EMT PRACTICE

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

65. You are the first on the scene of a motor vehicle 69. What type of vehicle damage would be
accident (MVA). List a number of priorities to noteworthy when making a determination of
consider during your scene size-up. the mechanism of injury?

66. On the scene of the same MVA, you have 70. Textbooks often describe three collisions in a
determined that you have one patient. As part of motor vehicle crash. List them.
your initial assessment, your primary objectives
will be

67. What is a frequently used mnemonic when 71. Falls from greater than _________feet, or _________
assessing how alert a patient is? times the height of the patient, are usually
considered severe.

72. List examples of low-velocity weapons.

68. What type of injury patterns are likely in a 73. List examples of medium-velocity weapons.
head-on motor vehicle collision?

95

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

74. Provide examples of a high-velocity weapon. 79. In addition to the rate, what other assessment
should be made with respect to the pulse?

75. A normal adult pulse rate at rest is between 80. In patients under 1 year of age, the
_________ and _________beats per minute. _______________ pulse should be assessed.

76. What would the pulse rate of a patient be if he 81. Why shouldn’t you use your thumb when
or she was described as tachycardic? assessing a patient’s pulse?

77. List possible reasons for an elevated pulse rate.

82. Provide a possible cause and an appropriate
intervention for each of the following
respiratory sounds: snoring, wheezing,
gurgling.

78. List possible reasons for a slow pulse rate.

96

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

83. The memory aid HEENT can be used during 87. When would an NPA be contraindicated?
patient assessment. What do the letters mean?

88. What is a medication side effect?

84. What is crepitation?

85. What would be the normal pulse rate for a 89. When giving a medication, we should consider
child between ages one and three years? the “four rights,” starting with the right patient.
What are the other three?

86. How should a correction be made on a patient- 90. What medication route would you use to
care report? administer sublingual nitroglycerin tablets to
your patient complaining of chest pain?

97

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

91. What do the letters COPD mean? 95. You have delivered one shock to your patient
who is in cardiac arrest. What is the next action
you should take?

92. List some contraindications for the use of a
medication inhaler.

96. Your patient complains of shortness of breath
and a feeling of heavy pressure in his chest. His
respirations are 38, shallow. His pulse is 56 and
irregular, and he reports a history of angina. Do
you have enough information to assist the
patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin?

93. What is the largest artery in the cardiovascular
system?

97. What distinctive lung sounds would you expect
to hear if your patient has pulmonary edema?

94. After the use of the AED, your patient is awake.
While on the stretcher, your patient becomes
unresponsive again. An assessment reveals no
breathing and no pulse. What is your next
action?

98

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

98. What type of medication is often taken by a 102. Your patient’s family member reports that the
patient who has a history of congestive heart patient accidentally took too much insulin.
failure (CHF)? Would you expect to find the blood sugar too
low or too high?

99. What types of medications are described as clot 103. What can cause low blood sugar in a diabetic
busters? patient?

100. Which organ produces insulin?

104. What are common findings in a patient with
low blood sugar?

101. What does the term hypoglycemia mean?

99

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

105. What units of measure are typically used to 108. What is the term to describe two or more

measure blood sugar levels in the United States? seizures without regaining full consciousness?

106. What is the most common cause of seizures in 109. What do the letters CVA mean?
children?

110. What are the two main causes of a stroke?

107. What type of information should you report on
a seizure patient?

111. What are the three items of assessment used in
the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke scale?

100

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

112. Describe how arm drift is assessed in a 115. What is the medication used in autoinjectors to
suspected stroke patient. treat anaphylaxis?

113. What is the term used to describe a severe, life- 116. What are the contraindications to consider
threatening allergic reaction? before using a prescribed epinephrine
autoinjector on a patient presenting signs of
severe allergic reaction, including difficulty
breathing?

114. What signs and symptoms would you expect to 117. What is the dose contained in an adult
find in order to distinguish between epinephrine autoinjector?
anaphylaxis and a mild allergic reaction?

101

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

118. What are the contraindications for the use of 122. You are called to a patient suspected of taking
activated charcoal? an overdose of codeine. What symptoms might
you expect to see in this patient?

119. List the information that should be gathered 123. What is the term for the severe reaction to
for a patient suspected of poison inhalation. alcohol withdrawal characterized by sweating,
trembling, anxiety, and hallucinations?

120. What is the most commonly inhaled poison 124. List the four ways a poison can enter the body.
that is characterized by its lack of odor, color,
and taste?

121. List some common signs and symptoms of 125. Do most poisons have an antidote?
carbon monoxide poisoning.

102

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

126. Conduction is one way the body loses heat. 130. Describe heat exhaustion.
What are the other possible methods?

131. What causes decompression sickness?

127. A condition in which the body temperature
drops below that required for normal bodily
functions is known as

132. In the interest of personal safety, what rescue
methods should be considered before going
into the water and swimming to a patient?

128. What is normal body temperature?

129. What are the likely changes that may be 133. List some medical problems that can cause a
observed in the condition of the skin of a person to exhibit abnormal behavior.
person in the early stages of frostbite?

103

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

134. What does the term afterbirth describe? 138. How would you define a premature infant?

135. What type of personal protection equipment 139. What happens during the third stage of labor?
should be part of an obstetrical kit?

136. What is meconium staining? 140. In what position should a third-trimester
pregnant patient be transported and why?

137. What are the signs and symptoms of
preeclampsia?

104

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

141. A patient has a deep laceration to the medial 144. Define compensated shock.
aspect of the right upper arm, which presents
with profuse, spurting, and bright red bleeding.
You have attempted to control the bleeding with
direct pressure and elevation and the bleeding
continues. List the next step to control bleeding
including the technique, location, and evaluation
of effectiveness.

145. What does the term golden period refer to?

142. Name three major types of shock.

146. What type of shock would be a
contraindication for the use of PASGs?

143. What would be the typical skin condition of a
patient in shock?

147. What is the maximum on-scene time for a call
involving serious trauma?

105

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

148. A collection of blood under the skin at an Answers
injury site describes what?
1. The minimum training level is EMT. The other
149. What are the signs of a tension pneumothorax? levels include Emergency Medical Responder,
Advanced EMT (AEMT), and Paramedic.
150. Your adult patient has moderate burns to the
chest and the entire right arm. Using the rule of 2. This is false. Your personal safety comes first. It
nine formula, what is the body surface area is not possible for you to help a patient if you
involved? are injured first.

3. This describes transfer of care. You must never
leave your patient until proper transfer has
taken place.

4. Sticking up for a patient and making sure the
patient’s needs are met is called patient advocacy.
Among other things, you must make sure the
hospital personnel have all the information that
you have learned about your patient.

5. The U.S. Department of Transportation created
the EMT curriculum.

6. A quality-improvement committee is often
formed to carry out consistent review of
operations and personnel performance.

7. The medical director assumes responsibility for
the oversight of patient care. This is a physician
who also oversees training and the development
of protocols.

8. A person authorized by the medical director to
give medication or perform emergency care is
the designate agent. The transfer of such
authority is an extension of the medical
director’s license to practice medicine.

9. This policy or protocol is called standing orders.
Additional orders can also be issued by
telephone while the patient is in the care of the
EMT.

10. These organisms are called pathogens. Blood-
borne pathogens can be found in blood and
other body fluids. Airborne pathogens are
spread by tiny droplets sprayed during
breathing, coughing, etc.

