, which indicates he is men-
tally working through the situation. Therefore, cogitations must mean something like “thoughts” or
“musings.” Choice (C), meditations, best reflects that meaning and is the correct answer. While (B),
recognitions, might initially seem appealing, any recognitions would be the product of the narra-
tor’s thinking, rather than the process itself. Neither (A) nor (D) works in context.
5. C The phrase I was in the soup comes at the beginning of the third paragraph. This para-
graph goes on to discuss the bad position that the narrator finds himself in, with very limited
options. This best matches (C): he finds himself in a predicament. Choice (A) is too literal; the refer-
ence to soup doesn’t refer to actual food or a kitchen. Choice (B) might initially seem appealing, as
|Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations 3
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the narrator responds to finding Scudder’s body with shock, but the phrase in the soup is used to
describe the situation the narrator is in, not how he feels about it. Choice (D) is not supported by
the passage, as there is never any indication that the author is intoxicated.
6. A The question asks why the narrator cannot tell the police about Scudder’s story and death.
General questions such as this should be done after all of the specific questions. Also note that
the following question is a best evidence question, so Q6 and Q7 can be answered in tandem.
Look at the answers for Q7 first. Line 1 doesn’t support any answers from Q6; eliminate
(7A). In lines 38–41 the narrator states that the police would not believe him and he would be
charged with the murder. This best supports (6A). Lines 48–49 refer to Scudder’s killers’ game,
but there’s no indication that the police would know that the narrator is playing the game;
eliminate (7C). Lines 56–60 are also not about the police, so they do not support the answer
to question 6; eliminate (7D). The only answer from Q6 with support in Q7 is (A). The cor-
rect answers are (6A) and (7B).
7. B (See explanation above.)
8. A Prior to the sentence in question, the narrator states that Scudder’s enemies must have reckoned
that he had confided in me before Scudder was killed. The narrator then says I would be the next
to go. Since it was Scudder who was the first to go, and he was murdered, it can be inferred
that the narrator is afraid he will also be murdered for knowing Scudder’s secret. This best
supports (A). Since no one has gone to prison, the narrator cannot be the next to go to prison,
eliminating (B). The narrator does not reference leaving the house, which eliminates (C). At
this point, the narrator has not yet discussed the possibility of telling his story, so (D) should
be eliminated as well. Choice (A) is the answer.
9. A This question (What kind of a story was I to tell about Scudder?) is used rhetorically to indicate
that the author is unsure of what he should say and how the story will be taken by those he
tells it to. This best supports (A). The passage indicates that the narrator knows important in-
formation about Scudder; that is why he might also be killed. Eliminate (B). The narrator has
already indicated that he has lied to Paddock, who will be at the apartment in the morning as
well, so he is not trying to start a conversation with his roommate, eliminating (C). The ques-
tion is not a literal question for the reader to answer, so (D) is also incorrect. Choice (A) is the
correct answer.
10. D When asked for the meaning of a word or phrase in context, be sure to base your answer on
the context of the passage rather than your previous knowledge of the word. In this sentence,
confidence refers to what Scudder told the narrator, indicating that Scudder trusted the nar-
rator. Therefore, the closest meaning to confidence in this context is trust, (D). Although the
other three choices can be used synonymously for confidence, they do not match the correct
meaning in this specific context.
4 | Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations
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11. D The question asks for a description of Lincoln’s tone. Because this is a general question, it should
be done after all the specific questions. In the first and final paragraphs, Lincoln gives warn-
ings: In my present position I could scarcely be justified were I to omit raising a warning voice
and Let them beware of surrendering a political power which they already possess. Eliminate (A)
because, although Lincoln is interested in the subject he is speaking about, keen interest does
not capture the tone of warning. Censure means “criticism,” and abject means “hopeless” or
“humble”; Lincoln is warning rather than criticizing, and his tone is confident, so eliminate
(B). Eliminate (C) because there is no indication of subdued temper. Keep (D) because caution
is consistent with Lincoln’s warnings, and resolute is consistent with Lincoln’s confidence. The
correct answer is (D).
12. B The question asks what the word mixed means in line 49. Go back to the text, find the word
mixed, and mark it out. Carefully read the surrounding text to determine another word that
would fit in the blank based on the context of the passage. The third paragraph states that a few
men own capital, and that few avoid labor themselves, and with their capital hire or buy another
few to labor for them. A large majority belong to neither class—neither work for others nor have
others working for them. The last sentence states, It is not forgotten that a considerable number of
persons mingle their own labor with capital; that is, they labor with their own hands and also buy
or hire others to labor for them; but this is only a mixed and not a distinct class. The correct answer
should mean something like “combined.” Eliminate (A) because indefinite means “unlimited,”
not “combined.” Keep (B) because integrated is consistent with “combined.” Eliminate (C)
because assimilated does not mean “combined.” Eliminate (D) because diverse does not mean
“combined.” The correct answer is (B).
13. A The question asks what Lincoln suggests about people in the South. Notice that the following
question is a best evidence question, so this question and Q14 can be answered in tandem.
Look at the answers for Q14 first. The lines in (14A) discuss assumptions about labor and
capital; there is no mention of people in the South in this part of the passage, so eliminate (14A).
The lines in (14B) state that a few men own capital, and that few avoid labor themselves, and
with their capital hire or buy another few to labor for them. A large majority belong to neither
class—neither work for others nor have others working for them. The paragraph indicates that
this is true of people in the South; however, these lines do not support any of the answers for
Q13, so eliminate (14B). The lines in (14C) state that in most of the Southern States a majority
of the whole people of all colors are neither slaves nor masters, while in the Northern a large major-
ity are neither hirers nor hired. These lines directly address people in the South, so look to see if
these lines support any of the answers for Q13. They support (13A), which states that people in
the South share a similar economic identity with their Northern counterparts. Connect these two
answers. The lines in (14D) are a warning to beware of surrendering a political power; these lines
do not mention people in the South, so eliminate (14D). Without support from Q14, (13B),
(13C), and (13D) can be eliminated. The correct answers are (13A) and (14C).
14. C (See explanation above).
|Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations 5
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15. C The question asks what the word fix means in line 68. Go back to the text, find the word fix,
and mark it out. Carefully read the surrounding text to determine another word that would fit
in the blank based on the context of the passage. In the last sentence, Lincoln says, Let them
beware of surrendering a political power which they already possess, and which if surrendered will
surely be used to close the door of advancement against such as they and to fix new disabilities and
burdens upon them till all of liberty shall be lost. The correct answer should mean something like
“put in place” or “establish.” Eliminate (A) because, although repair is a possible definition of
fix, it does not mean “put in place.” Eliminate (B) because manipulate means “to influence un-
fairly,” not “put in place.” Keep (C) because place is consistent with “put in place.” Eliminate
(D) because replace means “to put back,” not “put in place.” The correct answer is (C).
16. B The question asks which statement best characterizes the relationship between hired laborers and
the hirers who paid them in capital. Notice that the following question is a best evidence ques-
tion, so this question and Q17 can be answered in tandem. Look at the answers for Q17 first.
The lines in (17A) refer to labor and capital, but not to those who hire laborers, so eliminate
(17A). The lines for (17B) also refer to labor and capital, but not to those who hire laborers, so
eliminate (17B). The lines for (17C) also discuss the relationship between labor and capital, but
not those who hire laborers, so eliminate (17C). The lines for (17D) state that the prudent, pen-
niless beginner in the world labors for wages awhile, saves a surplus with which to buy tools or land
for himself, then labors on his own account another while, and at length hires another new beginner
to help him. These lines address both laborers and hirers, so see whether these lines support any
of the answers for Q16. They support (16B): Laborers can progress to owning capital and hiring
laborers themselves, so connect these two answers. Without support from Q17, (16A), (16C),
and (16D) can be eliminated. The correct answers are (16B) and (17D).
17. D (See explanation above).
18. B The question asks what Lincoln indicates in the last paragraph. Use the paragraph reference to
find the window in the passage. In the last paragraph, Lincoln describes how a person works
to save money for himself, which he then uses to buy tools or land for himself, then labors on
his own account another while, and at length hires another new beginner to help him. He goes
on to describe how this system is just and generous and prosperous and gives hope and energy
to all. He then warns to beware of surrendering a political power which they already possess, and
which if surrendered will surely be used to close the door of advancement against such as they and
to fix new disabilities and burdens upon them till all of liberty shall be lost. Eliminate (A) because
there is no mention of being suited to supervise others. Keep (B) because in these lines, Lincoln
emphasizes a person’s ability to work, save, and eventually be able to work on his own account
and warns that if the door of advancement is closed that all of liberty shall be lost; this is consis-
tent with the statement economic independence is crucial to securing a man’s personal freedoms.
Eliminate (C) because these lines do not compare how economically efficient free people are in
relation to slaves. Eliminate (D) because there is no mention of people who cede their capital to
others. The correct answer is (B).
6 | Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations
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19. D The question asks what is true according to figure 1. Read figure 1 carefully and eliminate an-
swer choices that are not consistent with the figure. The dotted line in figure 1 is a scatterplot
graph, and the solid line is the line of best fit for the data. Eliminate (A) because the value of
the stock of slaves decreased or remained constant between about 1818 and 1828 and between
about 1837 and 1844; the data does not show that it increased steadily from 1810 to 1850.
Eliminate (B) because the figure shows the stock value of slaves, but not the number of slaves.”
Eliminate (C) because there is no information about per capita value in the figure. Keep (D)
because the line of best fit between 1850 and 1860 is steeper than the line of best fit between
1810 and 1820, indicating that the value of the stock of slaves increased more quickly from 1850 to
1860 than from 1810 to 1820. The correct answer is (D).
20. A The question asks which idea from the passage is most directly supported by the data presented
in figure 2. Read figure 2 carefully and eliminate answers that are not consistent with the fig-
ure or are not mentioned in the passage. Keep (A), since figure 2 indicates that 76.1% of white
Southern families were Non-slaveholders, indicating that they supported themselves through
means other than the use of slave labor. This supports the idea, stated in the third paragraph of
the passage, that A large majority of people did not have others working for them. Eliminate (B)
because there is no information in figure 2 about hired laborers. This idea is also not included
in the passage. Eliminate (C) because the data in figure 2 does not include information about
wealth in general. This idea also is not included in the passage. Eliminate (D) because figure 2
does not include information about hired laborers, and because this idea is not included in the
passage. The correct answer is (A).
21. C The question asks for a statement about the South’s economy in 1860 that is suggested by figures
1 and 2 together. Read figures 1 and 2 carefully and eliminate answers that are not consistent
with the figures. Eliminate (A) because the figures only include information about slavery;
there is not enough information to support a statement about what percentage of wealth as
a whole was dependent on the slave economy. Eliminate (B) because there is no information in
the figures about the distinction between labor and capital. Keep (C) because figure 1 indicates
a rapid growth in the value of the stock of slaves leading up to 1860, and figure 2 shows that a
minority of whites in the South in 1860 were slaveholders. Eliminate (D) because there is no
information in the figures about the effects of failing to diversify the economy or the causes of
the downfall of the Confederacy. The correct answer is (C).
22. C Choice (A) is incorrect because if the author were nostalgic about the word creativity, he would
not be inclined to argue that it’s time to stop using it. Choice (B) is also incorrect because
he is not amused nor confused about the word creativity. Choice (D) is incorrect; while the
author feels the word creativity is antiquated, there is no evidence that his attitude is an old or
outdated one. Choice (C) is correct because the author’s attitude toward the word creativity is
jaded. He lacks enthusiasm for the word and feels it is overused because of its connection to a
very popular but not well-supported hypothesis.
|Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations 7
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23. A Jaded means “tired of something, particularly after being overexposed to it.” Choice (A) re-
flects the author’s attitude by suggesting that the word is no longer needed. Choice (B) does
not contain as much sense of the author’s attitude toward the word, so eliminate (B). Choice
(C) contains information that is more directly about why the word has been used so much,
rather than why the author is tired of it; eliminate (C). Choice (D) introduces an example
that reinforces the idea that the hypothesis mentioned earlier is not well supported. It does not
directly support (C) in the previous question. Choice (A) is the correct answer.
24. C While the first part of the paragraph deals with the frequency of the occurrence of the word
creativity, it is not the main idea that the paragraph lends to the passage. Therefore, (A) is not
correct. This same line of reasoning can be used to eliminate (D). While it is not inherently
wrong, it is not the main or primary purpose for the second paragraph. The author is using
this paragraph to introduce an example with which he does not agree. Therefore, it’s unlikely
that the main purpose would be to show the importance of the word, unless he then refutes
that belief. This falls more in line with (C), which is the correct answer and supported by the
passage. The author goes on to note that the words attributed to Mozart were not written by
him: they do not describe how he composed, and we have known this since 1856, when Mozart
biographer Otto Jahn showed that they were forged.
25. D In the context of the sentence, mixed most nearly means “not consistent.” The author states
that Psychologists have been trying to prove the creativity hypothesis for nearly a hundred years, and
if the results were consistent they would have used the results to either prove or disprove the
theory. Misunderstood, stirred, and scientific do not match this prediction and are therefore
incorrect. Choice (D), varied, matches the prediction and is the correct answer.
26. A In the first sentence of Passage 2 the author states that a lot of the vocabulary of science concerns
the models rather than the reality. He then uses the word discovery as an example. This means
that the word discovery is not referring to reality, or, more correctly, showing that the word is
not used appropriately; this best matches (A), the correct answer. Choice (B) does not match
the prediction. Choices (C) and (D) also do not match the prediction. While the author may
draw attention to this particular example and suggest that the word does not mean what it
seems to mean, neither of these choices describe why the quotes were used. More specifically,
for (D), the use of quotes does not provide an alternate meaning; it just suggests that one exists.
27. B In the context of the passage, the word overturned is used to refer to the work of Copernicus,
Kepler, Galileo, and Newton. The author goes on to say that Galileo was persecuted for con-
curring with Copernicus and that This idea conflicted with the then current theological interpre-
tation, showing that these works were contrary to the entrenched beliefs of the time. Overturn,
therefore, must mean “negate” or “reverse the ideas of the time.” This prediction most closely
matches (B).
28. B In the passage, the author notes that the church did not object to the concept of a moving
Earth when it was used for modeling and calculation; what they did object to was Galileo’s
8 | Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations
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claim that the Earth really moves. This means that the church was not in complete objection to
the theory, making (A) incorrect. There is no mention of how the church dealt with Galileo
and his theory in this passage, so (C) is not correct. There is also no evidence that the church
supported the theory, only that they were tolerant of it at certain times; therefore, (D) is incor-
rect. Choice (B) most closely matches the prediction, so it is the correct answer.
