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Published by inorazidah, 2020-12-05 17:49:41

MUET WRITING

MUET_MODULE (2)

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MALAYSIAN UNIVERSITY
ENGLISH TEST

IPGM MUET MODULE

INSTITUT PENDIDIKAN GURU
KEMENTERIAN PENDIDIKAN MALAYSIA
ARAS 1, ENTERPRISE BUILDING 3,
BLOK 2200, PERSIARAN APEC,
CYBER 6, 63000 CYBERJAYA

CONTENT PAGE

MUET structure i
MUET Test Scores
ii
800/1 LISTENING
Tips for listening 2
Practice 1 4
Practice 2 7
Practice 3 10
Practice 4 13
Practice 5 16
Practice 6 19
Practice 7 22
Practice 8 25
Practice 9 28

800/2 SPEAKING 32
Tips for speaking 35
Practice 1 39
Practice 2 43
Practice 3 47
Practice 4 51
Practice 5 55
Practice 6 59
Practice 7 63
Practice 8 67
Practice 9 71
Practice 10
76
800/3 READING 78
94
Tips for reading 110
Practice 1 126
Practice 2 141
Practice 3 161
Practice 4 180
Practice 5 199
Practice 6
Practice 7
Practice 8

800/4 WRITING 220
225
Tips for writing question 1 226
Practice 1 227
Practice 2 228
Practice 3 229
Practice 4 230
Practice 5 231
Practice 6 232
Practice 7
Practice 8 233
237
Tips for writing question 2
Practice 1 – 20 239

References 240

Panel of Writers

Structure of the MUET paper
(MALAYSIAN UNIVERSITY ENGLISH TEST)

The MUET Paper tests all the four language skills. Candidates for the MUET exam are
required to sit for all four papers.

The structures of the papers are presented below.

Paper code LISTENING SPEAKING READING WRITING
800/1 800/2 800/3 800/4
Time
30 minutes 30 minutes 90 minutes 90 minutes
Weighting (%) 15 15 40 30
45 45 120 90
Maximum
score 5 texts 2 tasks 6 texts 2 tasks

Number of
texts/tasks

No of questions 20 2 45 2

Question type  Information Multiple choice  Transfer of
transfer questions information from
a non-linear
 Short-answer  passages source to a
questions  least one text linear text (150 -
200 words)
 Multiple choice with graphic
– 3 or 4 option  Extended
Articles from writing (350
Genre/topics Lecture, briefing, Contemporary journals, words)
talk, discussion, issues magazines,
interview, news, newspapers, Report, article,
telephone, academic texts, letter, essay
conversation, electronic texts
announcement,
instructions,
advertisement,
meeting,
documentary

i

MUET TEST SCORES
Description of Aggregated Scores

Aggregated Band User Communicative Comprehension Task
Score 6
5 Ability Performance
260 - 300 4
Highly Very fluent; highly Very good Very high
220 - 259 3 proficient appropriate use of understanding of ability to
2 user language; hardly language and function in the
180 - 219 any grammatical context language
1 error
140 - 179
Proficient Fluent; Good High ability to
100 – 139 user appropriate use of understanding of function in the
language; few language and language
Below 100 grammatical context
errors

Satisfactory Generally fluent; Satisfactory Satisfactory
user generally understanding of ability to
appropriate use of language and function in the
language; some context language
grammatical
errors

Modest Fairly fluent; fairly Fair Fair ability to
user appropriate use of understanding of function in the
language; many language and language
grammatical context
errors

Limited Not fluent; Limited Limited ability
user inappropriate use understanding of to function in
of language; very language and the language
frequent context
grammatical
errors

Very limited Hardly able to use Very limited Very limited
user the language understanding of ability to
language and function in the
context language

Note: MUET exam will be held three times a year – in March, July and November.

ii

800/1
LISTENING

1

LISTENING SKILLS

Paper 1 of the MUET exam consists of three parts, Part I, Part II and Part III. Parts I and II have
one listening text each. Part III has three short texts. Candidates must answer 20 questions in
the form of short answer, information transfer and multiple-choice questions. Candidates will
listen to each recording twice. First, students will be given one minute to read the question.
Then, the listening text will be played for the first time. Students are required to either mark or
write their answers while listening to the text or after it is finished. The listening text will be
played for a second time and students are encouraged to check their answers then.