11. The processes and procedures designed to
protect you from infection are known as body
substance isolation precautions (BSI).

106

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

12. This equipment is called personal protective 23. Patient refusal of care and/or transport and
equipment (PPE). Such equipment would include ambulance collisions are the two most common
reasons for legal action against EMTs.
masks, eye protection, gowns, etc.
13. The patient may have TB or ARDS. EMS workers 24. The EMT had a duty to act. The EMT did not
provide the standard of care. The EMT’s action
can become infected even without direct contact. or inaction caused harm to the patient.

It is impossible to determine why a patient has a 25. Leaving a patient after care has been initiated
but before transfer to someone of equal or
productive cough. Assume the worst for safety greater medical training is called abandonment.

reasons. 26. The anatomical term for the front of the body
is anterior.
14. HIV stands for human immunodeficiency virus.
15. This act is called the Ryan White CARE Act. It was 27. The anatomical term for the rear of the body is
posterior.
named in honor of Ryan White, an Indiana
28. The anatomical term to describe a position
teenager who contracted AIDS through a tainted closer to the torso is proximal.

hemophilia treatment in 1984 and was expelled 29. The anatomical term to describe a position
farther from the torso is distal.
from school because of the disease.
30. Midline describes the imaginary line drawn
16. PPD means purified protein derivative. The test down the center of the body.
can detect exposure to TB. There are currently no
31. A patient lying on his or her abdomen is prone.
immunizations against TB. A patient sitting is in Fowler’s position. A
patient lying with the head slightly lower than
17. Eustress is defined as stress that is healthy or gives the feet is in Trendelenburg position.
one a feeling of fulfillment. This type can help
32. Mandible is the lower jawbone. (The fused
people work under pressure. Distress can occur bones of the upper jaw are called the maxillae.)

when a situation becomes overwhelming. 33. Xiphoid process is at the base of the sternum.
Hand placement during CPR is important to
Distressed EMTs will not be as effective. avoid breaking this bone.

18. In addition to denial, other emotions may include 34. There are 33 vertebrae in the human spine.
anger (“Why me?”), bargaining (“OK, but first let 35. The five divisions of the spine are the cervical

me . . .”), depression (“But I haven’t had a chance (neck), with seven vertebrae; thoracic (thorax,
ribs, upper back), with twelve; lumbar (lower
to . . .”), and acceptance (“I am not afraid”). back), with five; sacral (back wall of pelvis),
with five; and coccyx (tailbone), with four.
19. The three Rs are retreat, radio, and re-evaluate. 36. Tarsals and metatarsals are found in the ankle
20. Expressed consent is given by adults who are of and foot, respectively.
37. This bone is the patella, or kneecap.
legal age and are mentally competent to make a
rational decision. Expressed consent can also be 107
given by minors who are emancipated and, in
some states, minors who are not, such as those
over a certain age. Implied consent is permission
for treatment in any fashion besides obvious
expression. For instance, a patient getting onto
the cot or freely stepping into the back of an
ambulance can often be seen as implying consent.
21. The patient must be legally able to consent
(legal age or emancipated minor), mentally

competent and oriented, and fully informed. The

patient must sign a release form.

22. A common advance directive found in EMS is a
do not resuscitate (DNR) order. Other advance

directives can direct specific care and treatment.

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

38. Voluntary muscle, or skeletal muscle, is under 50. The normal adult breathing rate is 12–20
conscious control of the brain. Examples would breaths per minute.
include any muscle used to do things like walk,
reach, or pick something up. Involuntary muscle, 51. The head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver provides the
or smooth muscle, responds automatically to maximum opening of a patient’s airway.
orders from the brain; there is no conscious
thought in their operation. Examples are found 52. The jaw-thrust maneuver opens the airway of a
in the digestive and respiratory systems. patient with a head, neck, or spine injury.

39. The epiglottis prevents food from entering the 53. Observe the patient’s chest rise and fall with
trachea. ventilations.

40. Alveoli are small sacs within the lungs where 54. It should deliver nearly 100% oxygen.
gas exchange with the blood stream takes place. 55. An adult bag valve mask should deliver 800 mL

41. Platelets are instrumental in the formation of of air.
blood clots. 56. Place the OPA to the side of the patient’s face

42. White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, are and make sure that it extends from the center
involved in the destruction of germs and the of the mouth to the angle of the jaw, or from
production of antibodies. the corner of the patient’s mouth to the tip of
the earlobe.
43. Perfusion is the adequate supply of oxygen and 57. Contraindications are specific signs, symptoms,
nutrients to the organs and tissues of the body or circumstances under which the admini-
with the removal of waste products. stration of a drug would not be advisable.
58. Measure from the patient’s nostril to the
44. The autonomic nervous system controls earlobe or angle of the jaw.
involuntary muscle function.Other divisions 59. The unit should maintain 300 mm Hg when
include the central and peripheral nervous systems. the suction tube is closed.
60. Never suction a patient for more than 15
45. Epinephrine is also called adrenaline. seconds. If the patient requires additional
46. Look for equal chest expansion in inhalation. suctioning, ventilate for two minutes and then
suction for an additional 15 seconds. This
Listen for air exchange at the nose or mouth. sequence may be repeated. Consider obtaining
Feel for air movement at the nose or mouth. medical direction in this situation.
47. A patient with skin that appears to be blue or 61. The atmosphere contains 21% oxygen. The
gray has cyanosis. This could be an indication remainder is made up of approximately 78%
of hypoxia. nitrogen, 0.93% argon, 0.038% carbon dioxide,
48. Respiratory failure is the reduction of breathing and trace amounts of other gases and water vapor.
to the point where oxygenation is not sufficient 62. A portable oxygen cylinder is pressurized to
to support life.
49. Signs of inadequate breathing are uneven, 2,000 to 2,200 psi when filled.
minimal, or absent chest rise; breathing effort 63. The cylinder should be changed before the
limited to abdominal motion; no air can be felt
or heard; breath sound diminished or absent, and pressure drops to 200 psi to ensure proper oxy-
the patient makes noises such as wheezing, gen delivery to the patient.
crowing, stridor, snoring, and gurgling; rate of
breathing too rapid or too slow; breathing very
shallow, deep, or labored; there is prolonged
inspiration or expiration; the patient is unable to
speak in full sentences, and there is nasal flaring.

108

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

64. An oxygen cylinder should be hydrostatically 73. Medium-velocity weapons include handguns,
tested every five years. A cylinder with a star some shotguns, etc.
after the date should be tested every ten years.
Hydrostatic testing involves checking for leaks 74. A high-powered weapon such as an AK47
after filling the tank with a nearly incompress- assault rifle or a 30/30 hunting rifle are
ible liquid, usually water. examples of high-velocity weapons. These
weapons attain muzzle velocities greater than
65. Ensure safety for yourself and your crew, con- 1,500 feet/second.
sider the mechanism of injury, account for all
people who are potentially injured, consider 75. A normal adult pulse rate is between 60–100
additional resources (haz-mat, heavy rescue, beats per minute.
additional ambulances, etc.), and determine
best access for other responders. 76. A pulse rate of a tachycardic patient would be
greater than 100 beats per minute.
66. Maintain manual spine stabilization; form a
general impression of the patient; determine 77. Reasons for an elevated heart rate include
responsiveness; look for life-threatening condi- exertion, fright, fever, blood loss, shock, drugs,
tions with emphasis on airway, breathing, and and cardiac-related conditions.
circulation; and make a transport decision.
78. Reasons for a slow heart rate include head
67. Use AVPU to assess how alert a patient is. The injury, drugs, some poisons, and cardiac-related
acronym means alert, responds to verbal, conditions.
responds to pain, unresponsive.
79. Rhythm and quality are other assessments that
68. Two types are likely. If the patient went up should be made in respect to the pulse. For
and over the steering wheel, head, neck, chest, example, in addition to the number of beats per
and abdomen injuries should be suspected. If minute, an EMT should report the regularity
the patient followed a down-and-under and the feel of the force. “The pulse is 84
pathway, one may find injuries to the knees, regular and full.”
legs, and hips.
80. The brachial pulse, which is found in the upper
69. Noteworthy vehicle damage would be evidence arm, should be assessed.
of rollover; spidered windshield; bent steering
wheel; damage to dashboard, seats, or floor; 81. Your thumb has its own pulse and may cause
damage intrusion into passenger compartment; you to measure your own pulse instead of the
and broken axle or other major component. patient’s.