29. D This question asks for a pair that has similar attitudes. General questions such as this should
be done after all of the specific questions. Also note that the following question is a best evi-
dence question, so Q29 and Q30 can be answered in tandem. Look at the answers for Q30
first. Lines 1–2 are not about anyone, so they do not support any answers from Q29; eliminate
(30A). Lines 24–26 refer to the work of Hadamard, Vernon, and Penrose, but these people do
not support any answers from Q29; eliminate (30B). Lines 28–30 discuss how Mozart’s quote
was forged, yet these writers still keep ”quoting” Mozart. Similarly, lines 59–61 are about how
the church authorities did not object to the concept of a moving Earth despite the evidence to
the contrary. These views are similar in their denial of the facts presented, so (30C) supports
(29D). Lines 33–35 state that psychologists have been trying to prove the creativity hypothesis
for nearly a hundred years with mixed results, whereas lines 82–83 state that no scientist doubts
that the Sun is really at the center of the Solar System. These lines seem related to (29B), but Q29
asks for a pair with similar attitudes, and here the scientists are certain but the psychologists
haven’t proven their hypothesis. Therefore, only (29D) is supported by lines from Q30. The
correct answers are (29D) and (30C).
30. C (See explanation above.)
31. B The scientific model only theoretically describes the system that it is trying to model. Be-
cause of this, scientific models are generally not proven through physical observation or experi-
ence, but rather through mathematics, speculation, and hypothesis. This is most similar to the
creativity hypothesis mentioned in Passage 1; it is a theory that is speculative and remains
unproven. The universe in its entirety is not mentioned in either passage, and the scientific
model would not be the same thing as an entire universe. So too would black holes not be sim-
ilar to the scientific model. Therefore, both (A) and (D) are incorrect. According to Passage 1,
all that one knows about The Mathematician’s Mind; Creativity, is that it contains a quote inac-
curately attributed to Mozart. There is not enough information to draw a comparison between
the book and the scientific model. Therefore, (C) is incorrect, leaving only (B), which matches
the prediction and is the correct answer.
32. C The question asks for the primary purpose of the passage, so the correct answer must address
the main motivation behind why the author wrote the passage. Although the passage does
discuss a way in which technology might aid animal research (specifically, GPS), (A) is too
specific to be the primary purpose of the passage; eliminate (A). The passage discusses control-
ling the feral swine population, but it does not discuss the bio-ethics surrounding this issue, so
(B) is incorrect. The passage provides a brief history of the feral swine’s presence in the United
|Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations 9
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States, but (D) is too specific to be the answer, so you can eliminate (D) as well. Choice (C)
addresses the author’s main purpose in writing the passage and is the correct answer.
33. A The author describes the basic features of the feral swine and then details a particular problem
concerning the species and the steps being taken to mitigate the problem. The author’s tone
can be best described as that of academic interest, which is (A). The author has no personal
stake in the feral swine situation and does not express either outrage or fondness in relation to
the swine. The other choices can be eliminated.
34. C The question asks what is true based on the passage. General questions such as this should be
done after all of the specific questions. Also note that the following question is a best evidence
question, so Q34 and Q35 can be answered in tandem. Look at the answers for Q35 first.
Lines 3–8 contradict (34A) because the boars typically interact with sows only to breed. Elimi-
nate (34A) and (35A). Lines 16–19 do not support any answer for Q34; eliminate (35B). Lines
35–38 state that feral swine are known to spread more than 30 diseases and 37 parasites…which
can have devastating effects on…humans. However, there is no mention of consuming pig meat,
so these lines do not support (34D); eliminate (35C). Lines 48–51 state that little is known
about feral swine populations and their habitat use and movement patterns, which supports (34C).
Only (34C) is supported by lines from Q35. The correct answers are (34C) and (35D).
35. D (See explanation above.)
36. C The question asks what the phrase survival of their young can be nearly 100 percent suggests, so
the correct answer must be supported by evidence in the passage. There is no evidence that the
feral pig population is maintained at a constant rate; in fact, the passage later indicates that the
population is increasing. Choice (A) is incorrect. The passage does not give any information
about the feral pig population prior to the pig’s arrival in the United States, so (B) is incorrect.
The passage describes the work as being done to curb the feral pig population; (D) describes
the opposite situation and can therefore be eliminated. A 100-percent survival rate means that
the populations can increase easily with each litter. Choice (C) is supported by the text and is
the correct answer.
37. D Remember to use the context of the passage when considering the definition of the word, not
your own prior usage of the word wallows. The passage states that the feral swine root, or dig,
for food and create wallows, thereby destroying sensitive vegetation, displacing native wildlife, and
ultimately leading to loss of habitat quality and value. Based on the context, wallows must be
the result of digging, such as “holes” or “trenches.” Choice (D), depressions, best matches this
meaning and is the correct answer. Choice (B) might be a tempting choice of the association
with the phrase wallowing in misery; however, miseries does not match the needed sense of
“holes” or “trenches,” so (B) is also incorrect.
38. D The question asks for a way in which feral hog populations negatively affect human communi-
ties, so look to the passage for evidence. General questions such as this should be done after
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all of the specific questions. Also note that the following question is a best evidence question,
so Q38 and Q39 can be answered in tandem. Look at the answers for Q39 first. Lines 23–26
state that Hurricane protection levees…that protect human communities have been severely dam-
aged by rooting. This supports (D) from Q38. Lines 26–29 state that feral hogs create potentially
hazardous conditions for the operation of farm equipment, but there’s no indication that they
damage farm equipment per (38A). Eliminate (39B). Lines 29–33 state that feral hogs compete
for food directly with other animals, but not that they destroy the natural habitats per (38B).
Eliminate (39C). Lines 44–47 indicate that feral hogs go beyond public land, but there is no
mention of hunting as in (38C). Eliminate (39D). Only (38D) is supported by a line reference
in Q39. The correct answers are (38D) and (39A).
39. A (See explanation above.)
40. B Remember to use the context of the passage when considering the definition of the word ref-
uges, not your own prior usage or knowledge of the word. The passage states that In Louisiana,
several wildlife refuges allow swine trapping by permitted individuals and hunting by licensed
individuals. From the context, it can be assumed that wildlife refuges are places where animals
are usually protected, because hunters need special permission to hunt the feral swine in these
locations. Choice (B) best matches this meaning. Both (A) and (C) offer synonyms for refugees,
rather than for refuges, so those choices can be eliminated.
41. A The question asks what the author suggests about GPS collars, so the correct answer must have
support from the text. Lines 62–73 never mention ethical concerns surrounding the collars or
the age of the pigs collared. Choices (B) and (D) are incorrect. Additionally, the lines never say
how hunters interact with collared pigs, which eliminates (C). The paragraph states that The
group’s movements and locations can then be tracked through the movement of the collared indi-
vidual, which supports (A), the correct answer.
42. B The term Judas pig is a reference to the famous Biblical traitor, Judas; the collared Judas pig
unwittingly betrays the position and movements of its group. This term functions as an
allusion to a well-known source, the Bible, so (B) is the correct answer. It does not function
as personification because the pigs are not assigned human attributes, so (A) is incorrect. The
author does not use this term while intending the opposite meaning, so (C) is incorrect. The
term is not used as a representation of something else, so (D) is incorrect.
43. A This question asks for the main purpose of the passage, so pay attention to the overall topic
rather than specific information. The passage focuses on many different aspects of a single
metal, which best supports (A). Although both the applications of nickel and the Russian min-
ing economy are mentioned, neither is the main focus of the passage; eliminate (B) and (D).
The health risks associated with nickel are not discussed, eliminating (C). Choice (A) is the
answer.
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44. B This question asks about the shift in focus throughout the course of the passage, so the correct
answer will focus on the general topics discussed rather than specific ones. Although the ety-
mology of the name nickel is discussed at the beginning, the passage does not go on to discuss
any other metals or elements, so you can eliminate (A). The passage discusses the discovery of
nickel in the first paragraph, its formation in the second and third paragraphs, its uses in the
fourth paragraph, and its current mining production in the last paragraphs. This supports (B).
Although both the individual who discovered nickel and consumption of nickel is mentioned,
these points are much too specific (and the greatest consumer of nickel is never mentioned), so
(C) cannot be correct. And while the author does state where nickel is found and its common
uses, these two points are too limited to account for the overall shift in the passage. The best
answer is (B).
45. A The question asks for a statement from the author about where the majority of the Earth’s
nickel is located. General questions such as this should be done after all of the specific ques-
tions. Also note that the following question is a best evidence question, so Q45 and Q46 can
be answered in tandem. Look at the answers for Q46 first. The first line of the second para-
graph states that the majority of nickel is found in the Earth’s core, which supports (A) for
both Q45 and Q46. The second paragraph states that 40% of the Earth’s nickel is found in
magmatic sulfide deposits, which is not a majority, so eliminate (45C) and (46B). At the end
of the second paragraph, the author states that the majority of Canada’s nickel, not the Earth’s
nickel, is found in the Sudbury Igneous Complex, eliminating (45B) and (46C). Since the
fourth paragraph discusses the United States’ use of nickel, not its production or amount of
nickel, eliminate (45D) and (46D). The correct answers are (45A) and (46A).
46. A (See explanation above.)
47. C This question asks what is implied by the phrase likely a comet, so the answer will be based on
exactly what is said in the passage. The use of the word likely indicates uncertainty; it has not
been proven that it was a comet. This best supports (C). Choice (A) can be eliminated because
no other comet strikes are discussed; if they are not discussed, nothing can be known about
them. Choice (B) can be eliminated because asteroids are not discussed and, once again, if
they are not discussed, then nothing can be known about them. Choice (D) can be elimi-
nated as well because no physical evidence is mentioned either. Choice (C) is the only possible
answer.
48. D When asked for the meaning of a word or phrase in context, be sure to base your answer on
the context of the passage rather than your previous knowledge or usage of the word. In this
context, the author is discussing the presence of nickel in laterite deposits, so host most nearly
means “contains” or “holds.” Only (D) matches this meaning.
49. A The list in question is provided as a series of examples to strengthen the author’s point in the
first few lines of the fourth paragraph. This best supports (A). Although this list is a series of
examples of harsh environments, they do not indicate how harsh these environments can be,
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so (B) is incorrect. Green technology is not mentioned in this passage, so eliminate (C). Be-
cause no other metals or alloys are discussed in the passage, there is no indication that nickel is
the most versatile. This eliminates (D), leaving (A) as the correct answer.
50. D The question asks why the author believes that the lack of U.S. nickel production should not
be a concern. General questions such as this should be done after all of the specific questions.
Also note that the following question is a best evidence question, so Q50 and Q51 can be
answered in tandem. Look at the answers for Q51 first. Lines 52–55 discuss how nickel is
used, but not why the lack of production is not a concern; eliminate (51A). Similarly, lines
68–71 state that there are no active nickel mines in the United States, but they do not discuss
why that’s not a concern; eliminate (51B). Lines 85–88 state that the risk of a disruption in sup-
ply is low, however, because there are sufficient global reserves. This supports (50D). Lines 90–92
state that production from laterite deposits is likely to increase. This may be a reason no to be
concerned about the lack of U.S. nickel production, but it doesn’t match (50C) because the
passage doesn’t say that these deposits are in the United States. Eliminate (51D). Only (50D) is
supported by lines from Q51. The correct answers are (50D) and (51C).
51. C (See explanation above.)
52. A This question asks for one-third of stainless steel and nickel alloy use, so check each choice
with the information provided in the figure focused on stainless steel and nickel alloy use.
According to the figure, metal goods and transportation each account for 16% of the stain-
less steel and nickel alloy use, which makes the total for the two 32%. This is very close to
one-third, or 33.3%, so keep (A). According to the figure, 16% of transportation and 15% of
electronics account for stainless steel and nickel alloy use, which totals 31%. This choice is
not as close to 33.3% as (A), so eliminate (B). Engineering accounts for only 24% of stainless
steel and nickel alloy use, so eliminate (C). Building and construction and tubular products
account for only 21% of stainless steel and nickel alloy use, so (D) can be eliminated as well.
The correct answer is (A).
Section 2: Writing and Language
1. D The information that follows refers to how many particles can invade the body. Choice (A)
does not set up the information that follows; rather, it focuses on the information that is men-
tioned prior to the sentence. The option in (B) uses this to refer to a field of study that has not
yet been mentioned, so eliminate (B). Choice (C) does not fit with the flow of the paragraph.
Therefore, (D) is the answer.
2. D This question is about the transition word. The transition needed should indicate a contrast of
some kind; this eliminates (B) and (C). The transition even though is not one that gets separated
out with commas as unnecessary information, which eliminates (A). Choice (D) is correct.
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3. D In the answer choices, the pronoun and the verb are changing. The pronouns and verbs in
(A), (B), and (C) make them all complete ideas. The underlined portion follows a complete
idea and a comma, so these choices can be eliminated because a complete idea is not needed.
Choice (D) is correct.
4. C The punctuation is varying among forms of STOP, HALF-STOP, and GO; therefore, draw
the vertical line between shot and of. The parts both before and after the vertical line are in-
complete; therefore, a form of GO is needed; this eliminates (A) and (B). There is no reason to
slow down ideas, eliminating (D). The correct answer is (C).
5. B This question is testing diction. As written, the word needed should indicate proteins that are
difficult to separate and individuate. The word that best indicates this is intertwined, making (B)
the best fit.
6. C Choice (C) is the most concise option. It is also grammatically correct, which makes it the best
option here. All other options refer to the paragraph above, which makes them much longer
than just saying all of this, as (C) does.
7. B As written, the word those is ambiguous. Choices (A) and (D) both feature ambiguous pro-
nouns, so eliminate them. The word ones in (C) is also ambiguous, making (B) the best option,
as it precisely states what is being referred to.
8. C The question is looking for the best connection to the previous paragraph. The end of the
previous paragraph mentions complications that face scientists who study old diseases. A good
transition phrase will connect those complications to the new insights described in the rest of
the paragraph that follows. Choice (A) can be eliminated because it adds nothing new and is
redundant. Choices (B) and (D) do not address the shift in focus. Choice (C) is the correct
answer.
9. D The answer choices show that this question is testing verb tense. Since the sentence is discuss-
ing Incans who died 500 years ago, (A) and (C) can be eliminated. When two events occur
in the past, use had (the past perfect) to show the event that happened before (and was ended
by) the other. Here, the symptoms of the lung disease happened before the mummies had traces
of the disease, so had is needed to show that the experience came first. Eliminate (B) and
choose (D).