TIPS FOR LISTENING

STEP 1

PRE LISTENING STEP 2 STEP 3
– Get overview of the
text FIRST LISTENING SECOND LISTENING
– Listen for specific – Get missing
 Read all the
questions and the information information/ answers
answer options
carefully  Listen actively for  Get any missing
the required information
 Underline the key information (refer to
words in the the underlined key  Check answers
questions so that you words in Step 1)
know what to listen
for later on  Write down
important notes
 e. g: What is the
main benefit of
writing a will

DO’S AND DON’TS  Concentrate and listen actively
 Read and listen to the instructions
Do  Read ahead to be prepared
 You the words that you hear in your answers
Don’t  Use the pause to check your answers

 Get distracted
 Spend too much time on one question
 Panic if you miss a question – continue with the next

question and go back to the missed question later
 Leave any answer blank

2

TIPS
A. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
What you should do

1. Skim through all the questions and the answers options to get a general idea of the text
that you are going to listen.

2. Underline the key words in the questions so that you know what to listen for later on.
3. While listening, pay attention to the content and the flow of information delivered by the

speaker(s). Remember that usually the questions in Part I (Information Transfer) follow
the order of information in the recording.
4. Write down important points or idea/write down your answers.
5. During the second listening, get the information that you missed out. Check your
answers too.
6. Make a final check. Check for spelling and grammar. Make sure your answers follow the
word limit.

B. MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS

What you should do
 Skim through all the questions and the answer options to get a general idea of the text
that you are going to listen.
 Underline the key words in the questions so that you know what to listen for later on.
 Listen for the specific information. Pay attention to the content and the flow of
information delivered by the speaker(s).
 Check each possible option given carefully.
 Remember some of the most likely answers maybe paraphrased.
 You may find that some of the vocabulary given in the options is in the text.
 Choose the most suitable answer/response to the question.

3

PRACTICE 1

Part I (8 marks)

For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

1 Employers prefer confident people because they _____________________________
2 Self-confidence can be lost due to one’s ____________________________________
3 The speaker thinks that confidence levels can _______________________________

For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.

Main point How to Become a More Confident Person
One example

Accept yourself as you are Know your strengths and
limitations

Believe in yourself 4 __________________________
__________________________

Reduce uncertainty 5 _________________________
__________________________
6 ________________________
____________________________ Stay away from negative people

4

For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer.

7 The last tip on confidence given by the speaker is to
A. ooze charm
B. increase work success
C. pretend to be confident

8 A person with high self-esteem is likely to be
A. brave
B. appealing
C. hardworking

Part II (6 marks)

For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from the box below to complete each
sentence.

A just want to listen
B do not really have

problems
C need to empathise
D come to learn social skills
E put the blame on others
F make poor choices

9 The interviewer assumes that the counsellor’s clients ______________________
10 Some students who have problems socializing ____________________________

For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer.

11 A good approach in counseling is to
A. make an early judgment
B. empathise with the client
C. become the client’s friend

5

12 From the interview, we can infer that the counselor
A. finds her job stressful
B. is an emotional person
C. has to constantly monitor herself

13 The counselor said that she would quit her job if she
A. was offered a job by “Befrienders”
B. could not solve her own psychological problems
C. could not separate herself from her students’ problems

14 The interviewer concluded that a counsellor’s job is
A. difficult
B. rewarding
C. time-consuming

Part III (6 marks)

For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.

15 The production, transportation and disposal of plastic bottles result in _________________
_________________________________________________________________________

16 Flash floods are the result of drains being _______________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

17 Mammoths did not live on ice glaciers because they had to _________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

18 One reason mammoths became extinct is because of ______________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

19 Buses and taxis are at fault for holding up traffic because they do not wait ______________
_________________________________________________________________________

20 The speaker thinks that there are enough parking spaces if only the motorists were willing
to _______________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

6

PRACTICE 2

PART I (8 marks)

For questions 1 to 2, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

1 The original idea of cheerleading was to _________________________________________
2 When cheerleading first started, the members were ________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

For questions 3 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.
Development of Cheerleading

Early Phase of 3 Started ____________________________
Cheerleading

Creativity in 4 Squad members created
Cheerleading ______________________________________

Technology in 5 _______________________________
Cheerleading to make cheerleading louder.

Current Phase of 6 Competitive sport involving
Cheerleading __________________________________

7

For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer.

7 As cheerleading developed, it became
A. noisier but striking
B. cheaper but entertaining
C. more complex but dangerous

8 At the end of the talk, the speaker advises parents to be
A. cautious
B. encouraging
C. co-operative

PART II (6 marks)

For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from box below to complete each
sentence.