70. The three collisions in a motor vehicle crash are 82. Snoring might be caused by a blocked airway.
when the vehicle strikes an object, when the To treat, open the airway and clear as
body strikes the interior of the car, and when necessary. Wheezing might be caused by
the internal organs strike the interior surface of medical problems such as asthma. To treat,
the body. assist with prescribed meds and administer
meds as allowed by local protocols. Gurgling
71. Falls from greater than 15 feet or three times might be caused by fluids in the airway. To
the height of the patient are usually considered treat, suction airway, provide oxygen, and
severe. transport promptly.

72. Low-velocity weapons are those propelled by 83. HEENT stands for head, ears, eyes, nose, and
hand such as knives, clubs, etc. throat.

84. Crepitation describes the sound of grating
bones rubbing together, often indicating a
fracture.

109

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

85. The normal pulse rate for a child between ages 98. Diuretics, also known as water pills, are often
one and three years is 80–130 beats per minute prescribed to these patients. A common
at rest. example of this type of medication is Lasix
(furosemide).
86. A single line may be drawn through the error,
the correct information written beside it, and 99. Thrombolytics are used to dissolve blood clots
then initialed. The erroneous information that block the coronary arteries. To be used
should not be obliterated. effectively, these medications must be used
early in the process.
87. An NPA should be contraindicated anytime
there is a suspicion of facial or skull fractures. 100. The pancreas produces insulin.
101. Hypoglycemia means low blood sugar.
88. A side effect is the action of a drug other than 102. Too much insulin would cause more sugar to
the desired action.
be put into the cells, leaving too little in the
89. The three other rights are right medication, blood. A low blood sugar reading would be
right dose, right route. expected.
103. Low blood sugar can be caused by the patient
90. Sublingual means under the tongue. In this taking too much insulin, not eating,
case, you would place the tablets under the overexercising, or vomiting a meal.
tongue and allow them to dissolve. 104. Altered mental status and possible
unconsciousness are typical in a patient with
91. COPD stands for chronic obstructive low blood sugar.
pulmonary disease. Emphysema, chronic 105. Use milligrams of glucose per deciliter of
bronchitis, black lung, and other undetermined blood, or mg/dL. A deciliter = 100 mL.
respiratory illnesses fall into this category. 106. High fever is the most common cause of
seizures in children. These are called febrile
92. The patient is not alert and not able to use the seizures.
device, the inhaler is not prescribed to the 107. You should note what the patient was doing
patient, use has been denied by medical control, before the seizure, description of the seizure
or the patient has already taken maximum activity, loss of bowel or bladder control, how
prescribed dose. long the seizure lasted, and how the patient’s
mental status was after the seizure.
93. The aorta carries blood from the left ventricle 108. Status epilepticus is the term. This is a high-
to the systemic circulation. priority call. Rapid, safe transport and support
of airway are the priorities.
94. Reanalyze using the AED and shock if 109. CVA means cerebral vascular accident, also
indicated. called a stroke.
110. A stroke, or CVA, can be caused by a blockage
95. Perform two minutes of CPR. You are unlikely of an artery that supplies blood to part of the
to find a pulse immediately after a shock even if brain. This is also known as an ischemic stroke.
the shock successfully converted the rhythm. Another cause would be bleeding in the brain,
CPR is required to maintain perfusion in the known as hemorrhagic stroke.
meantime.

96. You need a blood pressure before you can safely
administer nitroglycerin. Hypotension is a
contraindication for its use.

97. Crackling or bubbling lung sounds can often be
heard as air passes through the fluid that has
accumulated in the lungs. These sounds are
called rales.

110

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

111. Three items of assessment are facial droop, arm 122. Symptoms of codeine overdose include reduced
drift, and speech difficulties. pulse rate, reduced breathing rate and depth,
constricted pupils, lethargy, low blood pressure,
112. Ask the patient to close his or her eyes and and sweating. In extreme cases, coma or
extend his or her arms out in front for ten respiratory or cardiac arrest can follow.
seconds. A normal response would be for the
patient to move both arms at the same time. An 123. This describes delirium tremens (DTs).
abnormal response would be if the patient 124. The four ways poison can enter the body are
could not move an arm or one arm drifts down.
ingestion, inhalation, injection, and absorption.
113. Anaphylaxis, or anaphylactic shock, describes a 125. Although many people think there is an
severe, life-threatening allergic reaction.
antidote for many poisons, there are, in fact,
114. Respiratory distress and signs or symptoms of very few true antidotes.
shock are indicators of a severe allergic reaction 126. Convection, radiation, evaporation, and
(anaphylaxis). respiration are ways the body loses heat.
127. This condition is called hypothermia. The body
115. Epinephrine is the medication used in can be significantly affected with a drop of one
autoinjections. or two degrees.
128. Normal body temperature in humans is 98.6°
116. There are very few contraindications to Fahrenheit (37° Celsius).
epinephrine in cases of life-threatening 129. A person in the early stages of frostbite often
anaphylaxis. These include the patient being presents white, waxy skin; blotchy skin; loss of
allergic to epinephrine, the drug being out of skin texture; and discoloration, including grays,
date and, according to local protocol, either the yellows, and blues.
medication is not prescribed for the patient or 130. Heat exhaustion is a form of shock. An active,
medical control denies permission to healthy individual can lose as much as a liter of
administer it.. fluid per hour through perspiration.
131. A diver ascending quickly from a dive is the
117. The dose is 0.3 mg. most common cause of decompression
118. Contraindications include altered mental sickness. Any sudden decrease in pressure can
be a cause.
status, ingestion of acids or alkalis, and the 132. First try to reach with your arm; then consider
inability to swallow. throwing a floating object or rope and towing
119. Find out the name of the substance involved, the victim out. Rowing to the victim would be
when the exposure occurred, how long the next. Remember: reach, throw, tow, row. Swim
exposure lasted, interventions taken, and effects only if you are a good swimmer and trained to
on the patient. do so.
120. The most commonly inhaled poison that is 133. Some medical problems include low blood
characterized by its lack of color, odor, and taste sugar, lack of oxygen, stroke, head trauma,
is carbon monoxide. drugs, and exposure to cold or heat.
121. Common signs and symptoms of carbon 134. The afterbirth describes the placenta, the
monoxide poisoning are headache, dizziness, membranes that are normally expelled after the
breathing difficulty, nausea, cyanosis, altered birth of the baby.
mental status, unconsciousness, and death.
Note: Despite commonly accepted ideas, cherry
red skin is not a common finding.