10. D When given the option to DELETE the underlined portion, look for a reason to keep it. In
this sentence, there is no need for the extra words. Choices (B) and (C) unnecessarily repeat
the word some. Therefore, for the sake of being concise, the best option is (D).
11. D This sentence should not be added because it does not provide any new information. Choices
(A) and (B) can be eliminated because the sentence is not needed, and (C) is incorrect because
whether the process is widely accepted or not is not the subject of discussion. Choice (D) is
answer.
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12. A Punctuation is changing among the answer choices. A word or phrase with commas before
and after it is unnecessary information. However, the word by is necessary to the sentence, so
eliminate (C). There is no reason to slow down ideas, so eliminate (B). The difference between
(A) and (D) is the addition of the colon in (D). Choose (A), as there is no need for a colon in
this sentence because by works at the start of the list.
13. B There is no reason to include words that do not add information. Choice (C) is verbose and
incorrect. Choices (A), (B), and (D) all contain the words to go, but (A) and (D) are wordier
without adding to or changing the meaning. Therefore, to be as concise as possible, choose (B).
14. A There is nothing wrong with this sentence as written. The correct word is used. Choices (B)
and (C) have similar meanings and thus cancel each other out; both also offer a more extreme
sense than relieve. Choice (D), relax, does not fit in this context. Choice (A) is correct.
15. D The paragraph is about an underground line in Boston. Therefore, a reference to underground
transit in the United States as a whole and in London is outside the focus of the paragraph.
Choice (D) is correct.
16. C This question is testing transitions. The point that follows, the elevated lines had their own prob-
lems, needs to be connected to the previous paragraph, which has a more positive perspective,
by a word that indicates contrast. Choice (C) is the only one that does so. Choice (A) would
need to have a contrasting point show up after the sentence, but this does not happen. This
is not a cause-and-effect relationship, eliminating (B). Since the next sentence is negative, the
word hopefully would not make sense. Choice (C) is best.
17. D When the option to DELETE the underlined portion shows up, see whether the underlined
portion is truly needed. In this case, it is not. Choice (D) is concise and conveys the same in-
tended meaning. The answer is (D).
18. D As written, the sentence is not a sentence as the second verb has no subject. Choice (D) fixes
this error by introducing the subject, making (D) the best fit. Though the other options may
be shorter, a shorter answer must be grammatically correct in order to be the best answer.
19. D This question is testing apostrophes, so first see whether an apostrophe is needed here. There is
no reason to use one, so eliminate the options with they’re, (B) and (C). The verb is also chang-
ing here; the subject to which the verb refers is antipathy, which is singular. Therefore, the verb
should be singular, eliminating (A). The answer is (D).
20. B The verb tense is changing in the answer choices, so check the tense. As written, the tense is
past perfect, which is used when one event comes before another event and both events are
in the past. However, because the Orange Line is valued at the same time the city decided to
destroy it, that tense is not needed here, as the verb should match with chose. This is standard
past tense, making (B) the correct answer. Choice (D) is in present tense, and (C) is wordy.
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21. A Since the writer wants to further reinforce the paragraph’s claim about the movement away from
elevated trains, the correct sentence should mention something about underground trains be-
coming more prevalent or elevated become less so. The answer that does so best is (A). Choice
(B) is about the wrong city, as the paragraph focused on Boston. Choice (C) is not about the
elevated versus underground trains, nor is (D).
22. B This question is testing transitions. Choices (A) and (D) suggest that this new paragraph
marks a change in direction from the previous one. This final paragraph is working to sum up
the significance of the changes mentioned throughout the passage, and in the previous para-
graph in particular, so there is not a change of direction. Eliminate (A) and (D). Choice (C) is
awkward and suggests a causality that isn’t present. Choice (B) is the correct answer, since it
reinforces the sense that the paragraph is summing up the overall significance of what’s been
discussed.
23. A The author’s goal is to convey admiration and avoid sarcasm. The only choice that does so is
(A). Choice (B) would likely be read sarcastically, as would (C). Choice (D) does not convey
admiration.
24. B The answer choices vary based on forms of punctuation. As written, there is a semicolon be-
tween simple and a, so draw a vertical line there. The first half is complete, but the second part
is not. Therefore, (A) can be eliminated. There is no reason for punctuation after team, as the
team is described as a team of speechwriters. Therefore, eliminate (C) and (D). The best option
is (B), which properly uses a colon.
25. A This question is testing an idiom. The correct idiom to go with just as, which starts this sen-
tence, is so too; this makes (A) the best option.
26. B Since the writer wants the passage to reflect the humorous rendering contained in the cartoon, the
correct answer will meet that goal. Neither (A) nor (D) builds on the joke within the cartoon,
so eliminate them. Choice (C) brings in information that is unrelated to the topic at hand.
Choice (B) is the answer.
27. C The question asks which choice continues the contrast in the sentence. The contrast is between
speechwriters’ original focus on creative writing and later interest in speechwriting. Choices
(A) and (B) can be eliminated, as the passage suggests that speechwriting is not an obvious
path to great personal fame but one that requires writing talent. There is no evidence that
speechwriting leads to novel writing; in fact, the sentence suggests the opposite, so eliminate
(D). Choice (C) reflects a shift in the writers’ motivations and pursuits and is consistent with
the information in the passage, so it is the correct answer.
28. C The answer choices vary based on singular versus plural, so first find the subject. The subject
here is prose, which is singular; therefore, plural verb forms such as have come and come are
incorrect. Eliminate (A) and (B). Choice (D) is singular but not the proper tense. Choice (C) is
the answer.
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29. D The answer choices vary based on creative versus created and how versus whether. The word
creative is describing writer, making the form creative necessary; this eliminates (B) and (C).
Since this is not a choice between two options, the word whether is not correct. Choice (D) is
the answer.
30. A The sentence starts by saying That’s pretty impressive, so it needs to follow what specifically
is pretty impressive. The salary for speechwriters is what is impressive in that paragraph, so
the sentence should go after the salary is mentioned. Additionally, sentence 1 is the only sen-
tence that mentions money. Therefore, this new sentence belongs after sentence 1, making (A)
correct.
31. B The answer choices vary by punctuation and the exact phrasing used. The best way to connect
these two ideas is with the word which, as it does so concisely and without being repetitive.
Therefore, (B) is correct. Choice (C) uses an incorrect conjunction to link the ideas, and (A) is
repetitive by including the word fame both before and after the period. Choice (D) is wordier
than necessary.
32. D The answers differ by diction, as forms of their, there, and they’re are changing. In both cases,
the proper form is the pronoun their because it first refers to the speechwriters’ words and then
to the speechwriters’ bosses. This makes (D) the only option.
33. C The question asks which option most effectively concludes the sentence and paragraph. The focus
of the paragraph is on the larger rewards that a speechwriter might gain in lieu of fame. Elimi-
nate (B) and (D), as these endings are not consistent with the paragraph’s focus. Between (A)
and (C), (C) more fully reflects the idea of making a huge difference in people’s lives by reaching
a broad audience effectively, so it is the correct answer.
34. A The answer choices vary by both verb tense and agreement. The subject of the sentence is the
film industry, which is singular, so the verb should also be singular. Eliminate (B) and (D).
Choice (C) is past tense, and the verb needs to match the present tense of churns, so eliminate
(C). Choice (A) is the correct answer.
35. B The answer choices differ by exact phrasing. The shortest phrase shown is (B), so test it out.
Since (B) works and is the most concise, it is the correct answer.
36. D Sentence 4 introduces the highest-grossing film in India for a given year. This is not relevant in
this paragraph, so it should be deleted, which is (D). If you are unsure, try placing the sentence
in the spot where each answer choice is found; you’ll see that it does not logically follow at any
point. Therefore, the most concise answer also best maintains the paragraph’s focus, which
is (D).
37. D The word however signals the transition from the previous paragraph, which ends on the point
that most Indian films reach only an Indian market. This new paragraph discusses a director
whose works were exceptional in appealing to a much broader audience, so however works with
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the first part of the sentence to emphasize the contrast. Eliminate (A), which places the how-
ever in relation to the second idea in the sentence. Choice (D) contains STOP punctuation, so
you can draw a vertical line and test whether the STOP punctuation is necessary. The ideas on
both sides are complete, so both (B) and (C) are incorrect, and (D) is the correct answer.
38. A The answer choices vary based on punctuation around the list of influences. The first part of
the sentence is not complete, so no form of STOP punctuation can be used after influences;
this eliminates (B), which improperly uses a semicolon. Likewise, since the beginning part
is not a complete idea, a colon cannot be used, as it requires a complete idea prior to it. A
single dash also would, but this is not such a situation—there is a second dash after the idea,
as the list being mentioned is of the varied influences mentioned in the beginning of the sen-
tence. The pair of dashes is working like a pair of commas, separating the necessary idea from
the unnecessary idea. The answer is therefore (A).
39. C The answer choices vary based on length of the phrase and the exact phrasing. The short-
est choice, (C), is grammatically correct and works in the sentence; therefore, it’s the correct
answer.
40. D The answer choices differ based on exact phrasing and pronoun usage. Choices (A), (B), and
(C) can all be eliminated because they use the plural pronoun their in reference to anyone,
which is singular. Choice (D) removes the pronoun and creates a grammatically sound sen-
tence, making (D) the answer.
41. A The sentence would make logical sense as a transition between the first and second sentences of
the paragraph. As written, the first two sentences do not flow; adding this sentence would fix
that error, so eliminate (C) and (D). The sentence does not demonstrate some of the techniques
that made Ray’s films special, so eliminate (B). The answer is therefore (A).
42. B The word choice varies here, so this question is testing diction. The sentence needs a word that
means something like demonstrated. Choices (A), (B), and (C) all have that sense, but demon-
strated and manifested need to be followed by a to in this context. Choice (D) does not make
sense in this context, as Ray was not performing audiences. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
43. C The question wants the phrase that best supports the point developed in the paragraph. The para-
graph focuses on the greatness of Ray’s achievement, and this achievement would be particu-
larly impressive if Western audiences were not inclined to pay attention to Indian filmmakers
at the time he was working. Eliminate (A), (B), and (D), as they all offer options that would
make Ray’s achievements somewhat less remarkable. The answer is (C).
44. A The choices vary based on the transition word, so the question is testing transitions. Since the
paragraph is contrasting the past with the present, the word now is the best one to use. This
makes (A) the correct answer.
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Section 3: Math—No Calculator
1. B Plug In the Answers! The answer choices aren’t in order, so start with (A). Make s = −2 and
t = 0 in the first equation: 2(−2) – 3(0) = 10; −4 – 0 = 10; −4 = 10. This isn’t true, so eliminate
(A). Try (B); make s = 2 and t = −2: 2(2) – 3(−2) = 10; 4 + 6 = 10; 10 = 10. This is true, so try
the second equation: 6(2) – 2(−2) = 16; 12 + 4 = 16; 16 = 16. This also works; choose (B).
2. A Set the expressions equal to 3 and solve for k. Eliminate any choice that does not result in an
integer value of k. Choice (A) becomes 4k + 3 = 3. Solve for k. Subtract 3 from both sides:
4k = 0. Divide both sides by 4, and you get k = 0. 0 is an integer, so (A) works and is the correct
answer.
3. A Plug In! Make x = 2. The question wants what is equivalent to g(x + 1), so if x = 2, then the
question really wants g(2 + 1) = g(3). To find g(3), use the function provided: g(3) = 4(3) + 6 =
12 + 6 = 18. This is your target; circle it. Make x = 2 in each answer choice and eliminate any
choice that does not equal 18. Only (A) works.
4. D The question wants to know the meaning of the “10,000” in the expression. Label what you
know: d is the number of defective balls per hour, and h is the number of hours in a day’s shift.
These two are multiplied together and subtracted from 10,000. This means dh must be the
total number of defective balls produced in a day. Eliminate (B) because the question asks
about the 10,000, not the defective balls. You can also eliminate (A) because the number
of non-defective balls must be lower than 10,000 (because you’re subtracting dh balls from
10,000). Choice (C) can also be eliminated because it doesn’t account for subtracting dh from
10,000. This leaves (D), which fits the information: the non-defective balls would be the
difference between the total number of balls produced and the number of defective balls
produced.
5. C Translate English to math in bite-sized pieces. The number of adopted amendments in 1791
is p. If the number of amendments from 1791 to 1992 is “three less than three times” p, that
would be 3p – 3. The number of amendments from 1791 to 1992 is also equal to 27, which
means 3p – 3 = 27. This is not a choice, but it’s enough to work some POE. Choice (A)
has −3p, but if you subtract 3p from both sides of 3p – 3 = 27, you get −3 = 27 – 3p, which
doesn’t match (A); eliminate it. For (B), to isolate 3p, add 3 to both sides of 3p – 3 = 27 to get
3p = 30; this doesn’t match (B), so eliminate it. However, it does match (C), so choose (C).
6. C Work the problem in bite-sized pieces, being especially careful with the negatives. Start with
the m4n terms: m4n – (−m4n) = 2m4n. This must be part of your answer; eliminate (A) and (B).
Next, work the m terms: 3m – (+3m) = 0. There should be no m terms as part of your answer;
eliminate (D) and choose (C).
7. A Plug In! Choose numbers that fit the equation given and make the math easy; make y = 2 and
z = 3. The only choice that works is (A).
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8. C If the two lines are parallel, then they must share the same slope. Start by finding the slope
fo34ofr=leine−e0q8u−n−aabl0yto.uSs34iinm.gTptloihfefyinftodhrema,ruirlgeahumtsesit=dhexey22so−−lfopxyt11hee:foe0rqm4−uu−a(lt−a0io3, n)th=tios34tgi.meTtehe3u4ss=ilnog8paep.soCoinfrotbssos(-t−mh8u,lil0nti)epsalynardteo(t0hf,ienard)e:-
4a = 24. Divide both sides by 4 to find that a = 6, which is (C).
9. B Plug In the Answers! Because the question wants the least number of sides, start with the least
value, 4. Because s is the number of sides in the equation, this means that s = 4. Making s = 4
in the equation gives you 4E = 360. Dividing both sides by 4 gives you E = 90. However, the
question indicates that the measure of the exterior angle is less than 80°; (A) doesn’t work, so
eliminate it and move on to (B). If s = 5, then 5E = 360. Dividing both sides by 5 gives you
E = 72, which is less than 80. There are no lesser answers remaining, so the answer must be (B).
10. D There are variables in the answers, so you can Plug In. You are looking for the choice that
makes y greater than or equal to −3, so you want to test values of x that may make y less than
−3. All of the choices contain −4 in some way, so make x = 0. If x = 0, (A), (B), and (C) all give
you y = −4, which is less than −3, so eliminate all three and go with (D). When x = 0, (D)
states that y = 16, which is definitely greater than or equal to −3, so it’s the correct answer.