A Anthropology
B Education
C Counselling
D Intercultural studies
E Research
F Management

9 The field of study that has given Dr. Linda an advantage trainer is _________________
10 Dr. Linda’s interest in intercultural studies stems from her background in ___________

For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer.
11 Dr. Linda’s job is to develop employees

A. facilitating skills
B. material designing skills
C. general management skills

12 Dr. Linda normally does a needs-analysis in order to
A. search for materials
B. assess the participants’ knowledge
C. find out the subject areas to be included

8

13 Compared to Malaysians, Americans are
A. proud
B. assertive
C. intimidating

14 To work together, Malaysians try to establish
A. an open relationship
B. a friendly relationship
C. a challenging relationship

PART III (6 marks)

For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.

15 The two diseases that are increasing among young adults are _______________________
_________________________________________________________________________

16 According to the study, most of the foods consumed by young adults are unhealthy
because these foods are _____________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

17 Banks are reducing costs by __________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

18 A drop in car sales will affect salesmen and ______________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

19 People tend to be the happiest when ___________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

20 Stress and relaxation levels experienced during holidays influence ____________________
_________________________________________________________________________

9

PRACTICE 3

PART I (8 marks)

For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

1 Customers are sometimes unhappy with the product they have bought because it is
__________________________________________________________________________________

2 In the past, dissatisfied customers complained by writing letters ______________________
_________________________________________________________________________

3 The social media can harm the business because it ________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.
How Dissatisfied Customers React

4 ____________________________ Stop buying the product
_____________________________
6 ___________________________
5 ___________________________ _____________________________
_____________________________

For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer.

7 Word-of-mouth complaints have the most impact since
A. many people are informed about these complaints
B. these complaints are from familiar and trusted source
C. customers made these complaints on a face-to-face basis

10

8 The stores can benefit if customers complain to them directly because
A. they can bring more customers
B. they have a chance to remedy the situation
C. fewer people will know about the problem

PART II (6 marks)

For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from box below to complete each
sentence.

A cause fear
B create havoc
C create doubt
D cause infection
E cause discomfort
F cause destruction

9 Hospitals are concern that pets’ fleas and bugs might ______________________________
10 If a patient is allowed to receive visits from his pet, an anaconda or a monkey, his pet could

_________________________________________________________________________

For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer.
11 Cats and dogs are allowed to visit

A. with other people apart from their owners
B. when they have the consent from all parties
C. because they have proof of rabies vaccination

12 The following are true except
A. more patients are considering having pets
B. hospitals have benefited from visits by pet
C. this policy allows visits only from certain pets

13 Having an enhanced emotional well-being would
A. allow young patients to play with their pets
B. increase patients’ chances of recovery from illness
C. encourage terminally ill patients to say a final goodbye

11

14 Which of the following statements summarizes the speaker’s feeling at the end?
A. He feels that everyone concerned can benefit from pet visits
B. He feels that times have changed, and hospitals have not done so
C. He feels that in future, animals like fathers, can enter delivery rooms

PART III (6 marks)

For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.

15 Tanjung Piai is best known for _________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

16 Visitors are attracted to the park by the __________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

17 The speaker says that applying for a scholarship can be ____________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

18 It is recommended that someone else can help to proofread your application to ensure that
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

19 The construction worker’s head was ____________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

20 The incident was described as a miracle because _________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

12

PRACTICE 4

PART I (8 marks)

For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

1 Organizing a study group can help you to ________________________________________
2 Effective study groups differ from casual discussion groups in their membership and ______

_________________________________________________________________________
3 In an effective study group, the selected members should be ________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.
Preparation for First Study Group Meeting

STEP I
Decide on goals

STEP 2

4 Determine_______________________________________
of meeting.

STEP 3
Circulate contact details

STEP 4
5 Identify __________________________________________

STEP 5
Prepare an agenda

STEP 6
6 Give ________________________________________

STEP 7
Hold the meeting

13

For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer.

7 The speaker thinks a study group meeting should be run like
A. company meetings
B. informal gatherings
C. academic discussions

8 To obtain maximum success from study groups
A. invite only members who have reasons
B. include friends as members of the group
C. limit the number of members in the group

PART II (6 marks)

For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from box below to complete each
sentence.

A is better than taking plain water
B improves health
C wards off the build up of cholesterol
D has potential as a sports drink
E gives a bitter taste
F helps to promote tourism

9 Generally, coconut water ________________________________________________
10 Coconut water from nuts that are younger than five months _______________________

For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer.