111

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 4–

135. Personal protection should include gloves, face 144. Compensated shock is when the body senses a
mask, eye shield, and gown. decrease in perfusion and compensates by
raising the heart rate and concentrating blood
136. Meconium staining refers to the discoloration flow to critical organs.
of the amniotic fluid. It is an indication of fetal
145. The golden period describes the ideal
distress during labor. maximum time from the time of injury to the
137. Symptoms of preeclampsia include high blood time corrective surgery takes place.

pressure, fluid retention, and headache. 146. Cardiogenic shock would be a contraindication
138. A premature infant is generally described as for the use of PASGs.

weighing less than 5.5 pounds or born within 147. Ten minutes is the maximum on-scene time for
a call involving serious trauma. This is also
37 weeks of pregnancy. referred to as the platinum ten minutes.
139. The placenta is delivered during the third stage
148. A collection of blood under the skin is called
of labor. hematoma. As much as a liter of blood can be
140. The patient should be transported on the left lost in a hematoma.

or right side to avoid supine hypotensive 149. Signs of a tension pneumothorax include
syndrome. difficulty breathing, signs of shock, distended
141. Place a tourniquet proximal to the injury and neck veins, tracheal deviation, and diminished
tighten the tourniquet until the bleeding stops. breath sounds on the affected side.
142. Three major types of shock are hypovolemic
shock, cardiogenic shock, and neurogenic 150. The body surface area is 18%, per the rule of
nines: chest (9%) + 1 arm (9%) = 18%.
shock.
143. Cool, pale, and sweaty skin is a typical

presentation of a patient in shock.

112

CHAPTER 6 EMT
PRACTICE EXAM 5

CHAPTER SUMMARY

This is the fifth of ten practice exams in this book based on the
National Registry’s EMT cognitive exam. See Chapter 1 for a
complete description of this exam.

Use this test to continue your study and practice. Notice how knowing what to expect on the exam
makes you feel better prepared!

Following the exam is an answer key, with all the answers explained. These explanations will
help you see where you need to concentrate further study. When you’ve finished the exam and scored it,
note your weaknesses so that you’ll know which parts of your textbook to concentrate on before you take
the next exam.

113

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–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

EMT Practice Exam 5 4. A burn that is characterized by pain, blisters,
and mottled skin is a
1. After the head emerges when delivering a baby, a. partial thickness burn.
you should b. superficial burn.
a. guide the head downward as the upper c. full thickness burn.
shoulder appears. d. subcutaneous burn.
b. suction the nostrils.
c. suction the mouth. 5. The upper chambers of the heart are the
d. feel at the neck to see if the umbilical cord is a. ventricles.
wrapped around it. b. myocardium.
c. septum.
2. You have delivered a neonatal patient and d. atria.
during your APGAR assessment you note the
patient has a score of five, with cyanosis in the 6. The left side of the heart receives blood from the
extremities with a weak respiratory effort, slow a. lungs.
respirations, and a brachial pulse of 80 bpm. b. pulmonary veins.
After additional suctioning you provide c. arteries.
assisted ventilations with a bag-valve mask. d. aorta.
After 30 seconds you reassess the patient and
find a brachial pulse of 40 and weak. Your 7. The body’s three-stage response to stress is
resuscitation efforts should now include which referred to as the
of the following? a. fight-or-flight response.
a. Continue bag-valve mask ventilations, insert b. general adaptation syndrome.
a BAID, and call for ALS c. critical incident stress management.
b. Continue bag-valve mask ventilations, begin d. physiological response.
chest compressions, and request ALS
c. Continue bag-valve mask ventilations for 8. The most effective way to control disease
another 30 seconds and reassess for transmission is by using
improvement in the pulse rate, request ALS a. universal precautions.
d. Begin chest compressions, apply the AED, b. body substance isolation.
and prepare to defibrillate c. proper hand-washing.
d. indirect contact.
3. You respond to a patient who has amputated
two digits. What should you do with the 9. If you suspect that your patient has
amputated digits? tuberculosis, you should
a. Place the digits on ice. a. wear a standard surgical mask when treating
b. Place the digits in a biohazard bag and keep the patient.
them cool with cold packs. b. place a HEPA respirator on the patient.
c. Place the digits in sterile saline. c. wear a HEPA respirator when treating the
d. Place the digits in a biohazard bag and patient.
dispose of them in the proper receptacle. d. transport the patient rapidly, with the
ambulance’s exhaust fan on high.

115

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

10. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide 15. An adult burn patient with circumferential
(respiration) occurs between the burns to his right arm, burns to the entire
a. Bronchioles and alveoli anterior aspect of his right leg, and burns to his
b. Alveoli and pulmonary capillaries genitals will have burns to a total body surface
c. Pulmonary capillaries and bronchioles area of
d. Pulmonary venules and alveoli a. 14.5%.
b. 19%.
11. What is a normal systolic blood pressure for a c. 23.5%.
2-year-old? d. 28%.
a. 80–100
b. 70–95 16. The sinoatrial node is located within the
c. 50–70 a. purkinje fibers.
d. 90–110 b. right atrium.
c. left atrium.
12. Cardiopulmonary arrest in children is most d. right ventricle.
commonly caused by
a. underlying cardiac disease. 17. Your patient has a pulse rate of 90, a blood
b. traumatic injuries. pressure of 132/80, and a stroke volume of 70.
c. child abuse. What is this patient’s cardiac output?
d. respiratory failure. a. 6,300
b. 630
13. The chain of survival involves which of the c. 7,200
following links, in order? d. 5,600
a. Early access, early defibrillation, early CPR,
and early ALS 18. Your patient complains of headache, stiff neck,
b. Early access, early CPR, early ALS, early fever, and has an altered mental status. You
defibrillation should suspect
c. Early access, early ALS, early CPR, early a. stroke.
defibrillation b. traumatic brain injury.
d. Early access, early CPR, early defibrillation, c. viral syndrome.
early ALS d. meningitis.

14. The manner in which you must act or behave is 19. The strength or ability of a pathogen to
called a produce a disease is
a. standard of care. a. transmission.
b. duty to act. b. virulence.
c. standing protocol. c. effectivity.
d. standard operating procedure. d. infectivity.

116 20. Which of the following is a definitive sign of
death?
a. no deep tendon or corneal reflexes
b. no systolic blood pressure
c. dependent lividity
d. lowered or decreased core temperature

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

21. If you extend your arm parallel to the ground, 27. The head accounts for what percentage of body
this movement is called surface area in a pediatric patient?
a. pronation. a. 9%
b. adduction. b. 4.5%
c. abduction. c. 14%
d. flexion. d. 18%

22. The lower airway begins with the 28. Your patient is a conscious, injured male, who
a. trachea. is in control of his own actions and refusing
b. bronchioles. care. You can treat this patient legally under
c. larynx. a. implied consent.
d. epiglottis. b. verbal consent.
c. expressed consent.
23. In an unconscious patient, the most common d. no circumstances.
airway obstruction is caused by
a. foreign objects. 29. You have used an EpiPen on a patient and have
b. the patient’s own tongue. NOT obtained consent prior to treatment. You
c. dentures. could be charged with
d. oral secretions. a. fraud.
b. battery.
24. A contraindication for inserting an c. forcible restraint.
oropharyngeal airway is that a patient d. negligence.
a. is unconscious.
b. is being ventilated with a BVM. 30. Which of the following is considered a high
c. requires airway suctioning. priority severe burn?
d. has an intact gag reflex. a. partial thickness burns affecting 15%–30%
of total body surface area
25. Your patient is an apneic child. How should b. full thickness burns affecting 3% of body
you ventilate this patient? surface area, excluding hands, face, genitals,
a. one breath per five to six seconds and upper airway
b. one breath per three to five seconds c. circumferential burns to the arm
c. one breath per five to eight seconds d. superficial burns affecting 40% of total body
d. none of the above surface area

26. The sudden blood loss of _______________ in 31. The valve that separates the right atrium from
a 1- to 8-year-old can be life threatening. the right ventricle is the
a. 1,000 cc a. bicuspid valve.
b. 200 cc b. tricuspid valve.
c. 1,200 cc c. aortic valve.
d. 500 cc d. pulmonic valve.