11. C If a system of two linear equations has no solutions, then the two lines never intersect and are
thus parallel. Parallel lines have the same slope, so you need to find the value of q that will
make the first equation have the same slope as the second equation. Both equations are in stan-
dard form, which is Ax + By = C. In standard form, the slope of a line is − A . Therefore, the
B
q q 6 6
slope of the first equation is − −5 = 5 , and the slope of the second equation is − =−776 = 7 . Be-
cause equal, set the slopes equal to each other: .
the slopes of these lines must be q Isolate
5
6 30
q by multiplying both sides by 5: q = 7 5 = 7 , which is (C).
12. C None of the answers have i in the denominator, so you need to clear the i in the denominator
in the question. To do so, multiply the fraction by the conjugate of the complex number in the
denominator over itself. To find the conjugate of a complex number, simply change the sign on
the imaginary portion of the number. In this case, you need to multiply 5 − 3i by 6 − 4i and
6 + 4i 6 − 4i
2 0 | Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations
SAT Premium Prep
FOIL both the numerator and denominator: 5 − 3i × 6 − 4i = 30 − 20i − 18i + 12i2 . Because
6 + 4i 6 − 4i 36 − 24i + 24i − 16i2
i2 = −1, you can substitute −1 for the i2 terms: 30 − 20i − 18i + 12 (−1) = 30 − 20i − 18i − 12 .
36 − 24i + 24i − 16 (−1) 36 − 24i + 24i + 16
Next, combine like terms in both the numerator and denominator: 18 − 38i . Because the
52
choices are given as two separate fractions, split the numerator into two fractions: 18 − 38i .
52 52
This doesn’t yet match any answer choices (you have to reduce), but you can eliminate (B) and
(D) because the second term is subtracted from the first, not added. Take a bite-sized piece:
reducing the first fraction, 18 , gives you 9 , which eliminates (A), and you can go with (C)
52 26
without reducing the second fraction.
13. D You can solve this question by factoring the quadratic, finding the individual roots, and then
adding the roots together, but there’s also a better way. For a quadratic equation in standard
form (y = ax2 + bx + c), the sum of the roots can be found with − b . Here, b = −18 and a = 3,
a
−18
so the sum of the roots is − 3 = 6 , which is (D).
14. B When you have exponents, remember your MADSPM rules. In this case, when you multiply,
you must add the exponents. However, to do this, you must have equal bases. Here, 9 = 32,
so you can rewrite the left term to (32)a, which is equal to 32a. Now the expression is (32a)(3b) =
32a + b. You know that 2a + b = 6, so you can substitute 6 for 2a + b, which gives you 36, (B). It
is also possible to plug in here. Plug in for a, and then solve for b. If a = 4, then b = –2, giving
(94)(3–2). Change the base of the first term to (32)4, and then simplify the exponents to get
(38)(3–2) = 36.
15. D When you FOIL the left side of the equation, you get 6x2 + 3ax + 2bx + ab = 6x2 + cx + 12.
Because the x2 terms go together and the x terms go together, what’s left also goes together;
so ab = 12. If a + b = 7, then you need two numbers that add up to 7 and multiply to 12.
Those two numbers are 3 and 4. (If you’re struggling, list pairs of factors of 12 and look for
what pair has a sum of 7.) That means a and b are 3 and 4, but you don’t know which is
which. So pick something: make a = 3 and b = 4. Be careful not to stop here! Choice (A)
is half right, meaning that it’s all wrong! Returning to the original equation, you now have
(2x + 3)(3x + 4) = 6x2 + cx + 12. FOILing the left side this time gives you 6x2 + 17x + 12 =
|Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations 2 1
SAT Premium Prep
6x2 + cx + 12, so one possible value of c is 17. Only (D) includes 17, so it must be your answer
(and there’s no reason to find the other value of c).
16. 16 Because the flag is made up of rectangles and is itself a rectangle, and the white stripe transects
each rectangle at the same angle, you can use similar triangles to find the height of the blue
rectangle. The total length of the white stripe is x + 4x + 2x + 2x + 9x. The triangle made by
the white stripe and the blue rectangle has a white stripe distance of 4x. The height of this
triangle is proportional to the height of the whole flag: 4x = y , where y is the height of the
9x 36
triangle formed by the white stripe crossing the blue rectangle. Solve for y by first canceling the
x terms: 4 = y . Next, cross-multiply and divide; you get 9y = (4)(36) and then y = 16. The
9 36
height of the blue triangle is 16.
17. 90 Translate English to math. Make c the grams of sugar in a cupcake and f the grams of sugar in
a frozen yogurt. If each cupcake has 60 more grams of sugar than each frozen yogurt, then
c = 60 + f. If 3 cupcakes and 4 frozen yogurts have 390 grams of sugar, then 3c + 4f = 390. You
want to find the grams of sugar in each cupcake. To solve for c, you have a few options. One is
to first solve the first equation in terms of f by subtracting 60 from each side: c – 60 = f. Next,
substitute c – 60 for f in the second equation: 3c + 4(c – 60) = 390. Next, distribute the 4:
3c + 4c – 240 = 390. Combine like terms: 7c – 240 = 390. Add 240 to both sides: 7c = 630.
Divide both sides by 7, and you get c = 90.
18. 3 or 0.6
5
This question is testing your knowledge of the relationship between sine and cosine of comple-
mentary angles. This relationship is often expressed as sin x° = cos (90 – x)°. The important
part of the relationship is that if the angles add up to 90°, then the sine and cosine are equal.
Here, a° + (90 – a)° = 90°, so the two angles are complementary. The cosine of one angle is
equal to the sine of the other angle, so if cos a° = 3 , then sin (90 − a)° = 3 .
1 5 5
19. 4 or 0.25
If the system of equations has no solutions, then the lines described by the equations never
intersect. In other words, the lines are parallel and have the same slope. The equations are in
standard form: Ax + By = C. Slope in standard form is − BAslo. pTeh, esoslo−peba of the first equation
−4. The second equation has the same = −4 . The question
is therefore − 12 =
3
2 2 | Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations
SAT Premium Prep
wants b , so you need to do some manipulation. First, multiply both sides by −1: a = 4 . Mul-
a Divide both sides b to get
4b
tiply both sides by b: a = 4b. Divide both sides by a: 1 = a . by 4
1 = b .
4 a
20. 64 You have a system of equations and the question wants the value of y, so you want to make
the x terms go away. One way to approach this is to make the x portions of the two equations
equal to one another and then put the other parts of the equations equal to each other. Mul-
tiply the first equation by 4 to get 4x = 8 5 . Both equations are now equal to 4x, so you can
put the other parts of the equations equal to each other: 8 5 = 5 y . Isolate y. Start by squar-
ing both sides (don’t forget to square the 8 on the left side): 64(5) = 5y. Divide both sides by 5
and get 64 = y.
Section 4: Math—Calculator
1. B Work the problem in Bite-Sized Pieces. First, figure out the charge for the yoga classes. She
paid a total of $122.50, $60 of which was for the membership fee, leaving 122.50 – 60 =
$62.50 for yoga classes. If each yoga class costs $12.50, then Aubri attended 62.50 ÷ 12.50 = 5
yoga classes, which is (B).
2. A Probability is defined as what youwant . There are 13 Varsity members who prefer Armadil-
total possibilities
los and 11 Junior Varsity members who prefer Possums, making 11 + 13 = 24 possibilities that
give what you want out of 54 total members, or 24 , which is (A).
54
3. C Translate English to math. The question wants the expression for the number of signatures
Samantha expects to have in d days. She currently has 284 signatures, and she will add 28
signatures each day. Because she adds 28 signatures per day, you need to multiply 28 by d and
add that to 284, giving you 284 + 28d, (C). Plugging In is also an option. Plug in for d, and
then determine how many signatures she should have. If d = 2, then she will get 28 × 2 = 56
signatures in addition to the 284 she already has. This means she will have 340 signatures.
Since this answers the question, this is the target. Circle it! Plug d into the answer choices.
Only (C) gives 340 as a result.
4. A The question wants you to solve for the weight of the animal, which is x in the equation. The
question tells you that the veterinarian prescribed 110.25 mL, which is represented by D in the
equation, so substitute 110.25 for D: 110.25 = 60 + 0.67x . Solve for x. Start by subtracting 60
from both sides: 50.25 = 0.67x. Divide both sides by 0.67 to get x = 75, which is (A).
|Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations 2 3
SAT Premium Prep
5. D Work the problem in Bite-Sized Pieces. Start with the x2 terms. The sum of the polynomials is
the result of adding the polynomials, so the x2 term will be 3x2 + 4x2 = 7x2. This term should be
part of your answer; eliminate (A) and (B) because they don’t have 7x2. Next, add the x terms:
4x + (−3x) = x. This should also be part of your answer; eliminate (C) and choose (D).
6. C Start by translating English to math. “3 times the number n” can be written as 3n. “Add to 5”
means to add 3n to 5, which gives 3n + 5. “The result is 14” means “= 14,” so the first sentence
translates to 3n + 5 = 14. Before you start solving for n, be sure to Read the Full Question. You
want “6 times n added to 11,” or 6n + 11. If you multiply 3n + 5 = 14 by 2, you get 6n + 10 = 28.
Adding 1 to both sides gives you 6n + 11 = 29, (C).
7. D Probability is what youwant . In California, there were 7,854,000 votes for Obama, and
total possibilities
there were 13,086,200 total votes in California, so the chance of selecting a vote for Obama
from the total is 7,854,000 = 0.60, which is (D).
13, 086, 200
8. A Work this problem in Bite-Sized Pieces. If the capacity of the pond is 5,000 fish, then the total
number of fish must be less than or equal to 5,000; eliminate (B) and (D) because they do not
include “≤ 5,000.” The difference between (A) and (C) is the “+ 2,300” in (A). This represents
the initial 2,300 fish in the pond, so this must be part of the answer; choose (A).
9. B First, Ballpark! If the arithmetic mean is total things , then the answer should
number of
be somewhere in the middle of the histogram. Eliminate (A) and (D) because they
are extremes and not in the middle. To find the total, multiply the number of flow-
ers by the number of petals per flower for each column, and then add: (2 × 2) + (3 × 5) +
(5 × 4) + (6 × 2) + (8 × 4) = 83 total petals on 2 + 5 + 4 + 2 + 4 = 17 flowers. The average is then
83 = 4.9 , which is closest to 5, (B).
17
10. B Use Process of Elimination. For (A), mailing surveys is an established method of conducting
surveys, and 415 out of 550 randomly chosen patients responded, so this is not a problem;
eliminate (A). The survey covered patients who were treated in the previous year; there may
be a problem with the time elapsed since care was received (as patients may not remember or
misremember the care they received), so keep (B). Choices (C) and (D) consider similar issues.
In this case, 415 respondents out of 550 selected patients is both a sufficiently large sample size
and a sufficiently large response rate; eliminate (C) and (D) and choose (B).
11. C A function with four distinct zeroes will intersect the x-axis four times. Only (C) does this.
12. D Use POE. As time goes on, the amount of 252Fm decreases; eliminate (A) and (B). To deter-
mine whether the decrease is linear or exponential, compare the changes. From day 0 to day
3, the amount decreases by 400 mg. From day 3 to day 6, the amount decreases by 200 mg.
2 4 | Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations
SAT Premium Prep
A linear decrease would have the same change over the same time periods; eliminate (C) and
choose (D).
13. A The question wants you to solve the equation for a. Start by subtracting v0t from both sides:
d − v0t = 1 at 2 . Next, divide both sides by t2 and simplify: d − v0t = 1 a ; d − v0 = 1 a .
2 both sides by 2 and you get t2 t2 2 t2 t 2
d v0
Finally, multiply 2 t2 − t = a , which is (A).
14. B Find the range, mean, and median of the set both with and without the erroneous measure-
ment of 24. Start with the range. Range is greatest value – least value, so with 24 the range is
45 – 24 = 21, and without 24 the range is 45 – 34 = 11. The difference is 21 – 11 = 10. Next,
find the mean. Mean is total things , so first add up all numbers and divide by 18, the
number of
number of children. The numbers add to 700, so the mean is 700 = 38.9. To remove the
18
erroneous height, subtract 24 from the total of the heights and 1 from the total number of chil-
dren: 700 − 24 = 676 = 39.8. The mean changes by 39.8 – 38.9 = 0.9. You can eliminate (A)
18 −1 17
and (C), because the mean changes less than the range. Finally, find the median. With all 18
children included, the median will be the average of the 9th and 10th values: 39 + 40 = 39.5.
2
Without the value of 24, then the median will be the middle of the 17 remaining values: the
9th, which is 40. The median changed 40 – 39.5 = 0.5, which is less than the amount the
mean changed, so eliminate (D) and choose (B).
15. C Set up an inequality using the numbers for Club M and Club N. At Club M, I = 100, F = 15,
and S = 11, so according to the equation, the total cost is y = 100 + (15 + 11)x . At Club N,
I = 130, F = 12, and S = 8, making the total cost y = 130 + (12 + 8)x . The question wants Club
M to be greater than or equal to Club N, which means 100 + (15 + 11)x ≥ 130 + (12 + 8)x.
Solve for x. Start by following PEMDAS and adding within the parenthesis: 100 + 26x ≥
130 + 20x. Subtract 20x from both sides: 100 + 6x ≥ 130. Subtract 100 from both sides:
6x ≥ 30. Divide both sides by 6, and you get x ≥ 5, which is (C). If this is confusing, try Plug-
ging In the Answers. For example, plug in for x = 4, 5, or 10 months, determine how much
each club would cost, and then use POE based on Club M being as or more expensive than
Club N.
|Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations 2 5
SAT Premium Prep
16. A The y-intercept of a line will be where x = 0. Take the information for Club L and make
x = 0. Using the information given in the chart, the equation for Club L is y = 150 + (10 + 5)x.
If x = 0, then y = 150 + (10 + 5)(0) = 150 + 0 = 150. All that is left is y = 150, which matches the
initiation fee. The only choice that represents this is (A).
17. D First, use POE. If the iron content of hematite is 40% greater than low-grade iron ore, and the
iron ore already has 30 grams of iron, then the hematite must have more than 30 grams of
iron. Eliminate (A) and (B). Next, if the hematite has 40% more iron, then it must have
100 + 40 = 140% of the iron content. You can find the iron content of the hematite by multi-
plying the iron content of the iron ore by 140%, or 1.4: 30 × 1.4 = 42, which matches (D).