11 The taste of coconut water may be different according to
A. the age of the tree
B. the size of the nut
C. the place the tree is planted

14

12 Which of the following properties of coconut water will help blood circulation?
A. 46 calories
B. High fat content
C. Fibre and protein

13 In cosmetics, coconut water can
A. prevent acne
B. moistures the skin
C. replace shower gel

14 At the end of the talk, the speaker cautions listeners against
A. consuming too much coconut water
B. drinking coconut water during pregnancy
C. confusing coconut water with coconut milk

PART III (6 marks)

For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.

15 It is hard to believe that people ________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

16 The gastroenterologist had to use special tools ___________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

17 The object in the photograph taken by NASA’s space vehicle seems to be ______________
_________________________________________________________________________

18 The mission of the space vehicle is expected to complete ___________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

19 Red-coloured sports clothing symbolises ________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

20 The study at Sunderland University found that men with ____________________________
_____________________________ are more likely to choose red instead of other colours.

15

PRACTICE 5

Part I (8 marks)

For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

1 “Help Yourself to Health” is the name of a ________________________________________
2 Dr Rodiah is a ________________________________________________________ at the

National Health Institute.
3 The topic discussed the week before was the _____________________________________

For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS

Outline of the Radio Programme

I – Introductory Remarks
II – Topics to be Discussed

4 _________________________________ Ways to reduce sugar in our diet

III – Consumption of Sugar

1970: 17 teaspoons of sugar daily 5 Now: __________________________

IV – Types of Sugar

Visible Sugar 6 _______________________________

V – Examples of Food and Drinks Containing Sugar

For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer.

7 Most people are unaware they consume too much sugar because they
A. think only of visible sugar
B. consume only seven to ten teaspoons of sugar
C. follow recommendations by health professionals

16

8 With reference to the talk, which of the following is not an example of ‘hidden sugar’?
A. Coffee
B. Soy sauce
C. Chilli sauce

Part II (6 marks)

For questions 9 and 10, complete the sentence using the letters A to F from the box
below.

A 11⁄2
B2
C4
D 17
E 18
F 20

The human brain weighs about 9 ____________ kilogrammes and uses 10 _____________
per cent of the body’s blood.

For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer.
11 Smart people may be called “bright sparks” because they think more and ________than

other people.
A. sleep less
B. use more energy
C. produce more energy

12 Humans are born with a brain which
A. always remembers
B. is in excellent condition
C. creates new connection while they think

17

13 The third suggestion given by the speaker to train the brain is to
A. read
B. watch television
C. exercise regularly

14 Training the brain through learning new skills can be achieved by memorising
A. lyrics
B. shopping list
C. phone numbers

Part III (6 marks)

For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.

15 One reason for setting up a history gallery is to encourage students to _________________
_________________________________________________________________________

16 Displays of photos, films and other materials would help to show _____________________
_________________________________________________________________________

17 The main purpose of the consumers’ squad is to __________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

18 Members of the squad receive a free membership card that _________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

19 The speaker wants listeners to ________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

20 One advantage LEDs have over ordinary bulbs is they _____________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

18

PRACTICE 6

PART I (8 marks)

For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

1 In the past, people stayed in one job until they retired because there were _______________

__________________________________________________________________________

Two reasons why people switch jobs are:

2 __________________________________________________________________________

3 __________________________________________________________________________

For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.

Advice on Choosing a Job

Do’s Dont’s

Choose each job carefully. Look at the salary alone

4 ________________________________ 6. _____________________________________

_________________________________ _____________________________________

5_________________________________

_________________________________

For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer.
_________________________________
7 Employers may think that job-hoppers

A. are difficult to train
B. have personality problems
C. lack necessary qualifications

8 The audience for this talk is probably made up of
A. students
B. employees
C. job-hoppers

19

PART II (6 marks)

For question 9, circle the correct answer.

9 The earliest flag was first found in
A. Egypt
B. Persia
C. Greece

For questions 10 and 11, choose one letter A to F from the box below to complete each
sentence.

A symbolise a country
B guide soldiers
C indicate the final destination
D show control over a country
E show the country of origin
F show ownership

10 In the past, flags were used in battles to _____________________________________
11 Upon entering any port, ships are required to fly a flag to ________________________

For questions 12 to 14, circle the correct answer.