117

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

32. What are the only veins in the body that carry c. Request ALS, position of comfort, oxygen,
oxygenated blood? and contact medical control for aspirin and
a. vena cava nitroglycerin
b. pulmonary veins
c. venules d. Semi-Fowler’s position, oxygen, transport
d. peripheral veins
37. The spleen is located
33. Why is early CPR included in the chain of a. in the upper right quadrant.
survival for cardiac arrest? b. in the upper left quadrant.
a. CPR provides oxygen and nutrients to the c. retroperitoneal.
heart d. in the lower left quadrant.
b. CPR ascertains responsiveness
c. CPR focuses on ventilations and improves 38. You are treating a female patient who is nine
oxygenation of the lungs months pregnant and contractions are two
d. CPR jumpstarts the electrical system of the minutes apart and strong. She also states that
heart her water has broken and she has felt the baby
drop. You inspect for crowning and find one leg
34. Your patient has fractured her lower jawbone. protruding from the birth canal. How do you
This bone is known as the proceed with this birth?
a. mandible. a. Prepare a sterile area and continue with the
b. maxillae. birth, being careful not to pull on the
c. occiput. presenting part
d. zygoma. b. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg or
knee-to-chest position, advise her not to
35. A normal heart rate for an adolescent patient is push, and place your hand into the birth
a. 60–100. canal to relieve pressure on the limb
b. 90–150. c. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg or
c. 70–120. knee-to-chest position, cross her legs, advise
d. 80–110. her not to push, and transport her to the
hospital
36. You are treating a 58-year-old female patient d. Cover the limb with a sterile towel, place the
for cardiac related chest pain. The patient is patient in the Trendelenburg or knee-to-
conscious and alert and has the following vital chest position, encourage the patient not to
signs; P – 88, R – 20, BP – 132/84, skin is warm push, and transport to the hospital.
and dry, pupils are equal and reactive, and she
rates her pain an 8 out of 10. Your treatment 39. When suctioning a pediatric patient, you
will include which of the following? should suction
a. Request ALS, recovery position, oxygen, a. until the foreign body is removed.
aspirin, and assisting the pt. with b. until the return of spontaneous respirations.
nitroglycerin c. using only a French catheter.
b. Request ALS, position of comfort, aspirin, d. for only ten seconds at a time.
and contact medical control for
nitroglycerin

118

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

40. A nasal cannula will deliver approximately b. cover the area with a moistened, sterile
what amount of oxygen to a patient? dressing
a. 5%–30%
b. 24%–44% c. apply antibiotic ointment and cover with a
c. 10%–15% dry, sterile dressing
d. nearly 100%
d. use a needle to decompress the fluid-filled
41. What stage of labor begins with full dilation of blisters and apply a moistened, sterile
the cervix? dressing
a. pre-labor
b. first stage 46. Where do the coronary arteries originate?
c. second stage a. Apex of the heart
d. third stage b. Aortic arch
c. Terminus of the carotid arteries
42. If a newborn isn’t breathing immediately after d. Top of the left ventricle
birth or suctioning of the mouth and nose,
a. begin chest compressions. 47. What blood vessel transports blood from the
b. use a neonatal BVM and administer breaths left ventricle in order to begin systemic
at a rate of 40–60 per minute. circulation?
c. give tactile stimulation. a. left pulmonary artery
d. invert the newborn and slap his or her b. aorta
buttocks. c. right pulmonary artery
d. superior vena cava
43. Good Samaritan laws protect EMT-Bs from a
lawsuit 48. After the contraction of the right ventricle,
a. only if proper care is provided. blood enters the
b. as long as willful negligence is not proven. a. aorta.
c. as long as the EMT-B does not act outside b. left atrium.
his or her scope of practice. c. pulmonary artery.
d. None of the above. d. pulmonary vein.

44. The action of nitroglycerin in the treatment of 49. A patient who is found lying facedown is in
cardiac chest pain is what position?
a. to dilate the coronary blood vessels. a. Fowler’s
b. to constrict coronary blood vessels. b. semi-Fowler’s
c. to decrease blood pressure. c. prone
d. to reduce pain. d. supine

45. What would be the appropriate treatment of a 50. The gallbladder is located in the
partial thickness burn to the back with an 18% a. lower right quadrant.
body surface area? b. upper right quadrant.
a. cover the burned area with a dry, sterile c. lower left quadrant.
dressing d. upper left quadrant.

119

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

51. The external visible part of the ear is the 56. What is the most common cause of wheezing
a. earlobe. in pediatric patients?
b. pinna. a. pneumonia
c. external auditory meatus. b. pulmonary contusion
d. mastoid process. c. upper-airway obstruction
d. asthma
52. The spinal column is divided into how many
sections? 57. When you and your partner arrive to a medical
a. four call that is only five minutes from the hospital,
b. three the patient is walking toward the ambulance.
c. five What should be your first course of action?
d. six a. initial assessment
b. focused history and physical exam
53. You are treating a patient in respiratory arrest c. detailed physical exam
and have applied an automatic transport d. scene size-up
ventilator (ATV). As you continue care for the
patient you note that the patient is becoming 58. The build-up of fatty deposits, which can
more cyanotic and chest rise and fall have damage the walls of the arteries, is called?
become inadequate. What is your next course a. Arterial aneurysm
of action? b. Thromboembolism
a. Check the ATV for the proper settings c. Atherosclerosis
b. Check the oxygen level of the ATV d. Hyperlipidemia
c. Begin manual bag-valve mask ventilations
d. Reassess the airway 59. A hazardous Class 7 indicates
a. flammable materials.
54. Painful bleeding in late pregnancy that is b. toxic materials.
caused by the placenta prematurely separating c. corrosive materials.
from the uterine wall is called d. radioactive materials.
a. placenta previa.
b. eclampsia. 60. Full thickness burns are characterized by
c. abruptio placenta. a. blisters.
d. spontaneous abortion. b. redness and pain.
c. a dry, leathery appearance.
55. Which of the following is an accurate indicator d. mottled skin.
of oxygenation and ventilation in a pediatric
patient? 61. At an MCI, a pediatric patient who is breathing
a. work of breathing independently at a rate of 12 breaths per
b. respiratory rate minute should be tagged with what color using
c. breath sounds the Jump-Start system?
d. pulse oximeter reading a. green
b. yellow
c. red
d. black