18. B Start by plugging in the point provided. (0, 5) means that x = 0 and y = 5, so 5 < 0 + h, and
5 > −0 + k. Simplifying these equations gives you 5 < h and 5 > k. You can flip the second in-
equality and combine these into one because they share 5: k < 5 < h. If this is true, then k < h,
which is the same as h > k, which is (B).
19. C Plug In! In 5,730 years, the amount of carbon-14 will be half what it is now. If there are 100
grams of carbon-14, in 5,730 years there will be 100 ÷ 2 = 50 grams. Make t = 5,730 and
eliminate any choice that does not equal 50. The only choice that works is (C).
20. A Find 7 hours on the horizontal axis. The dot represents the actual student who slept 7 hours;
that student’s actual score was 2 lines above 80. Because there are 5 spaces between 80 and 90,
each line represents 2 points, so the student’s score was 84. The line of best fit goes through a
score of 80 at 7 hours, so the student scored 84 – 80 = 4 points better than the line of best fit,
which is (A).
21. B Whenever you’re faced with a ton of information and words, be sure to start by focusing on the
question first. Here, you want to know the probability that someone is chosen from Group A if
you’re picking from the people who used their smartphones for at least one hour. Probability is
what youwant , but here your “total possibilities” are only those people who use their phones
total possibilities
for either 1 to 2 hours or 3 or more hours. Add those two groups to get the total possibilities:
142 + 91 = 233. This number (or a factor of this number) needs to be the denominator of your
answer; only (B) has 233 or a factor of 233 as a denominator, so it must be the answer. To find
“what you want,” add the members of Group A who are in either the 1- or 2-hour group or the
3-hour group: 64 + 54 = 118, giving the 118 as the probability.
233
2 6 | Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations
SAT Premium Prep
22. B If cos (x°) = sin (y°), then x and y must be complementary angles, so x + y = 90. To find c, start
by stacking the two equations and adding:
x = 5c – 4
+ y = 3c + 2
x + y = 8c – 2
Substitute 90 for x + y: 90 = 8c – 2. Add 2 to both sides: 92 = 8c. Divide both sides by 8:
11.5 = c, which matches (B).
23. C Data points below the line y = x will have a y-value that is less than the x-value. Because the time
spent by females is the x-value and the time spent by males is the y-value, you want to know how
many categories have the time spent by males less than the time spent by females. This is true for
cooking, cleaning, care of children, and care of clothes, which is 4 categories: (C).
24. D Percent change is defined by change = difference × 100 . The original value is the smaller value
original
if you want percent greater. Females spend approximately 45 hours on care of children and 25
hours on care of clothes, so change = 45 − 25 × 100 = 80%, which is (D).
25
25. B Arc length is proportional to the circumference as the central angle is to 360°. Therefore,
fcuirnccutmi6ofπneroennceyo=u3r76c20al.cuSliamtopr)li:fycirtchuem6rfπiegrhent cesid=e15o.f the equation (use the MATH ® FR AC
Cross-multiply to get circumference = 30π.
Because circumference is 2πr, that means 2πr = 30π. Divide both sides by 2π to get
r = 15, (B).
26. B Plug In! Make x = 2. If this is the case, a(2) = 23 + 3(2)2 + 5(2) = 30 and b(2) = 5(2)2 + 17(2) +
16 = 70. You are looking for the choice that has a factor of 3(2) + 2 = 8. In other words, the cor-
rect answer must be divisible by 8. For (A), l(2) = a(2) + b(2) = 30 + 70 = 100. Divide 100 by
8 and you get 12.5; this means 8 is not a factor of 100, so eliminate (A). For (B), m(2) = 3a(2)
+ b(2) = 3(30) + 70 = 160, which, when divided by 8, is 20. Keep (B). Choice (C): n(2) = a(2)
– 3b(2) = 30 − 3(70) = −180, which, when divided by 8, equals −22.5; eliminate (C). Choice
(D): p(2) = 2a(2) + 3b(2) = 2(30) + 3(70) = 270, which is equal to 33.75 when divided by 8;
eliminate (D) and choose (B).
27. C Plug Ionnne!egYaaottuiaventi,emmedea,tkfooinfrig(nId)ba,asp12eotsoi2tfi>vneu2,miosrbfaberlsisset;lheeaslistmstahitnaisnaftie1es.(AFth)oerainendxeaq(mBu)ap.llBiet,oya.thF=o(C2r )abana>nddab(,=Dei)t12ihn.ecTrlaubkdoitenh(gIaIe)aa,ncsdho
b are
item
you don’t need to test (II). Statement (III) is currently true, but try new numbers: make a = −2 and
b = −3. This satisfies the initial inequality, but (III) is now false, so eliminate (D) and choose (C).
|Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations 2 7
SAT Premium Prep
28. A The form of a quadratic that gives the minimum or maximum value as a constant is vertex form:
y = a(x – h)2 + k, where the vertex is at point (h, k). Choices (C) and (D) are not in this form, so
eliminate them. Both (A) and (B) have the term (x + 2), which means the minimum must be
x = −2 (watch the negative sign in the vertex form!). Make x = −2 in the original function: g(−2) =
(−2 – 2)(−2 + 6) = (−4)(4) = −16, which means the k value of the vertex is −16. Choose (A).
29. A Variables and the phrase “in terms of” are good reasons to plug in on this question. Make
p= 3 and q = 5. Average is the total divided by the number of things, so a = 3 + 2 (5) + 4 = 17 ,
3
3
b= 2 (3) + 4 (5) + 8 = 34 , and c = 6 (3) + 3(5) + 6 = 39 = 13 . The average of a, b, and c is there-
3 3
17 3 3
3 34
fore + 3 + 13 30 = 10 . This is your target; circle it. Make p = 3 and q = 5 in each an-
3 3
=
swer choice, and eliminate any choice that does not equal 10. The only choice that works
is (A).
30. C All of the answer choices are about the relationship of x and y, so you want to get rid of the
p and q. You know that p + q = 12, so if you can get p + q somehow, you can substitute. The
equations are already stacked, so add the equations together and you get 4x + 2y + p + q =
3x + 10y + 12. Substitute 12 for p + q: 4x + 2y + 12 = 3x + 10y + 12. Subtract 12 from both sides:
4x + 2y = 3x + 10y. Subtract 3x from both sides: x + 2y = 10y. Subtract 2y from both sides:
x = 8y. If x is 8 times y, then y must be one-eighth of x, which is (C).
31. 120 Set up a proportion: 1.2 inches = 14.4 inches . Cross-multiply to get 1.2x = 144. Divide both sides
10 years x years
by 1.2 to get x = 120.
32. 5 Because the point (2, 10) lies on the graph, you can make x = 2 and f(x) = 10 and solve for
b: 10 = 2(2)2 + b(2) – 8; 10 = 8 + 2b – 8; 10 = 2b; b = 5.
33. 880 Over two days, the radio station airs a total of 220 × 2 = 440 minutes of advertisements. If each
time slot is 30 seconds long, and each minute has 60 seconds, then there is time for 60 ÷ 30 = 2
time slots per minute, giving a total of 440 × 2 = 880 time slots over two days.
34. 20 Average is total things , which can be rearranged as average × number of things = total. If the
number of
desired average for 16 posts is 75%, then the sum of all the scores must be 75 × 16 = 1,200%. For
2 8 | Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations
SAT Premium Prep
the first 8 posts, there was a total of 60 × 8 = 480%, leaving 1,200 – 480 = 720% for the last 8
posts. If you want the least value for the 9th post, then you want to assume that the 10th–16th
posts to be as high as possible, or 100%. This would give 100 × 7 = 700% total for the last 7 posts,
making the least value possible for the 9th post 720 – 700 = 20%.
35. 950 The initial contribution will be before any yearly contributions, so t = 0. If t = 0, then c = 800(0) +
950 = $950. Swathi’s initial contribution must therefore be $950.
36. 40 An arc is proportionate to the central angle: central angle = arc . For a major arc, you
360° circumference
need to use the central angle measure that’s greater than 180°. (The central angle measure that’s less
than 180° is the minor arc.) Therefore, here you need to find angle ADC (the angle from the minor
arc) and subtract that from 360° to get the angle for the major arc. To get angle ADC, consider
quadrilateral ABCD. A quadrilateral has 360°. Because AB and CB are tangents to the circle, angles
DAB and DCB are each 90°, leaving 360 – 90 – 90 – 45 = 135° for angle ADC. The angle you need to
use to find the major arc is therefore 360 – 135 = 225°. Insert this into the proportion: 225° = x ,
360° 64
where x is the arc. Cross-multiply to get 14,440 = 360x. Divide both sides by 360 to get x = 40.
37. 1.03 The given equation is the equation for exponential growth. The generic form of this equation is
final amount = original amount(1 ± rate)number of .changes The rate of growth is 3 percent, which as a
decimal is equal to 0.03. Because the question indicates that the population is growing, you need
to add this to 1, so the value in the parenthesis, r, is 1 + 0.03 = 1.03.
38. 17.8 From question 37, you determined that r = 1.03. The year 2022 is 7 years after 2015, so y = 7. Put
these into the equation to determine P: P = 14.5(1.03)7 = 17.8.
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|Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations 2 9
SAT Premium Prep
RAW SCORE CONVERSION TABLE SECTION AND TEST SCORES
Raw Score Math Reading Writing Raw Score Math Reading Writing
Section Test Score and Section Test Score and
(# of correct Score Language (# of correct Score Language
answers) 10 Test Score answers) 27 Test Score
10 27
0 200 10 10 30 530 28 29 Please note that the
1 200 10 10 31 530 28 30 numbers in the table may
2 210 11 10 32 540 29 31 shift slightly depending
3 230 12 10 33 550 29 31 on the SAT’s scale from
4 250 13 11 34 550 30 32 test to test; however, you
5 260 14 12 35 560 30 32 can still use this table to
6 280 15 12 36 570 31 33 get an idea of how your
7 290 15 13 37 580 31 34 performance on the prac-
8 310 16 14 38 590 32 34 tice tests will translate to
9 320 17 15 39 590 32 35 the actual SAT.
10 330 17 15 40 600 33 36
11 350 18 16 41 610 34 36
12 360 18 17 42 620 35 37
13 370 19 18 43 630 35 39
14 380 20 18 44 640 36 40
15 390 20 19 45 650 37
16 400 21 19 46 660 37
17 420 21 20 47 670 38
18 430 22 21 48 680 39
19 430 22 22 49 680 39
20 440 23 22 50 690 40
21 450 23 23 51 700
22 460 24 24 52 720
23 470 24 25 53 730
24 480 25 25 54 740
25 490 25 26 55 760
26 500 26 26 56 770
27 510 26 27 57 790
28 510 28 58 800
29 520 29
CONVERSION EQUATION SECTION AND TEST SCORES
Convert
READING TEST READING TEST
RAW SCORE SCORE
(10–40)
(0–52)
Convert + = x 10 =
WRITING AND WRITING AND READING TEST READING AND EVIDENCE-BASED READING
LANGUAGE TEST LANGUAGE TEST SCORE WRITING TEST AND WRITING
(10–40) SECTION SCORE
RAW SCORE SCORE SCORE (200–800)
(0–44) (10–40) (20–80)
+ Convert =
= +
MATH TEST MATH TEST MATH SECTION MATH SECTION EVIDENCE-BASED READING TOTAL SAT
NO CALCULATOR CALCULATOR RAW SCORE SCORE AND WRITING SCORE
RAW SCORE (0–58) (200–800) SECTION SCORE
RAW SCORE (200–800) (400–1600)
(0–20) (0–38)
3 0 | Practice Test 8: Answers and Explanations
Practice Test 9:
Answers and
Explanations
SAT Premium Prep
PRACTICE TEST 9 ANSWER KEY
Section 1: Section 2: Section 3: Section 4:
Reading Writing & Language Math (No Calculator) Math (Calculator)
1. B 27. B 1. C 23. A 1. B 11. B 1. A 20. D
2. D 28. C 2. B 24. B 2. B 12. A 2. A 21. D
3. A 29. B 3. D 25. D 3. D 13. A 3. C 22. D
4. B 30. C 4. B 26. C 4. A 14. C 4. C 23. B
5. A 31. A 5. D 27. B 5. C 15. C 5. B 24. A
6. D 32. A 6. D 28. B 6. D 16. 8/10, 6. C 25. B
7. A 33. B 7. C 29. A 7. C 26. B
8. B 34. A 8. C 30. D 8. B 4/5, 7. D 27. C
9. D 35. D 9. D 31. B 9. D or 8. D 28. C
10. C 36. C 10. D 32. C 10. B 0.8 9. C 29. A
11. A 37. C 11. B 33. A 17. 30 10. D 30. A
12. B 38. A 12. D 34. D 18. 12 11. B 31. 5/9,
13. B 39. B 13. B 35. A 19. 2 12. D
14. C 40. D 14. C 36. C 20. 5 13. A .555,
15. A 41. C 15. A 37. C or
16. B 42. D 16. D 38. A 14. B .556
17. D 43. C 17. D 39. B 15. C 32. 430
18. D 44. C 18. C 40. A 16. A 33. 1/3
19. B 45. A 19. A 41. C 17. C or
20. D 46. D 20. A 42. B 18. D .333
21. A 47. B 21. B 43. B 19. A 34. 672
22. B 48. C 22. C 44. C 35. 5, 6,
23. D 49. D or 7
24. A 50. B 36. 180
25. D 51. D 37. 28
26. C 52. B 38. 1.18
2 | Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations
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PRACTICE TEST 9 ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
Section 1: Reading
1. B The question asks how the narrator’s attitude shifts over the course of the passage. This is the
first question in a paired set, so it can be done in tandem with Q2. Look at the answer choices
for Q2 first. The lines for (2A) describe the moments before the ship struck upon the sand. Since
this description does not address the narrator’s attitude, eliminate (2A). The lines for (2B) state
that a wave...came upon [the narrator] again and submerged him in the water. Like (2A), (2B)
does not address the narrator’s attitude. Eliminate (2B). The lines for (2C) say that the narrator
was resolved to hold fast by a piece of rock, and so to hold [his] breath, if possible, till the wave went
back. Being resolved does describe the narrator’s attitude, but there is no shift, so eliminate
(2C). The lines for (2D) say that, according to the narrator, it is impossible to express, to the life,
what the ecstasies and transports of the soul are, when it is so saved… out of the very grave. In other
words, the narrator’s very soul shifted after being saved from the sea, which directly supports
(1B). Draw a line connecting (1B) and (2D). Without any support in the answer choices from
Q2, (1A), (1C), and (1D) can be eliminated. The correct answers are (1B) and (2D).