12 The flag used before 1949 had
A. a tiger in the middle
B. blue and white stripes
C. a white star and a white moon

13 The Malayan flag was first used in
A. 1950
B. 1957
C. 1963

20

14 The inclusion of Sabah, Sarawak and the Federal Territory in the Malaysian flag was
indicated in the change of
A. colour of the moon
B. colour of the stripes
C. number of points in the star

PART III (6 marks)
For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.

15 One reason for the increased demand for fish in Malaysians is _______________________
_________________________________________________________________________

16 The demand for high quality fresh fish comes from ________________________________
17 Other than at the workplace, the speaker thinks the ‘rat race’ can also be applied to the

_________________________________________________________________________
18 With regards to the invention of new gadgets, the speaker hopes _____________________

_________________________________________________________________________
19 _____________________________________________________ is one example of how

ants use swarm intelligence.
20 One basic rule fish and birds follow is: __________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

21

PRACTICE 7

PART 1 (8 marks)

For questions 1 to 2, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

1 The seriousness of the food problem is shown by the statistics that a billion people
suffer from _______________________________________________________________

2 The speaker finds it strange that some people in the world are starving while other people
suffer from ________________________________________________________________

For questions 3 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.
Reasons for the food problem

Increased demand for food due to: Increased demand for food due to:
Growing population 4____________________________

3_____________________________ Cropland used for settlements
Production of fuel for cars 5____________________________

6____________________________

For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer.

7. The following are measures to reduce food wastage at restaurants except
A. on the spot cooking
B. serving only adequate amounts at buffets
C. limiting the number of reservations obtained

8. In general, the speaker feels _________________ about the world’s food situation.
A. sad
B. helpless
C. concerned

22

Part II (6 marks)

For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from the box below to complete the

sentence.

A paralysis
B a disease
C coordination problems
D blindness
E deafness
F depression

The discussion initially focused on a patient suffering from 9 ____________________ which
was accompanied by 10 ______________________.

For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer.

11 According to Puan Siti, the disabled would come to her centre when
A. they accept their disability
B. they are able to work again
C. they can get to the centre easily

12 The parking incident narrated by Mr. Rajan illustrates
A. the lack of public consideration for the disabled
B. the high number of the disabled who drive
C. the varied amenities for the disable

13 Mr Rajan expressed his unhappiness about the authorities not
A. listening to experts
B. gathering enough feedback
C. having adequate monitoring

14 Dr Lee hopes that more money could be given
A. to care for the disabled
B. to improve amenities for the disabled
C. to provide medical aid for the disabled

23

PART III (6 marks)

For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS

15 The kite festivals have attracted both ___________________________________________
participants.

16 Apart from watching the kites being flown, visitors can also _________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

17 Apart from the natural urge to suck, most babies suck their thumbs because
_________________________________________________________________________

18 Children who suck their thumbs after the age of five, may develop ____________________
_________________________________________________________________________

19 Serious injuries occur in judo because students __________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

20 The talk deals mainly with ___________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

24

PRACTICE 8

Part I (8 marks)

For questions 1 and 2, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

1 Miss Chan’s talk can be described as interesting and _______________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

2 Harun was surprised how much money _______________________________________ by
the hospitality industry.

For questions 3 to 6, write you answer NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.
Customer Service

3 ___________________________

_____________________________
_

Regular Chance 4 ___________________
customers customers ____________________

Know their 5 _____________ Attract their 6 ________________ Differentiate
needs ______________ attention _________________ between local
______________ _________________
______________ _________________ and foreign
customers

25

For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer.

7 Harun’s uncle who works on a cruise liner is likely to
A. look for another job
B. have many girlfriends
C. make longer land visits

8 Alvin cannot find a job because
A. he has yet to finish his training
B. there are few vacancies for pilots
C. the hospitality industry is saturated

Part II (6 marks)

For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from the box below to complete each

sentence.

A reduce the need for health supplements
B increase happiness
C relieve pain and aid digestion
D reduce stress
E relax muscles
F improve the immune system

9 In the past, scientists knew that laughter was able to _______________________________
10 Recent research has shown that laughter protects us against infections because it could

______________________________

For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer.