120

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

62. What is the best way to immobilize a hip 68. What allows for the exchange of waste and
fracture? nutrients at the cellular level?
a. Apply a traction splint. a. venules
b. Place the patient in a position of comfort. b. mitochondria
c. Use a long spine board with padding placed c. capillaries
under the knees. d. platelets
d. Apply a rigid splint to the lower extremity of
the side that is affected. 69. What is a condition of insufficient oxygen that
can cause chest pain or discomfort?
63. After safety, what is the first priority when a. hypercarbia
rendering treatment to a burn patient? b. hypocarbia
a. maintaining a sterile field c. hypoxia
b. stopping the burning process d. ischemia
c. pain management
d. transport decision 70. Disorganized quivering of the ventricles is
called
64. What is the proper order for securing a patient a. atrial fibrillation.
to a long spine board? b. ventricular fibrillation.
a. head, torso, extremities c. asystole.
b. head, extremities, torso d. atrial flutter.
c. torso, head, extremities
d. torso, extremities, head 71. Treatment of a patient in cardiogenic shock
should include
65. At what point should you assess circulation, a. defibrillation.
sensation, and movement when using a short b. cardioversion.
spine board? c. preservation of body heat.
a. before the device is applied d. compressions.
b. after the device is completely secured
c. before padding the voids 72. The collection of fluid in a body part that is
d. both a and b closest to the ground is called
a. pulmonary edema.
66. The blood vessels that supply blood to the b. dependent edema.
heart muscle are the c. dependent lividity.
a. coronary arteries. d. congestive edema.
b. coronary capillaries.
c. pulmonary veins. 73. The upper section of the sternum is called the
d. pulmonary arteries. a. angle of Louis.
b. manubrium.
67. What arteries supply the head and brain with c. xiphoid process.
blood? d. thoracic cage.
a. peripheral
b. carotid
c. coronary
d. brachial

121

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

74. The depression in which the femoral head fits 79. How do you measure the nasopharyngeal
into is called the airway size needed prior to placement?
a. iliac crest. a. Measure from the tip of the nose to the
b. acetabulum. angle of the jaw.
c. ischium. b. Measure from the tip of the nose to the
d. greater trochanter. earlobe.
c. Measure from the corner of the mouth to
75. The small, lower extremity bone that lies on the the angle of the jaw.
lateral side of the leg is the d. Measure from the tip of the nose to the top
a. fibula. of the ear.
b. tibia.
c. patella. 80. You are assessing a patient who is complaining
d. lateral malleolus. of respiratory distress. You note the patient is
sitting upright and is using her accessory
76. The Sellick’s maneuver may be helpful when muscles to facilitate breathing. The patient is
performed during which of the following cyanotic around the lips, you note she is
interventions? producing frothy sputum, and she has swelling
a. When the patient begins to vomit in her ankles. You listen to breath sounds and
b. When assisting the paramedic with hear wheezing in all the lower lobes and
orotracheal intubation crackles in the upper lobes. This patient is
c. When assisting ventilations in a conscious exhibiting signs and symptoms related to?
patient a. Congestive heart failure
d. When used in conjunction with a BVM b. Asthma
c. Emphysema
77. When you arrive at the residence of a patient d. Anaphylaxis
who has a possible airway obstruction, you
notice that the patient is coughing forcefully. 81. Expiratory grunting in a pediatric patient is
Bystanders state that he was chewing a piece of indicative of which of the following?
steak, laughed, and then began coughing. Your a. An upper-airway obstruction
next action should be to b. Inflammation of the glottis
a. start performing abdominal thrusts (i.e., the c. Collapsing alveoli
Heimlich maneuver). d. Partially blocked small airways
b. attempt to remove the object manually.
c. tell the patient to extend his arms over his 82. The third stage of labor is complete when
head. a. the baby is born.
d. monitor the patient closely and encourage b. contractions begin.
him to continue coughing. c. contractions cease.
d. the placenta delivers.
78. Which type of breathing is characterized by
irregular respirations followed by a period of 83. What term is used to describe the number of
apnea? viable births?
a. Kussmaul’s respirations a. gravid
b. agonal respirations b. multigravida
c. retractions c. para
d. Cheyne-Stokes respirations d. premipara

122

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

84. An umbilical cord that is wrapped around an b. placing sterile gauze into the nostrils and
infant’s neck is called a patient leaning forward.
a. prolapsed cord.
b. granulomar umbilicus. c. sterile gauze at the nostrils, patient sitting
c. umbilical hernia. forward, oxygen, request ALS.
d. nuchal cord.
d. sterile gauze at the nostrils, Semi-Fowler’s
85. When triaging at an MCI, the maximum position, transport.
number of seconds that should be spent
assessing each patient is 88. You respond to a residence and find an elderly
a. 30 seconds. male in cardiac arrest. His caregiver states that
b. 15 seconds. she remembers seeing a DNR and is going to
c. 10 seconds. look for it. What should you do?
d. 60 seconds. a. Wait for the caregiver to return with the
proper documentation before rendering
86. Cardiac chest pain is caused by decreased treatment.
oxygen supply to the myocardium. As this b. Contact the patient’s physician.
conditions progresses, the myocardium c. Begin CPR.
becomes irritated and may cause electrical d. Advise the police and have them determine
impulses to originate in areas of the heart the next step.
remote from the SA Node. One of these
rhythms that originates in the ventricles and is 89. The bottom quadrant of the diamond-shaped
rapid (< 100 bpm), organized, and does not NFPA symbol contains information about any
allow adequate filling of the ventricles is called a. health hazards.
a. sinus tachycardia. b. special hazards.
b. ventricular fibrillation. c. reactivity.
c. premature ventricular contractions. d. fire hazards.
d. ventricular tachycardia.
90. You are dispatched to a call for an unconscious
87. You are dispatched to a patient with a patient. You arrive on scene and find a 6-year-
nosebleed. Upon your arrival you find a patient old child unresponsive with gasping
complaining of a nosebleed. You begin to respirations. You immediately check for a pulse
gather the patient’s history and find the patient and find a weak carotid pulse at a rate of 52.
has no medical history and no allergies. As you Your treatment should include which of the
collect information on his current condition following?
the patient also states having a ringing in his a. Open the airway, high-flow oxygen via NRB,
ears and a headache. Vital signs include a pulse request ALS
of 88 strong and bounding, blood pressure is b. Open the airway, assist ventilations with a
172/102, respirations are 20, skin is warm and BVM, begin chest compressions, request ALS
dry, and the pupils are equal and reactive. Your c. Open the airway, low-flow oxygen via NC,
treatment of this patient should include and request ALS
a. pinching of the nostrils at the septum and d. Open the airway, assist ventilations with a
patient sitting forward. BVM, and request ALS

123

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

91. What is the definitive care for decompression 97. The common dosage for the administration of
sickness? acetylsalicylic acid in a cardiac emergency is
a. High-flow oxygen a. 81 mg PO
b. Epinephrine b. 324 mg PO
c. Cath lab c. 81 mg IO
d. Hyperbaric chamber d. 324 g PO

92. Who should direct the movement of a patient 98. Nitroglycerine is supplied in which of the
when a spinal injury is suspected? following forms?
a. the crew leader a. sublingual tablets
b. the rescuer who is positioned at the head b. transdermal patches
c. the rescuer who is positioned at the feet c. sublingual spray
d. the first rescuer on scene d. all of the above

93. Which of the following is a sign of a superficial 99. The bones that make up the toes are the
local cold injury? a. tarsals.
a. swelling b. metatarsals.
b. loss of feeling and sensation in the injury c. phalanges.
area d. carpals.
c. blisters
d. white, waxy skin 100. The fibrous tissues that connect bone to
bone are
94. What section of the vertebral column is most a. ligaments.
susceptible to injury? b. tendons.
a. cervical spine c. joints.
b. lumbar spine d. skeletal muscles.
c. thoracic spine
d. coccyx 101. Which part of the nervous system regulates
activities in which there is voluntary control,
95. A condition where severe force or weight is such as talking, walking, etc.?
placed upon the thorax, forcing blood from the a. voluntary nervous system
right atrium into the circulation of the head b. somatic nervous system
and neck, is c. automatic nervous system
a. a hemothorax. d. central nervous system
b. pericardial tamponade.
c. traumatic asphyxia. 102. Which of the following is the largest part of the
d. tension pneumothorax. brain?
a. brain stem
96. If a cold injury appears to be deep, you should b. cerebellum
NOT c. cerebrum
a. splint the injury. d. cerebrospinal fluid
b. cover the injury.
c. remove jewelry.
d. rewarm the injury.