2. D See explanation for Q1.
3. A The question asks what the phrase broke over her most nearly means in line 6. Go back to the
text, find the phrase broke over her, and cross it out. Then read the window carefully, using
context clues to determine another phrase that would fit in the text. The text says that the sea
broke over [the ship] in such a manner that [the crew] expected [they] should all have perished im-
mediately. Therefore, broke over [the ship] could be replaced by a phrase such as “slammed into
the ship.” Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this prediction. Choice (A) matches the
prediction, so keep it. Choice (B) goes too far, as there is no evidence in the text that the sea
destroyed the ship. Eliminate (B). Eliminate (C), as the ship had already hit the sand in the mo-
ment before the wave slammed into it. Like (B), (D) goes beyond the scope of the text, as there
is no evidence that the wave fragmented the ship’s frame. Eliminate (D). The correct answer is
(A).
4. B The question asks for the purpose of the sentence in lines 34–40. Use the given line reference
to find the window. In lines 34–40 the narrator states, to my great comfort, I clambered up the
clifts and sat upon the grass, free from danger. The narrator goes on to say, I was now landed and
safe on shore, and began to look up and thank God my life was saved. Eliminate answer choices
that don’t match this prediction. Choice (A) does not match the prediction, as the narrator
never states the sea was stronger than [he] anticipated, so eliminate (A). Choice (B) matches
the prediction, so keep it. While (C) matches with the prediction when the narrator states he
was now landed and safe on shore, this is not the main purpose of the sentence. Eliminate (C).
|Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations 3
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Choice (D) is a Right Words, Wrong Meaning trap answer, as the religious side of the narrator
calls back to thanking God, but there is no evidence that this is new or not previously seen.
Eliminate (D). The correct answer is (B).
5. A The question asks what is implied about the narrator by the reference in lines 43–50. Use the
given line reference to find the window. In lines 43–50, the narrator suggests that he under-
stands why a malefactor, who has the halter about his neck, is tied up…and has a reprieve brought
to him, may be overwhelmed by such a surprise, as sudden joys, like griefs, confound at first.
Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this prediction. Choice (A) matches this prediction,
so keep it. Choice (B) is a Right Words, Wrong Meaning trap answer: it references a surgeon
and bleed[ing], but the narrator uses these terms metaphorically. Eliminate (B). Choice (C) is
also a Right Words, Wrong Meaning trap answer: the narrator never indicates that he literally
had a noose around his neck. Eliminate (C). Eliminate (D) because the narrator’s reference is
about understanding what it is like to be suddenly saved, not about understanding what it’s
like to be a criminal. Eliminate (D). The correct answer is (A).
6. D The question asks what drive most nearly means in line 49. Go back to the text, find the
word drive, and cross it out. Then read the window carefully, using context clues to determine
another word that would fit in the text. The text says that a surgeon bleeds the prisoner at the
moment of reprieve so that the surprise may not drive the animal spirits from the heart. Therefore,
drive could be replaced by a word such as “force.” Eliminate answer choices that don’t match
this prediction. Cause does not match “force,” so eliminate (A). Accelerate does not match
“force,” so eliminate (B). Imply does not match “force,” so eliminate (C). Expel matches “force,”
so keep (D). The correct answer is (D).
7. A The question asks what the phrase contemplation of my deliverance most nearly means in line
53. Go back to the text, find the phrase contemplation of my deliverance, and cross it out. Then
read the window carefully, using context clues to determine another phrase that would fit in
the text. The narrator describes himself as wrapped up in a contemplation of my deliverance and
reflecting upon all my comrades that were drowned, and that there should not be one soul saved
but myself. Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this prediction. Choice (A) matches the
prediction, so keep it. The narrator does not exhibit any foresight, so eliminate (B). Choice (C)
can be eliminated as the narrator has already been saved. Eliminate (D) because while the
narrator may be an exemption in that he was the only one saved from the shipwreck, he has no
understanding of why he was saved. The correct answer is (A).
8. B The question asks what the narrator indicates about the other shipmates on the voyage. This is
the first question in a paired set, but it is easy to find, so it can be done on its own. Since there
is no line reference, use the order of the questions to find the window. Q7 asks about line
53, so scan the passage beginning with line 54, looking for information about the narrator’s
shipmates. In lines 55–56 the narrator reflects on the fact that all my comrades were drowned
and there should not be one soul saved but myself. Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this
4 | Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations
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prediction. Eliminate (A) as there is no indication that the shipmates had different motivations
for the journey than the narrator did. Choice (B) matches the prediction, so keep it. Eliminate
(C) as none of the shipmates survived or discovered land and found shelter. Eliminate (D) as the
passage never states the shipmates failed to determine whereabout in the world they were. The
correct answer is (B).
9. D The question is the best evidence question in a paired set. Because the previous question was
easy to find, simply look at the lines used to answer Q8. Lines 55–56 provided the prediction
for Q8: all my comrades were drowned and there should not be one soul saved but myself. Elimi-
nate (A), (B), and (C). The correct answer is (D).
10. C The question asks about the narrator’s view of his struggle to safety. Since this is a general ques-
tion, it should be answered after the specific questions. In lines 5–9 the narrator states, the ship
struck upon the sand, and in a moment, her motion being so stopped, the sea broke over her in such
a manner that we expected we should all have perished immediately. The narrator also states in
lines 36–39, I was now landed and safe on shore, and began to look up and thank God that my
life was saved. Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this prediction. The narrator never
claims to feel confident in his survival, so eliminate (A). There is nothing enjoyable about his
experience of the shipwreck, so eliminate (B). Harrowing but relieving matches the prediction,
so keep (C). The narrator never indicates that he was intrigued by being shipwrecked, so elimi-
nate (D). The correct answer is (C).
11. A The question asks which type of industry would be the most difficult to relocate. Since there is no
line reference, use lead words and the order of the questions to find the window. Since this is
the first question, start skimming at the beginning of the passage to find the part of the passage
that discusses relocation of industries. Lines 34–39 state, A textile factory is a stand-alone entity
that can be put pretty much anywhere in the world where labor is abundant. By contrast, a biotech
lab is harder to export, because you would have to move not just one company but an entire eco-
system. Therefore, a biotech company would be hardest to relocate. Eliminate answer choices
that don’t match this prediction. Choice (A) matches this prediction, so keep it. Choice (B) is
a Right Words, Wrong Meaning trap answer: the passage indicates that a textile factory would
be easier to relocate than a biotech lab. Eliminate (B). Neither (C) nor (D) is mentioned in the
window for this question, so eliminate both (C) and (D). The correct answer is (A).
12. B The question asks for the best summary of the third paragraph. Use the given paragraph refer-
ence to find the window. According to lines 39–45, cities are complex, interrelated environments
that foster the generation of new ideas and social interactions among workers tend to generate
learning opportunities. The paragraph goes on to say that once a city attracts innovative workers
and innovative companies, its economy changes in ways that make it even more attractive to other
innovators. Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this prediction. Choice (A) is a Mostly
Right, Slightly Wrong trap answer: the paragraph suggests that social interaction can spark
innovation but does not say that social interaction is a requirement for a company’s success.
|Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations 5
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The word must is too strong to match the passage, so eliminate (A). Keep (B) because it matches
the prediction. Choice (C) is a Mostly Right, Slightly Wrong trap answer: the paragraph states
that a city may grow because it attracts smart people and innovative businesses but does not
indicate this is the only way a city can grow. Eliminate (C). There is no information on cell
phone or internet access in the passage, so eliminate (D). The correct answer is (B).
13. B The question asks what the word foster most nearly means in line 41. Go back to the text, find
the word foster, and cross it out. Then read the window carefully, using context clues to deter-
mine another word that would fit in the text. The text says that cities are environments that fos-
ter the generation of new ideas and new ways of doing business. Therefore, foster could be replaced
by a phrase such as “bring about.” Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this prediction.
Adopt does not match “bring about,” so eliminate (A). Keep (B) because encourage matches
“bring about.” Neither shelter nor entertain matches “bring about,” so eliminate (C) and (D).
Note that (A) and (C) are Could Be True trap answers based on other meanings of foster that
are not supported by the text. The correct answer is (B).
14. C The question asks for the best description of the economic development of some developing coun-
tries. This is the first question in a paired set, so it can be done in tandem with Q15. Look at
the answer choices for Q15 first. The lines for (15A) say that the most important economic de-
velopment of the past decade is the incredible improvement in the standard of living in developing
nations such as Brazil, China, Poland, Turkey, India, and even some African countries. This sup-
ports the phrases reduced disparity and improved standard of living in (14C). Draw a line con-
necting (15A) and (14C). The lines for (15B) reference the fact that inequality has plummeted at
a global level. This answer doesn’t support any of the answer choices in Q14, so eliminate (15B).
The lines for (15C) reference the catch-up experienced by the American South, which does not
address the question about developing countries. Eliminate (15C). The lines for (15D) state that
many southern states were significantly poorer than the rest of the country in the 1960s but grew
more rapidly in the following decades. This information does not address Q14. Eliminate (15D).
Without any support in the answers from Q15, (14A), (14B), and (14D) can be eliminated. The
correct answers are (14C) and (15A).
15. A See explanation for Q14.
16. B The question asks what the word uneven most nearly means in line 78. Go back to the text,
find the word uneven and cross it out. Then read the window carefully, using context clues
to determine another word that would fit in the text. The text says, the process of catching up
was geographically uneven. Some southern cities...grew much faster than others. Therefore, un-
even could be replaced by a phrase such as “not the same.” Eliminate answer choices that
don’t match this prediction. Rugged doesn’t match “not the same,” so eliminate (A). Unequal
matches “not the same,” so keep (B). Neither intermittent nor bumpy matches “not the same,”,
so eliminate (C) and (D). Note that (A), (C), and (D) are Could Be True trap answers based
on other meanings of uneven that are not supported by the text. The correct answer is (B).
6 | Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations
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17. D The question asks what the passage implies about Shanghai, China. This is the first question in
a paired set, but it is easy to find, so it can be done on its own. Since there is no line reference,
use lead words and the order of the questions to find the window. Q16 asks about line 78, so
start at line 78 and skim for the lead word Shanghai. Lines 83–89 state, Shanghai has reached
a per capita income close to that of a rich nation. Its students outperform American and European
students…Its public infrastructure is better than that of most American cities. But agricultural
communities in western China have made much less progress. Eliminate answer choices that don’t
match this prediction. Choice (A) is a Right Words, Wrong Meaning trap answer: while the
students in Shanghai outperform American and European students in standardized tests, the pas-
sage does not indicate that students in Shanghai are the smartest in the country. Eliminate (A).
Eliminate (B) because the passage states that agricultural communities in western China have
made much less progress than Shanghai. Therefore, Shanghai is not representative of China as
a whole. Choice (C) is a Mostly Right, Slightly Wrong trap answer: the passage points to an
income disparity between Shanghai and agricultural communities in western China. However,
the passage does not imply that such an income disparity exists within Shanghai itself. Elimi-
nate (C). Keep (D) because it matches the prediction: Shanghai is making greater advances
than agricultural communities in western China. The correct answer is (D).
18. D The question is the best evidence question in a paired set. Because the previous question was
easy to find, simply look at the lines used to answer Q17. Lines 83–89 provided the prediction
for Q17. Eliminate (A) and (B). Lines 83–84 state that Shanghai has reached a per capita income
close to that of a rich nation but don’t include information about other regions in China. Lines
88–89 include the contrast between Shanghai and agricultural communities in western China.
Eliminate (C) and keep (D). The correct answer is (D).
19. B The question asks how to characterize the years 1993–1997 according to figure 1. Locate the
years 1993–1997 in figure 1. While the graph shows an overall decline in manufacturing
jobs, the years 1993–1997 show a brief increase in those jobs followed by a decline. Choice
(A) is inconsistent with the information in the graph. The graph shows that for a short time
during those years, there was an increase in manufacturing jobs. Eliminate (A). Choice (B)
is consistent with the graph. In all other years, manufacturing jobs are declining, while the
period of 1993–1997 saw a brief increase in the number of manufacturing jobs. Choice (C) is
inconsistent with the information presented in the graph. The years 1993–1997 show a brief
increase in the number of manufacturing jobs. Since the years after that period show a decline
in manufacturing jobs, this was not a permanent reversal. Eliminate (C). The y-axis of figure
1 is in millions of jobs, and therefore even a small increase could be a significant change in the
number of jobs. For this reason, eliminate (D). The correct answer is (B).
20. D The question asks for the author’s view of the information in figure 2, assuming that population
growth corresponds with economic growth. Begin by looking for information about population
growth in figure 2. The figure gives data on population growth in four U.S. regions. Scan the
|Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations 7
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passage looking for information about those four regions. The American South is the only U.S.
region mentioned in detail in the passage. In lines 71–76, the author states, the catch-up expe-
rienced by the American South over the past fifty years is another example of convergence. Many
southern states were significantly poorer than the rest of the country in the 1960s but grew more
rapidly in the following decades. According to the figure, the South has had higher population
growth from 1990–2010 than the other depicted regions. Assuming that population growth
corresponds with economic growth, it can be predicted that the author would see the data in
the figure as being related to the pattern of growth described in the passage. Eliminate answer
choices that don’t match this prediction. Eliminate (A) because figure 2 seems consistent with
information in the passage. There is no indication that the figure is biased or illustrative of the
author’s own experiences, so eliminate (B) and (C). Keep (D) because figure 2 does provide sta-
tistical evidence related to a trend discussed in the passage. The correct answer is (D).
21. A The question asks about the population changes in the United States from 1980–2010 according
to figure 2. Work through each answer choice using the figure. The middle bar, which indi-
cates growth in the 1990s, is higher for the South than for any of the other regions. Keep (A).
The West showed the greatest population growth during the 1980s, so eliminate (B). Eliminate
(C) because the South experienced a larger population growth than did the West in the 1990s.
Eliminate (D) because the Midwest had the lowest population growth in the 1980s. The cor-
rect answer is (A).
22. B The question asks for the primary purpose of the passage. Because this is a general question, it
should be done after the specific questions. The passage describes how a group of scientists
identified the gene responsible for a mysteriously (and dangerously) sweatless family by map-
ping its genomes. That research, which was used to help people who sweat too much, empha-
sizes the role of sweat in human evolution. Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this
prediction. Eliminate (A) because only the first paragraph discusses the family’s struggles; most
of the passage is about the science behind the family’s disorder. Keep (B) because it matches
the prediction. Eliminate (C) because the passage does not evaluate new technologies. Eliminate
(D) because the family’s disorder was not a previously-solved problem. The correct answer is (B).