11 The speaker says we laugh when
A. someone laughs spontaneously
B. our funnybone is disturbed
C. things are in our favour

26

12 Endorphin is a brain chemical that
A. makes us feel relaxed
B. stimulates our emotions
C. helps recall fond memories

13 When one is sad, one should try
A. “silent laughter”
B. “hearty laughter”
C. “humming laughter”

14 The talk is about
A. the best way to stimulate laughter
B. how to use laughter to stay healthy
C. the difference between real and fake laughter

Part III (6 marks)

For questions 15 to 20, write your answers in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS

15 The competition requires teams to recognize _____________________________________
in the time given.

16 The main purpose of the Fraser’s Hill International Bird Park is not to win but to encourage
_________________________________________________________________________

17 The main reason for the increased cost of electricity is the ___________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

18 One alternative source of energy mentioned is from ________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

19 The speaker says the negative side of advertising is that ____________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

20 The example of the cell phone shows that advertisements can _______________________
__________________________________________________________________________

27

PRACTICE 9

Part 1 (6 marks)

For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

1 A barcode scan sheet is used for items __________________________________________
2 Compared to old-fashioned price tags, barcodes are better because they _______________

__________________________________________________________________________
3 In a supermarket, when many items are purchased, scanning helps in _________________

__________________________________________________________________________

For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.
How A Barcode Is Used

The cashier scans the barcode

4. The scanner reads ______________________________________
The scanner transfers information to a computer

5. The computer __________________________________________
The information appears on the screen

6. The cashier prints ______________________________________

For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer.

7 If a scanner fails to read the barcode, the cashier will
A. print the items sold
B. type in the numbers manually
C. obtain the details of the purchase

28

8. The speaker’s intention is to
A. discuss the benefits of barcodes
B. compare barcodes with price tags
C. promote the use of barcodes in shops

Part II (6 marks)

For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from the box below to complete each
sentence

A headaches
B temporary blindness
C disorientation
D fatigue
E sleep disruption
F anxiety

9 Staring at neon signs can cause _______________________________________________
10 Intrusion of street lights into homes can lead to ___________________________________

For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer

11 According to Dr. Yeoh, the problem of excessive lighting in Malaysia is
A. critical
B. exaggerated
C. under control

12 In what way are night hunters affected by artificial lights?
A. They lose their way
B. They lose their prey
C. They lose their vision

29

13 What is Dr. Yeoh’s recommendation?
A. Countries should use less oil
B. Countries should use less electricity
C. Countries should use less artificial lights

14 Dr. Yeoh’s talk is mainly on
A. the effects of excessive lighting
B. the types of excessive lighting indoors
C. the differences between interior and exterior lighting

Part III (6 marks)

For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS

15 Poorer health is experienced by those who commuted by car or public transport compared
to those who ______________________________________________________________

16 Drivers who commuted more than an hour had better health because they ______________
_________________________________________________________________________

17 The risk of large earthquakes a century ago and today _____________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

18 Researchers in the University of California found that the earthquakes in South America
and Japan ________________________________________________________________

19 The news item is interesting because the couple __________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

20 The phrase ‘can’t stand the sight of each other’ means _____________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

30

800/2
SPEAKING

31

TIPS FOR SPEAKING
Introduction

 The purpose of the Speaking Test (Paper 2) is to assess a candidate’s ability to
converse in English naturally and fluently.

 This test consists of two parts, Part A and Part B. For the first part, each candidate is
required to make an individual presentation. For the second part, the candidate is
required to participate in a group discussion.

Part A

 Candidates are given two minutes to prepare their points on a topic they are given.
 They are then given two minutes to make their oral presentation.
 Other candidates, who will be listening to the presentation, are required to make notes

which they are to use for the group discussion in Part B.

Helpful Tips

Preparation

Since the time for preparation is only two minutes, you need to think fast and make the best of
the time given. Here are some strategies:

 When you are given the situation, read it carefully. Understand the tasks you are given.
 Think of at least three main points.
 Give plausible reasons and suggestions to support the main points.
 Jot down the points and then elaborate on them when you are presenting. You do not

have time to write out the whole presentation.

Part A

How you say something is as important as what you say. Keep the following in mind:

 Speak clearly. Make sure you enunciate your words. Stress words in the right places.
 Speak in complete sentences.
 Although you should aim for grammatically correct sentences, do not sacrifice

fluency for grammatical accuracy.

32

 If you are stuck for words, try to express your ideas in simple sentences; otherwise
move on to the next point.

 Present your points logically and systematically.
 For Task A, you have to make eye contact with the examiner to show that you are

confident. For Task B, you should make eye contact with the other members of the
group.