124

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

103. A patient suffering from heatstroke will 108. What is the passive part of breathing?
typically have what symptoms? a. respiration
a. cool, diaphoretic, pale skin b. inhalation
b. hot, dry, flushed skin c. exhalation
c. normal-colored, warm, diaphoretic skin d. ventilation
d. none of the above
109. A pregnant female should be transported
104. Your patient has had a previous laryngectomy, a. supine.
is conscious, atraumatic, and has agonal b. left lateral recumbent.
respirations. He is lying supine on the floor. c. in a semi-Fowler’s position.
How would you ventilate this patient? d. in Trendelenburg.
a. Use an adult-sized mask directly over the
stoma and ventilate with a BVM, using a 110. When suctioning an infant, do NOT suction
hand to seal the patient’s nose and mouth. for more than
b. Use head-tilt/chin-lift and a BVM. a. 5 seconds.
c. Insert an ET tube directly into the stoma b. 10 seconds.
and ventilate using a BVM. c. 15 seconds.
d. Use an infant- or child-sized mask, make a d. 30 seconds.
seal over the stoma, ventilate with a BVM,
and use a hand to seal the patient’s nose and 111. To suction the nose of a newborn, it is
mouth. recommended to use a
a. French catheter.
105. What is the normal tidal volume of the bag of b. bulb syringe.
an adult BVM device? c. rigid tip.
a. 800–1,200 mL d. oxygen-powered device.
b. 500–700 mL
c. 500–1,200 mL 112. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn at
d. 1,200–1,600 mL rest is
a. 60–80.
106. What method delivers the highest tidal volume b. 40–70.
to a patient? c. 30–60.
a. BVM-to-face d. 20–30.
b. mouth-to-mask
c. blow by O2 113. When parking at the scene of a motor vehicle
d. nebulizer crash, an ambulance should be parked
a. in front of the collision.
107. Which of the following is a contraindication b. 100 feet away from the collision.
for an oxygen-powered ventilation device? c. behind the collision.
a. CHF d. downwind.
b. respiratory arrest
c. COPD
d. respiratory distress

125

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

114. You and your partner arrive on the scene and 119. Your patient is complaining of dyspnea and
find a 44-year-old male patient who presents you notice paradoxical movement upon
unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Your care inspiration and expiration. What does this
for this patient should include indicate?
a. two minutes of starting CPR, application of a. pneumothorax
an AED, defibrillate if indicated, and b. tension pneumothorax
immediately resume CPR post defibrillation. c. flail chest
b. two minutes of CPR, application of the AED, d. umbilical hernia
defibrillate if indicated, reassess the patient,
and continue CPR or post-resuscitation care. 120. Which of the following is a sign that a patient is
c. apply the AED, defibrillate if indicated, NOT getting an adequate amount of oxygen?
reassess the patient and begin CPR if a. The patient is coughing.
indicated. b. The patient is sitting forward.
d. apply the AED, defibrillate if indicated, and c. The patient has an increased respiratory
immediately begin CPR post defibrillation. rate.
d. The patient states that he feels short of
115. What should be applied to an evisceration? breath.
a. moistened, sterile dressing
b. dry, sterile dressing Answers
c. pressure dressing
d. moistened bandage 1. d. When delivering an infant, feel around the
baby’s neck after the head emerges to deter-
116. If a patient sustains a brain injury in the mine if the cord is wrapped around it. This
temporal region, she may develop problems situation, called a nuchal cord, is extremely
with dangerous for the baby and can cause stran-
a. memory. gulation or brain damage. The cord must be
b. vision. released from around the neck immediately.
c. sensory functions.
d. emotions. 2. b. During the resuscitation of a depressed new-
born efforts are focused on suctioning, dry-
117. Why is an occlusive dressing applied to a ing, stimulating, warming, and providing
sucking chest wound? supplemental oxygen. Few neonates will
a. to control bleeding require assisted ventilations and even fewer
b. to seal the wound, preventing air from going will require chest compressions or ALS. The
into the chest cavity neonate whose pulse rate drops below 60 bpm
c. to prevent infection during resuscitative efforts requires chest
d. none of the above compressions and ALS should be requested as
advanced interventions may be required.
118. What are the principle signs of hypovolemic
shock? 3. b. Amputated digits should be placed in a bio-
a. normal blood pressure and rapid, weak pulse hazard bag and cold packs should be placed
b. low blood pressure and bounding pulse outside of the bag to keep them cold. Never
c. low blood pressure and normal pulse
d. low blood pressure and rapid, weak pulse

126

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

submerge an amputated part or place it 16. b. The sinoatrial (SA) node is located within
directly on ice, as damage to the tissue can the right atrium.
occur.
4. a. A burn that is characterized by pain, blisters, 17. a. The patient’s cardiac output is 6,300. The
and mottled skin is a partial thickness burn. equation for calculating cardiac output is
5. d. The upper right and left chambers of the stroke volume multiplied by heart rate. The
heart are the atria. blood pressure is not necessary for this cal-
6. a. The left side of the heart receives oxygenated culation.
blood from the lungs through the pulmo-
nary veins. 18. d. If a patient has a headache, altered mental
7. b. The body’s three-stage response to stress is status, and a fever, meningitis should be sus-
referred to as general adaptation syndrome. pected.
8. c. The most effective way to control disease
transmission is by proper hand-washing. 19. b. Virulence is the strength or ability of a
9. c. If you suspect that your patient has tubercu- pathogen to produce a disease.
losis, you should wear a HEPA respirator
when treating the patient. 20. c. Dependent lividity is a definitive sign of
10. b. Respiration takes place between the alveoli death.
and pulmonary capillaries. The capillaries’
size only allows one red blood cell through at 21. c. Abduction is motion away from the midline.
a time and the thinness of the walls allows 22. c. The lower airway begins with the larynx.
the carbon dioxide to leave the red blood cell 23. b. The most common airway obstruction in the
and cross into the alveoli, as oxygen diffuses
across the wall from the alveoli to the capil- unconscious patient is his or her own
laries and attaches to red blood cells. tongue.
11. a. The normal systolic blood pressure for 24. d. A patient with an intact gag reflex is a con-
a 2-year-old child ranges from 80 to traindication for inserting an oropharyngeal
100 mm Hg. airway. If your patient does have an intact
12. d. Cardiopulmonary arrest in children is most gag reflex and you choose to use an airway
commonly caused by respiratory failure. adjunct, insert a nasopharyngeal airway.
13. d. The correct order for the chain of survival 25. b. An apneic child should be ventilated with
begins with access, then CPR, then defibrilla- one breath every three to five seconds.
tion, and finally early ALS. 26. d. The sudden blood loss of 500 cc in a 1- to
14. a. The manner in which you must act or 8-year-old child can be life threatening.
behave is called the standard of care. 27. d. The head accounts for 18% of body surface
15. b. This patient has burns to 19% of his body area in a pediatric patient.
surface area. This was calculated by adding 28. d. This patient may not be treated. If an adult
9% for the total right arm, 9% for the ante- patient is alert, oriented, and competent, he
rior aspect of his right leg, and 1% for burns has the right to refuse care. You must have
to his genitals. proper documentation and inform the
patient of the benefits of care and the risks
of refusal.
29. b. If treatment is rendered without a patient’s
consent, it is considered battery on the
patient.