23. D The question asks for the author’s attitude toward genome mapping. Since there is no line refer-
ence, use lead words and the order of the questions to find the window. Since this is the first
specific question, scan the passage from the beginning, looking for the lead words genome
mapping. Lines 11–14 state that by mapping the genome of each individual in this family, re-
searchers from Uppsala University in Sweden identified a single genetic mutation responsible for the
condition. The genome mapping solved the mystery of the family’s condition, which is a positive
outcome. The author’s attitude to genome mapping is positive. Eliminate answer choices that
don’t match this prediction. Eliminate (A) because disapproval is a negative attitude. Eliminate
(B) because concern is also negative. Eliminate (C) because elation means “great happiness,”
which is too strong. Keep (D) because it matches the prediction. The correct answer is (D).
8 | Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations
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24. A The question asks what the phrase decoding the mystery suggests. Use the given line reference
to find the window. Lines 10–14 indicate that scientists are decoding the mystery behind the dis-
order and that scientists identified a single genetic mutation responsible for the condition. Elimi-
nate answer choices that don’t match this prediction. Keep (A) because it matches the predic-
tion. Choice (B) is a Mostly Right, Slightly Wrong trap answer: lines 12–13 do say that the
researchers are mapping the genome of each individual in this family, but the passage does not
say that they are close to finishing the genome map. Eliminate (B). Choice (C) is a Right An-
swer, Wrong Question trap answer: the passage does say that the children stay in the cellar, but
lines 7–8 give the reason: because in daylight, they’ d overheat and go unconscious. Eliminate (C).
Choice (D) is a Mostly Right, Slightly Wrong trap answer: although the passage does mention
Mendelian disorders, the word only is too strong to be supported by the passage. Eliminate (D).
The correct answer is (A).
25. D The question asks what the word bizarre most nearly means in line 11. Go back to the text,
find the word bizarre, and cross it out. Then read the window carefully, using context clues
to determine another word that would fit in the text. The text says, Now a group of scientists
are decoding the mystery surrounding this bizarre disorder. In the first paragraph, the disorder is
described as unique and rare. Therefore, bizarre could be replaced by a word such as “rare.”
Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this prediction. Eccentric and offbeat mean
“unconventional,” which does not match “rare,” so eliminate (A) and (C). Ludicrous means
“ridiculous,” which does not match “rare,” so eliminate (B). Unusual matches “rare,” so keep
(D). Note that (A), (B), and (C) are Could Be True trap answers based on other meanings of
bizarre that are not supported by the text. The correct answer is (D).
26. C The question asks what the author suggests about anhidrosis. This is the first question in a paired
set, but it is easy to find, so it can be done on its own. Since there is no line reference, use lead
words and the order of the questions to find the window. Q25 asks about line 11, so scan the
passage beginning with line 12, looking for the lead word anhidrosis. Starting at line 20, the
passage says, Dahl notes that anhidrosis has been seen before, but usually in conjunction with other
skin defects. Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this prediction. Choice (A) is a Right
Answer, Wrong Question trap answer: excessive sweating refers to hyperhidrosis, not anhidrosis.
The passage says that people with anhidrosis cannot sweat (line 3). Eliminate (A). Choice (B) is
a Right Words, Wrong Meaning trap answer: lines 6–8 say, In order to remain cool, the kids
spend their days in their house’s cellar, because in daylight, they’ d overheat and go unconscious, so
anhidrosis does not cause people to feel too cool. Eliminate (B). Keep (C) because it matches the
prediction. Choice (D) is a Right Answer, Wrong Question trap answer: the passage states that
two percent of the population suffers from hyperhidrosis, not anhidrosis. Eliminate (D). The cor-
rect answer is (C).
27. B The question is the best evidence question in a paired set. Because the previous question was
easy to find, simply look at the lines used to answer Q26. Lines 20–22 provided the prediction
for Q26: Dahl notes that anhidrosis has been seen before, but usually in conjunction with other
skin defects. Eliminate (A), (C), and (D). The correct answer is (B).
|Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations 9
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28. C The question asks what is true of ITPR2. This is the first question in a paired set, so it can be
done in tandem with Q29. Look at the answer choices for Q29 first. The lines for (29A) say,
Now a group of scientists are decoding the mystery surrounding this bizarre disorder. These lines do
not address Q28, so eliminate (29A). The lines for (29B) say that ITPR2 is the gene responsible
for controlling sweat production, and knocking it out can stop sweat secretion altogether. These
lines support (28C) since changes to the gene can inhibit sweat production, which is a physi-
cal disorder. Draw a line connecting (28C) with (29B). The lines for (29C) mention researcher
Niklas Dahl and his quest for understanding single-gene diseases. The lines do not address Q28,
so eliminate (29C). The lines for (29D) discuss the protein IP3R2, which forms a calcium chan-
nel in the brain that releases calcium when opened. At first glance, this information may seem
to match (28B), but these lines are about what the protein IP3R2 does, not about what is true
of the gene ITPR2. Eliminate (29D). Without any support in the answers from Q29, (28A),
(28B), and (28D) can be eliminated. The correct answers are (28C) and (29B).
29. B See explanation for Q28.
30. C The question asks what the author suggests about Botox. Use the given line reference to find the
window. Lines 49–52 say, Botox has proven to be somewhat effective against hyperhidrosis, but the
treatments can be painful and awkward (getting injections in your armpits cannot be fun). Elimi-
nate answer choices that don’t match this prediction. Choice (A) is a Right Answer, Wrong
Question trap answer: the passage states that lowering IP3R2 levels inhibits production of the
calcium channel. The passage doesn’t state that Botox has this effect, so eliminate (A). Elimi-
nate (B), which is another Right Answer, Wrong Question trap answer: the passage states that
lowering IP3R2 levels can reduce excessive sweating by 60%. Keep (C) because it matches the
prediction. Eliminate (D) because pungent skin secretions are not discussed in the window. The
correct answer is (C).
31. A The question asks about the likely purpose of the parenthetical information. Use the given line
reference to find the window. Lines 49–52 say, Botox has proven to be somewhat effective against
hyperhidrosis, but the treatments can be painful and awkward (getting injections in your arm-
pits cannot be fun). The parenthetical information explains why Botox treatments are painful
and awkward. Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this prediction. Keep (A) because it
matches the prediction. Eliminate (B) because the parenthetical information does not contain
a definition. Eliminate (C) because there is no conclusion in the parentheses. Eliminate (D)
because the parenthetical information does not resolve a discrepancy. The correct answer is (A).
32. A The question asks how, according to Hamilton, political appointments made by a single indi-
vidual differ from those made by a group. Since this is a general question, it should be answered
after the specific questions. In lines 23–24, the passage states that a single individual will have
fewer personal attachments to gratify, than a body of men. In lines 27–31, the passage also states
that A single well-directed man, by a single understanding, cannot be distracted or warped by that
diversity of views, feelings, and interests, which frequently distract and warp the resolutions of a
1 0 | Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations
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collective body. Therefore, Hamilton believes that a single individual is less likely to be biased
or swayed by multiple wants and desires. Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this pre-
diction. Keep (A) because it matches the prediction. Eliminate (B) because neither power nor
esteem is mentioned as something that the single individual has but the group does not. Choice
(C) is a Right Words, Wrong Meaning trap answer: lines 16–18 suggest that one man will
have a livelier sense of duty and a more exact regard to reputation; the passage does not say that
the political appointments will differ in their liveliness and exactness. Eliminate (C). Choice (D)
is a Mostly Right, Slightly Wrong trap answer: it partially matches the prediction in that the
single individual who cannot be distracted and warped by that diversity of views, feelings, and
interests could potentially be more efficient than a group at making political appointments;
however, convenience is not mentioned in the passage. Eliminate (D). The correct answer is (A).
33. B The question asks what the word peculiar most nearly means in line 13. Go back to the text,
find the word peculiar, and cross it out. Then read the window carefully, using context clues to
determine another word that would fit in the text. The text says that one man of discernment
is better fitted to analyze and estimate the peculiar qualities adapted to particular offices. There-
fore, peculiar could be replaced by a word such as “particular” or “specific.” Eliminate answer
choices that don’t match this prediction. Conventional does not match “particular,” so elimi-
nate (A). Distinctive matches “particular,” so keep (B). Neither eccentric nor wonderful matches
“particular,” so eliminate (C) and (D). Note that (C) is a Could Be True trap answer based on
another meaning of peculiar that is not supported by the text. The correct answer is (B).
34. A The question asks what the word stations most nearly refers to in line 21. Go back to the text,
find the word stations, and cross it out. Then read the window carefully, using context clues to
determine another word that would fit in the text. The text says, He will, on this account, feel
himself under stronger obligations, and more interested to investigate with care the qualities requi-
site the stations to be filled. Therefore, stations could be replaced by a word such as “positions.”
Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this prediction. Keep (A) because it matches the
prediction. Municipal headquarters, transfer locations, and local buildings are physical locations
and do not match the prediction of “positions” to be filled, so eliminate (B), (C), and (D).
Note that (B), (C), and (D) are Could Be True trap answers based on other meanings of sta-
tions that are not supported by the text. The correct answer is (A).
35. D The question asks how Lee views the president’s ability to appoint qualified officials. Since there is
no line reference and no other questions about Passage 2 to use as a guide for chronology, work
backwards from the answer choices. Eliminate (A) because Lee does not suggest that the presi-
dent is unfairly biased. The passage does not indicate whether the president’s ability to appoint
qualified officials is more or less desirable than a general election, so eliminate (B). Eliminate (C)
because line 41 states that [o]fficers may be appointed by the president alone. Keep (D) because
lines 57–67 state that the exercise of any considerable branch of power ought to be under some checks
and controls and that the president’s power may always be increased or decreased by the legislature…
always keeping him, by the constitution, within certain bounds. The correct answer is (D).
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36. C The question asks how Lee would most likely respond to a statement made by Hamilton. First
read the statement by Hamilton in lines 11–15: his view is that that one man of discernment is
better fitted to analyze and estimate the peculiar qualities adapted to particular offices, than a body
of men of equal or perhaps even of superior discernment. Q36 is the first question in a paired set,
so it can be done in tandem with Q37. Look at the answer choices for Q37. The lines for (37A)
refer to the fact that the president is permitted to appoint officers alone, but this statement of
fact does not reveal Lee’s point of view, nor does it match any of the answer choices for Q36.
Eliminate (37A). The lines for (37B) state that when a man has been authorized to exercise power
alone, he has never done so. This information does not match any of the answer choices for
Q36, so eliminate (37B). The lines for (37C) refer to the idea that distributing appointments
into several hands is essential to promoting beneficial appointments and preserving the balance in
government. This reveals Lee’s view and matches answer (36C). Draw a line connecting (36C)
and (37C). The lines for (37D) ask a rhetorical question about whether we have confidence in
our legislature. This does not match any of the answers for Q36, so eliminate (37D). Without
any support in the answers from Q37, (36A), (36B), and (36D) can be eliminated. The correct
answers are (36C) and (37C).
37. C See explanation for Q36.
38. A The question asks how Hamilton would most likely have reacted to Lee’s remarks. First read Lee’s
remarks in lines 46–50: And it often happens when advice is wanted, the worst men, the most
interested creatures obtrude themselves, the worst advice is at hand, and misdirects the mind of
him who would be informed and advised. Q38 is the first question in a paired set, so it can be
done in tandem with Q39. Look at the answer choices for Q39. The lines for (39A) refer to the
idea that the president has the power to fill up all vacancies. This information does not provide
Hamilton’s view about the quality of advice given by a group to an individual, nor does it
match any of the answer choices for Q38. Eliminate (39A). The lines for (39B) refer to the idea
that a single man will have fewer personal attachments...than a body of men and will therefore
be less liable to be misled. This matches answer (38A). Draw a line connecting (38A) to (39B).
The line for (39C) state, This will be the usual condition of the bargain. This line doesn’t provide
any details about Hamilton’s view and doesn’t match any of the answers for Q38, so eliminate
(39C). The lines for (39D) state that the advancement of public service will rarely be the primary
object either of party victories or of party negotiations. At first glance, these lines may seem to
support (38A) since they are critical of a group’s decision-making. However, these lines don’t
compare the group’s decisions with an individual’s process, making (39B) a better match for
(38A). Eliminate (39D). Without any support in the answers from Q39, (38B), (38C), and
(38D) can be eliminated. The correct answers are (38A) and (39B).
39. B See explanation for Q38.
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40. D This question asks about the relationship between the two passages. Because this is a question
about both passages, it should be done after the questions that ask about each passage indi-
vidually. The first paragraph of Passage 1 outlines the authority the president has to nominate
individuals for public office. Passage 1 goes on to argue that giving this authority to a single
individual has advantages over giving this authority to a group. The first paragraph of Passage
2 states that while the president may appoint officers alone, he never truly does. The second
paragraph of Passage 2 outlines the checks and balances to presidential power that the legis-
lature can exercise. The final paragraph of Passage 2 outlines the benefits a well formed disin-
terested legislature may provide. Therefore, the passages present alternative viewpoints: Passage
1 argues for the individual power of the president to appoint individuals, and Passage 2 advo-
cates for legislative assistance with such decisions. Eliminate answer choices that don’t match
this prediction. Passage 2 does not clarify information provided in Passage 1, so eliminate (A).
Passages 1 and 2 were both written in 1788, so one could not be characterized as contempo-
rary and the other as historical, so eliminate (B). Passage 1 presents an opinion, not a problem,
so eliminate (C). Passage 2 argues that the legislature should be consulted on presidential
appointments, while Passage 1 argues that decisions made by the president alone may be better
than those made by the legislature. Keep (D) because it matches the prediction. The correct
answer is (D).
41. C The question asks about the main purpose of both passages. Because this is a question about both
passages, it should be done after the questions that ask about each passage individually. Both
passages discuss the power of the president to make individual appointments. Passage 1 argues
that it is preferable for the president alone to make these appointments, while Passage 2 argues
that the legislature should be consulted. Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this pre-
diction. The passages discuss how to choose people to fill offices; neither passage suggests that
creating political offices is a problem, so eliminate (A). Neither passage considers the best way to
establish a competent legislature, so eliminate (B). Both passages advocate an approach for mak-
ing political appointments, so keep (C). While Passage 2 touches on the government’s system of
checks and balances, Passage 1 does not. Eliminate (D). The correct answer is (C).
42. D The question asks for the main purpose of the passage. Since this is a general question, it should
be answered after the specific questions. The passage is about marsupial lions and evidence
of their presence in the Tight Entrance Cave. Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this
prediction. Eliminate (A) because the passage is not about marsupials in general. Eliminate (B)
because the passage is not about various Australian marsupials. Eliminate (C) because the pas-
sage is not mainly about how researchers examine claw-mark fossil evidence. Keep (D) because it
matches the prediction. The correct answer is (D).