Part B
 Candidates are divided into groups of four.
 Each candidate is given two minutes to prepare points either to support or oppose
the points raised by the other three members of the group.
 The group is then given 10 minutes for their group discussion.
 The aim of this discussion is to arrive at a decision as to which argument, point of
view, reasoning or suggestion is the best or most relevant for the given topic or
stimulus.

Helpful tips
Part B

 You will need to familiarize yourself with language functions like turn-taking, asking
for and giving information, making suggestions, giving reasons, giving opinions,
persuading, drawing conclusions, agreeing and disagreeing, interrupting, managing
a discussion etc.

 Listen to what the others are saying and make appropriate responses.
 Non-verbal communication cues are important. Nodding will show agreement.
 You need to cooperate with the other members of the group so that the discussion

can be carried out smoothly.
 If member of a group is very quiet, ask relevant question to draw him into the

discussion. This will help him to increase his/her confidence level.
 At the end of the discussion, the group must arrive at a definite conclusion/decision

on the best solution or course of action to take.

33

More helpful tips.
The diagram below illustrates a sample activity of the individual presentation and group
interaction

34

PRACTICE 1
CANDIDATE A
Instructions to candidates:

This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B.
Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions
and the tasks given.

Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare your response.
 You have two minutes to present your views.
 Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for

the group interaction in Task B.

Situation

It is a dream of many Malaysian to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be
achieved.

Task A: You want to be the first Malaysian to go to the moon. Elaborate.

Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion.
 You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A.
 In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views.
 At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision.
 You are given ten minutes for the discussion

Situation

It is a dream of many Malaysian to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be
achieved.

Task B: Discuss which of the following would be the greatest achievement for a Malaysian.

(i) To go to the moon
(ii) To win an Olympic gold medal
(iii) To be a world-famous singer
(iv) To be an internationally-known chef

35

PRACTICE 1
CANDIDATE B
Instructions to candidates:

This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B.
Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions
and the tasks given.

Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare your response.
 You have two minutes to present your views.
 Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for

the group interaction in Task B.

Situation

It is a dream of many Malaysians to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be
achieved.

Task A: You want to be the first Malaysian to win an Olympic gold medal. Elaborate.

Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion.
 You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A.
 In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views.
 At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision.
 You are given ten minutes for the discussion.

Situation

It is a dream of many Malaysians to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be
achieved.

Task B: Discuss which of the following would be the greatest achievement for a Malaysian.

(i) To go to the moon
(ii) To win an Olympic gold medal
(iii) To be a world-famous singer
(iv) To be an internationally-known chef

36

PRACTICE 1
CANDIDATE C
Instructions to candidates:

This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B.
Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions
and the tasks given.

Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare your response.
 You have two minutes to present your views.
 Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for

the group interaction in Task B.

Situation

It is a dream of many Malaysians to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be
achieved.

Task A: You want to be the first Malaysian to be a world-famous singer. Elaborate.

Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion.
 You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A.
 In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views.
 At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision.
 You are given ten minutes for the discussion.

Situation

It is a dream of many Malaysians to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be
achieved.

Task B: Discuss which of the following would be the greatest achievement for a Malaysian.

(i) To go to the moon
(ii) To win an Olympic gold medal
(iii) To be a world-famous singer
(iv) To be an internationally-known chef

37

PRACTICE 1
CANDIDATE D

Instructions to candidates:

This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B.
Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions
and the tasks given.

Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare your response.
 You have two minutes to present your views.
 Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for

the group interaction in Task B.

Situation

It is a dream of many Malaysians to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be
achieved.

Task A: You want to be the first Malaysian to be an internationally-known chef. Elaborate.

Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion.
 You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A.
 In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views.
 At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision.
 You are given ten minutes for the discussion.

Situation

It is a dream of many Malaysians to achieve something great. Suggest some feats that can be
achieved.

Task B: Discuss which of the following would be the greatest achievement for a Malaysian.

(i) To go to the moon
(ii) To win an Olympic gold medal
(iii) To be a world-famous singer
(iv) To be an internationally-known chef

38

PRACTICE 2
CANDIDATE A

Instructions to candidates:

This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B.
Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions
and the tasks given.

Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare your response.
 You have two minutes to present your views.
 Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for

the group interaction in Task B.

Situation
In the event of an emergency, who would you contact?
Task A: You would contact a family member. Why?

Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion.
 You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A.
 In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views.
 At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision.
 You are given ten minutes for the discussion.

Situation

In the event of an emergency, who would you contact?

Task B: Discuss which of the following should be the first to be contacted in an emergency.

(i) A family member
(ii) An emergency hotline
(iii) A friend
(iv) A neighbour

39

PRACTICE 2
CANDIDATE B

Instructions to candidates:

This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B.
Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions
and the tasks given.

Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare your response.
 You have two minutes to present your views.
 Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for

the group interaction in Task B.

Situation
In the event of an emergency, who would you contact?
Task A: You would contact an emergency hotline. Why?

Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion.
 You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A.
 In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views.
 At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision.
 You are given ten minutes for the discussion.

Situation

In the event of an emergency, who would you contact?

Task B: Discuss which of the following should be the first to be contacted in an emergency.

(i) A family member
(ii) An emergency hotline
(iii) A friend
(iv) A neighbour

40

PRACTICE 2
CANDIDATE C

Instructions to candidates:

This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B.
Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions
and the tasks given.

Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare your response.
 You have two minutes to present your views.
 Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for

the group interaction in Task B.

Situation
In the event of an emergency, who would you contact?
Task A: You would contact a friend. Why?

Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion.
 You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A.
 In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views.
 At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision.
 You are given ten minutes for the discussion.

Situation

In the event of an emergency, who would you contact?

Task B: Discuss which of the following should be the first to be contacted in an emergency.

(i) A family member
(ii) An emergency hotline
(iii) A friend
(iv) A neighbour

41

PRACTICE 2
CANDIDATE D

Instructions to candidates:

This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B.
Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions
and the tasks given.

Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare your response.
 You have two minutes to present your views.
 Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for

the group interaction in Task B.

Situation
In the event of an emergency, who would you contact?
Task A: You would contact a neighbour. Why?

Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion.
 You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A.
 In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views.
 At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision.
 You are given ten minutes for the discussion.

Situation

In the event of an emergency, who would you contact?

Task B: Discuss which of the following should be the first to be contacted in an emergency.

(i) A family member
(ii) An emergency hotline
(iii) A friend
(iv) A neighbour

42

PRACTICE 3
CANDIDATE A

Instructions to candidates:

This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B.
Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions
and the tasks given.

Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare your response.
 You have two minutes to present your views.
 Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for

the group interaction in Task B.

Situation
You are planning to live on your own. How do you prepare yourself for this life?
Task A: You have to learn how to manage your money. Why is this important?

Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion.
 You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A.
 In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views.
 At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision.
 You are given ten minutes for the discussion.

Situation

You are planning to live on your own. How do you prepare yourself for this life?

Task B: Discuss which of the following is the most important step to take to prepare yourself
to live on your own.

(i) Learn how to manage your money
(ii) Learn how to cook
(iii) Learn how to keep your home clean
(iv) Learn how to manage your time

43

PRACTICE 3
CANDIDATE B
Instructions to candidates:
This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B.
Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions
and the tasks given.

Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare your response.
 You have two minutes to present your views.
 Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for

the group interaction in Task B.

Situation
You are planning to live on your own. How do you prepare yourself for this life?
Task A: You have to learn how to cook. Why is this important?

Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes)
 You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion.
 You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A.
 In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views.
 At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision.
 You are given ten minutes for the discussion.

Situation
You are planning to live on your own. How do you prepare yourself for this life?
Task B: Discuss which of the following is the most important step to take to prepare

yourself to live on your own.
(i) Learn how to manage your money
(ii) Learn how to cook
(iii) Learn how to keep your home clean
(iv) Learn how to manage your time

44

PRACTICE 3
CANDIDATE C

Instructions to candidates:

This test consists of two tasks. Task A and Task B.
Task A is carried out first followed by Task B. You are given one minute to read the instructions
and the tasks given.

Task A: Individual Presentation (2 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare your response.
 You have two minutes to present your views.
 Listen to the others while they are making their presentations and take down notes for

the group interaction in Task B.

Situation
You are planning to live on your own. How do you prepare yourself for this life?
Task A: You have to learn how to keep your home clean. Why is this important?

Task B: Group interaction (10 minutes)

 You have two minutes to prepare for the discussion.
 You may maintain or change your views presented in Task A.
 In your discussion, you may support or oppose the other candidates’ views.
 At the end of the discussion, try to come to a group decision.
 You are given ten minutes for the discussion.

Situation

You are planning to live on your own. How do you prepare yourself for this life?

Task B: Discuss which of the following is the most important step to take to prepare
yourself to live on your own.

(i) Learn how to manage your money
(ii) Learn how to cook
(iii) Learn how to keep your home clean
(iv) Learn how to manage your time

45


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