43. C The question asks how the focus shifts over the course of the passage. Since this is a general ques-
tion, it should be answered after the specific questions. It is the first question in a paired set,
so it can be done in tandem with Q44. Look at the answer choices for Q44 first. The lines for
(44A) describe how the species has been speculatively portrayed. There is no shift in these lines,
|Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations 1 3
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so eliminate (44A). The lines for (44B) define trace fossils, but there is no shift in these lines,
so eliminate (44B). The lines for (44C) say, The most parsimonious interpretation of the TEC
evidence is that marsupial lions were primarily responsible for the claw-mark assemblage. These
lines support (43C) since the lines contain the shift from physical evidence (the claw-mark
assemblage) to probable implications (the marsupial lions were primarily responsible). Draw a line
connecting (44C) to (43C). The lines for (44D) discuss the prey of the marsupial lions, the
rhinoceros-sized Diprotodon optatum. There is no shift in the lines, so eliminate (44D). Without
any support in the answers from Q44, (43A), (43B), and (43D) can be eliminated. The correct
answers are (43C) and (44C).
44. C See explanation for Q43.
45. A The question asks why the author uses the phrase “ its evocative depiction.” Use the given line
reference to find the window. Lines 5–7 say, The ubiquity of [T. carnifex] and its evocative depic-
tion in Aboriginal rock art suggest an important role in Australian ecosystems. Eliminate answer
choices that don’t match this prediction. Keep (A) because it matches the prediction. Choice
(B) is a Right Words, Wrong Meaning trap answer: the studies mentioned in the paragraph are
skeletal studies, not studies on the art. Eliminate (B). Eliminate (C) because there is no mention
of the depiction being a source of inspiration. Eliminate (D) because there is no indication that
the author admires the Aboriginal illustrations of Thylacoleo carnifex. The correct answer is (A).
46. D The question asks what the phrase “Devils clearly used the cave” implies. Use the given line ref-
erence to find the window. Lines 36–39 say, The most parsimonious interpretation of the TEC
evidence is that marsupial lions were primarily responsible for the claw-mark assemblage and that
Devils clearly used the cave at times. Therefore, marsupial lions were not the only species to use
the cave. Eliminate answer choices that don’t match this prediction. Eliminate (A) because
the passage only mentions devils and marsupial lions, not several species of juvenile marsupials.
Choice (B) is a Could Be True trap answer: the passage says that devils used the cave, but not
that they were seen. Eliminate (B). Choice (C) is a Right Words, Wrong Meaning trap answer:
lines 40–43 say, it is improbable that the two species cohabited the chamber given the intense inter-
specific antagonism displayed by carnivores, especially in cave settings, not that the marsupial lions
eventually forced devils out. Eliminate (C). Keep (D) because it matches the prediction. The
correct answer is (D).
47. B The question asks for the most likely primary purpose once served by the Tight Entrance Cave.
This is the first question in a paired set, so it can be done in tandem with Q48. Look at the
answer choices for Q48 first. The lines for (48A) say that [T. carnifex’s] evocative depiction in
Aboriginal rock art suggest an important role in Australian ecosystems, but interpretations have
remained controversial. These lines do not mention the Tight Entrance Cave, so eliminate (48A).
The lines for (48B) say, Thousands of claw marks…are patchily distributed through the TEC main
chamber on a range of surfaces. Although these lines describe the Tight Entrance Cave, there is
no indication about the purpose of the cave. Eliminate (48B). The lines for (48C) say that the
1 4 | Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations
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distribution of claw marks indicates a significant bias toward juveniles, which suggests that the
cave was used as a den. Since the juveniles in discussion are marsupial lions, these lines support
(47B). Draw a line connecting (48C) and (47B). The lines for (48D) suggest that marsupial
lions were pack hunters. These lines do not mention the Tight Entrance Cave, so eliminate
(48D). Without any support in the answers from Q48, (47A), (47C), and (47D) can be elimi-
nated. The correct answers are (47B) and (48C).
48. C See explanation for Q47.
49. D The question asks which lines support the claim that the cave was not primarily inhabited by
adult marsupial lions. Look at the line references given in the answer choices and eliminate the
statements that don’t support this claim. The lines for (A) mention the claw-mark assemblage
in the main chamber of Tight Entrance Cave (TEC), but the lines do not discuss what inhabited
the caves, so eliminate (A). The lines for (B) say, The largest TEC ichnofossil scratch marks can
only have been made by T. carnifex. These lines indicate that marsupial lions (T. carnifex) did
inhabit the cave, so eliminate (B). The lines for (C) say that Devils clearly used the caves at times,
but this does not support the idea that the cave was not primarily inhabited by adult marsupial
lions as the devils were not the primary residents of the cave either. Eliminate (C). The lines for
(D) say that as individuals grew, they spent less time in the cave, presumably venturing out increas-
ingly to learn from adults and contribute to hunting. This implies that the majority of individuals
in the cave were juvenile marsupial lions, not adults, which supports the claim in the question.
The correct answer is (D).
50. B The question refers to the figure and asks which inter-digital spacing measurement occurred with
the greatest frequency. Look at the figure to find the inter-digital spacing measurement that
occurred most often. The y-axis shows the frequency. The highest bar in the graph is at an
inter-digital spacing of 7 mm. Eliminate (A), (C), and (D) and keep (B). The correct answer is
(B).
51. D The question asks for the inter-digital spacing of the claw marks that suggest the presence of
marsupial lions. Look at the figure to find information about marsupial lions. Based on the
passage, the scientific name for marsupial lions is Thylacoleo carnifex. The figure shows that the
inter-digital spacing of T. carnifex starts just above 20 mm and extends beyond 30 mm. Only
(D) reflects that range. Eliminate (A), (B), and (C) and keep (D). The correct answer is (D).
52. B The question asks which statement is best supported by information in both the passage and the
figure. First work though each answer choice using the figure. Eliminate (A) because the figure
does not provide information on the behavior of adult marsupial lions. Eliminate (C) because
the inter-digital spacing with the greatest frequency is 7 mm, and the marsupial lions (T. carni-
fex) have inter-digital spacing of greater than 20 mm. Eliminate (D) because the figure is about
the frequency of the claw marks, not their shape. Choice (B) is supported by both the passage
and the figure: according to the figure, all species in the Tight Entrance Cave other than
Thylacoleo carnifex had inter-digital spacing of less than 20 mm, and the passage says that [d]
evils clearly used the cave at times. The correct answer is (B).
|Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations 1 5
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Section 2: Writing and Language
1. C Note the question! The question is asking which answer would set up the information that fol-
lows, so it is testing consistency. Look for a word with a definition that is consistent with the
other ideas in the sentence. The sentence goes on to say that Salman Rushdie was born in India
and writes about Indian issues, and Doris Lessing was born in Iran and writes with an eye to the
international scene. In a paragraph about British authors, these details present interesting com-
plications to the term “British.” Choice (A) describes a simplicity present in the question, which
is irrelevant, so (A) can be eliminated. Choices (B) and (D) do not refer to any of the informa-
tion in the paragraph, so eliminate them. Choice (C) addresses the way that these authors chal-
lenge obvious answers, so it effectively previews what is to come. The correct answer is (C).
2. B Pronouns and nouns are changing in the answer choices, so this question is testing precision.
A pronoun can only be used if it is clear what the pronoun refers to. Choices (A), (C), and (D)
present pronouns that could refer either to multiple things or nothing at all, so those choices
can be eliminated. Choice (B) refers to the specific noun, British issues, mentioned in the previ-
ous sentence. The correct answer is (B).
3. D Punctuation is changing in the answer choices, so this question is testing STOP, HALF-STOP,
and GO punctuation. Use the Vertical Line Test, and identify the ideas as complete or incom-
plete. The first part of the sentence, His first two novels, as one might expect, is an incomplete
idea. The second part, deal with Japanese characters and themes, is also an incomplete idea. To
connect two incomplete ideas, GO punctuation is needed. Eliminate (A) and (B) because a
semicolon is STOP punctuation and a dash is HALF-STOP punctuation. Keep (C) and (D)
because no punctuation and a comma are both GO punctuation. A comma comes after the
word novels, setting off the phrase as one might expect as unnecessary information. In order to
remain consistent with the non-underlined punctuation, there should be a comma after the
word expect as well. The correct answer is (D).
4. B Vocabulary is changing in the answer choices, so this question is testing precision of word
choice. Look for a word with a definition that is consistent with the other ideas in the sentence.
The sentence says that he wrote these novels about an “ imaginary Japan” that he’ d dreamt up, so
the correct word should mean “idea.” Mapping means “laying out,” so eliminate (A). Concep-
tion means “idea,” so keep (B). Transportation means “movement,” so eliminate (C). Inception
means “beginning,” so eliminate (D). The correct answer is (B).
5. D Transitions are changing in the answer choices, so this question is testing consistency of ideas.
A transition must be consistent with the relationship between the ideas it connects. The sen-
tence before the transition mentions his modest success after he wrote about Japanese characters
and themes, and the next sentence mentions that he became a literary phenomenon after he
shifted to explicitly British themes. These are contrasting ideas, so eliminate (A) and (B), which
both contain same-direction transitions. But indicates a contrast but is not the right kind of
1 6 | Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations
SAT Premium Prep
transition to appear at the beginning of a sentence and be followed by a comma, so eliminate
(C). Choice (D) appropriately uses the opposite-direction transition However. The correct an-
swer is (D).
6. D Note the question! The question asks whether the given sentence should be added, so it’s test-
ing consistency. If the content of the new sentence is consistent with the ideas surrounding it,
then it should be added. The paragraph discusses Ishiguro’s novel. The new sentence discusses
the film adaptation, so it is not consistent with the ideas in the text; the sentence should not be
added. Eliminate (A) and (B). Eliminate (C) because what is and is not British is not relevant to
the paragraph. Keep (D) because it accurately states that the new sentence does not contribute
to the paragraph. The correct answer is (D).
7. C Vocabulary is changing in the answer choices, so this question is testing precision of word
choice. The sentence already states the subject perspective, so the word it should not be used,
as it creates an incomplete sentence. Eliminate (A), (B), and (D). Keep (C) because it uses the
word that instead of it, creating a complete sentence. The correct answer is (C).
8. C Note the question! The question asks which choice most effectively connects the sentence with the
previous paragraph, so it is testing consistency. Eliminate answers that are inconsistent with the
purpose stated in the question. The previous paragraph states that Ishiguro found his voice and
his subject matter when he shifted to explicitly British themes. This paragraph states that his most
recent novel…addresses the issue of British self-imagining even more directly. Look for an answer
choice that is consistent with the fact that he kept writing about the same ideas. Eliminate (A)
and (B) because they do not mention Ishiguro. Choice (C) is consistent with the paragraph,
mentions the author, and contains the phrase has since continued, which shows that he kept
writing the same thing; keep (C). Eliminate (D) because it discusses where the author was
raised and not what he wrote. The correct answer is (C).
9. D Note the question! The question asks which choice most effectively combines the underlined sen-
tences, so it’s testing consistency and concision. Eliminate answers that are inconsistent with
the purpose stated in the question. Eliminate (A) because it unnecessarily repeats the word
canvas. Eliminate (B) because the phrase it being is awkward and overly wordy. Eliminate (C)
because is a canvas and there on this canvas are redundant. Choice (D) combines the sentences
in a concise way without introducing any new errors. The correct answer is (D).
10. D Verbs are changing in the answer choices, so this question is testing consistency of verbs. A
verb must be consistent with its subject and with the other verbs in the sentence. The other
verb in the sentence is is, which is in the present tense. To be consistent, the underlined verb
must also be in the present tense. Eliminate (A) and (B), because was and had been are not in
present tense. Choice (C) is in the present tense but is not parallel to is; eliminate (C). Keep
(D) because is is in the present tense. The correct answer is (D).
|Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations 17
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11. B The length of the phrase after thinking is changing in the answer choices, so this question is
testing precision and concision. There is also the option to DELETE; consider this choice care-
fully as it is often the correct answer. First determine whether the phrase is necessary. A prepo-
sition is necessary, since the correct phrase is “thinking of” something, so eliminate (D). The
non-underlined portion of the sentence includes the words writer and he, so there is no need
to repeat these ideas. Eliminate (A) and (C). Choice (B) is consistent and concise. The correct
answer is (B).
12. D The length of the phrase after from is changing in the answer choices, so this question is test-
ing precision and concision. There is also the option to DELETE; consider this choice care-
fully as it is often the correct answer. First determine whether the phrase is necessary. The
non-underlined portion of the sentence draws a contrast between two items using the phrase
different from. The first item is human language, so the second item should be of the same type.
If the underlined portion is deleted, then the second item is the other calls, which is consistent
with human language. Therefore, (D) is the best option. Choice (A) contains those who speak,
which refers to speakers and is not consistent with human language. Eliminate (A). Choice (B)
contains speaking, which is a verb and is not consistent with the noun phrase human language.
Eliminate (B). Choice (C) contains animals who speak, which refers to speakers and is not con-
sistent with human language. Eliminate (C). The correct answer is (D).
13. B Punctuation is changing in the answer choices, so this question is testing STOP, HALF-STOP
and GO punctuation. Use the Vertical Line Test and identify the ideas as complete or incom-
plete. Draw the vertical line between the words indicate and food. The first part of the sen-
tence, Alarm calls can cover any number of warnings or communications, which can indicate, is an
incomplete idea. The second part, food sources, mating, or predators, is also an incomplete idea.
To connect two incomplete ideas, GO punctuation is needed. Eliminate (D) because the colon
is HALF-STOP punctuation. There is no reason to use a comma after indicate, so eliminate
(A) and (C). The correct answer is (B).
14. C Verbs are changing in the answer choices, so this question is testing consistency of verbs. A
verb must be consistent with its subject and with the other verbs in the sentence. The subject of
the verb is the D call, which is singular. To be consistent, the underlined verb must also be sin-
gular. Eliminate (B) and (D) because they are not singular. The verb in the previous sentence is
is used, which is in the present tense. To be consistent, the underlined verb must also be in the
present tense. Eliminate (A) because it is not in the present tense. The correct answer is (C).
15. A Transitions are changing in the answer choices, so this question is testing consistency of ideas.
A transition must be consistent with the relationship between the ideas it connects. The sen-
tence after the transition says as interesting as this is, and ends with the bigger discovery was yet
to come. These are contrasting ideas, so eliminate (B), (C), and (D) which all contain same-
direction transitions. Choice (A) appropriately uses the opposite-direction transition Neverthe-
less. The correct answer is (A).
1 8 | Practice Test 9: Answers and Explanations
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