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30. c. Circumferential burns to any extremity are 40. b. A nasal cannula will deliver approximately
considered a high priority and require trans- 24% to 44% of oxygen to a patient.
port to a burn center if available.
41. c. The second stage of labor begins with the
31. b. The tricuspid valve is the valve that is full dilation of the cervix.
between the right atrium and the right
ventricle. 42. c. If a newborn isn’t breathing immediately
after birth or suctioning to the mouth and
32. b. The only veins in the body that carry oxy- nose, give tactile stimulation by either drying
genated blood are the pulmonary veins. All the baby, rubbing the back, or flicking the
other veins carry deoxygenated blood back feet.
to the heart.
43. d. Good Samaritan laws do not protect you
33. a. Although chest compressions only provide from being sued; they only provide an affir-
approximately one-third the circulation of a mative defense if you are sued. They will also
perfusing rhythm, they do improve oxygen- only protect you when you exercise due care
ation and increase the stores of energy in the and do not deviate from the standard of
heart, which makes the heart more apt to care.
convert into a perfusing rhythm once defi-
brillation is performed. 44. a. Nitroglycerin’s action is to dilate the coro-
nary blood vessels, to increase oxygen supply
34. a. The mandible is the lower jawbone. to the myocardium. A side effect is a possible
35. a. A normal heart rate for an adolescent patient decrease in blood pressure and the increase
in oxygenation may relieve pain, but nitro-
is 60 to 100 beats per minute. glycerin is not a pain reliever.
36. c. A patient believed to be suffering from car-
45. a. Burns greater than 15% body surface area
diac chest pain requires ALS intervention should be covered with a dry, sterile dressing
and medications allowed by medical control. to reduce the amount of body heat that is
Always remember basic medications and lost.
oxygen while considering ALS interventions.
37. b. The spleen is located in the upper left 46. b. The coronary arteries begin at the aortic
quadrant. arch. They are the first arteries to branch off
38. d. You should cover the presenting part with a of the aorta. The heart receives its blood sup-
sterile towel, place the patient in a position ply from the coronary arteries, which branch
that relieves pressure on the limb, and trans- into the left and right coronary arteries.
port to the hospital. Limb presentations can-
not be delivered in the field and will most 47. b. The aorta transports blood from the left ven-
likely require a Cesarean section. Do not tricle out to the systemic circulation.
place your hand into the birth canal, have
the patient cross her legs, or attempt to 48. c. After the contraction of the right ventricle,
deliver the baby. blood enters the pulmonary artery to reach
39. d. Pediatric patients should only be suctioned the lung.
for ten seconds at a time. Suctioning longer
than ten seconds can cause hypoxia. 49. c. A patient who is lying facedown is in the
prone position.

50. b. The gallbladder is located in the upper right
quadrant.

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–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

51. b. The external, visible part of the ear is the should be tagged with a red triage tag, due to
pinna. the decreased respiratory rate.
62. c. The best way to immobilize and splint a hip
52. c. The spinal column is divided into five sec- fracture is to place the patient on a long
tions: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and spine board and place padding under the
coccyx. knees.
63. b. After scene safety and BSI, it is important to
53. d. Whenever there is deterioration in a patient’s stop the burning process in the burn patient.
respiratory status the EMT must reassess all 64. d. The proper order of securing a patient to a
their interventions to ensure they are still long spine board is to secure the torso first,
adequate. This always begins with reassessing followed by the extremities, and finally the
the patency of the airway. If the airway is head.
clear, the EMT should immediately begin 65. d. When using a short spine board, circulation,
bag-valve mask ventilations and then check sensation, and movement should be assessed
the ATV for any malfunctions that could be prior to and after the application of the
remedied. One disadvantage of the ATV is device.
that it will not function if the oxygen level in 66. a. The blood vessels that supply blood to the
the supply cylinder gets low. myocardium are the coronary arteries.
67. b. The carotid arteries supply the head and
54. c. Painful bleeding late in pregnancy that is brain with blood.
caused by the placenta prematurely separat- 68. c. Capillaries allow for the exchange of waste
ing from the uterine wall is called abruptio and nutrients at the cellular level.
placenta. 69. d. Ischemia is a condition of insufficient oxy-
gen that can cause chest pain or discomfort.
55. a. The best indicator for assessing the oxygen- 70. b. Ventricular fibrillation is disorganized quiv-
ation and ventilation in a pediatric patient is ering of the ventricles.
his or her work of breathing. 71. c. Preservation of body heat should be
included in the treatment for cardiogenic
56. d. The most common cause for wheezing in the shock.
pediatric patient is asthma. 72. b. Dependent edema is the collection of fluid in
the body part that is closest to the ground.
57. d. Regardless of the transport time, always size 73. b. The upper section of the sternum is called
up a scene upon arrival to ensure your safety the manubrium.
and the safety of other personnel. 74. b. The acetabulum is the depression in which
the femoral head fits.
58. c. The build-up of fatty deposits that damages 75. a. The fibula is the small, lower extremity bone
the inner lining of the arteries is called ath- that lies on the lateral side of the leg.
erosclerosis. This damage can lead to throm- 76. b. The use of the Sellick’s maneuver (cricoid
boembolism, and hyperlipidemia is a risk pressure) is no longer recommended during
factor for atherosclerosis.

59. d. A hazardous Class 7 indicates the presence of
radioactive materials.

60. c. Full thickness burns are characterized by a
dry, leathery appearance.

61. c. A pediatric patient who is breathing inde-
pendently at a rate of 12 breaths per minute

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–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

artificial ventilations. It is contraindicated 87. c. The patient presents with a nosebleed, but
when a patient is vomiting and when used the additional information gathered in the
the patient must be unconscious. Its current history taking and physical exam reveals the
recommendations are limited to assisting patient may be having a hypertensive emer-
paramedics with orotracheal intubation. gency, and therefore oxygen and ALS are
77. d. If the patient has a mild airway obstruction, indicated.
he will be able to cough forcefully. If he is
able to move air, talk, or cough, continue to 88. c. Do not delay CPR if a DNR is not readily
allow him to cough and do not interfere with available or if there is any question as to its
his own efforts to expel the object. existence.
78. d. Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized
by irregular respirations followed by a period 89. b. The bottom quadrant of the diamond-
of apnea. shaped NFPA symbol contains information
79. b. To choose the appropriate sized nasopharyn- about any special hazards.
geal airway for a patient, measure from the
tip of the nose to the earlobe. 90. b. Children between one and eight years of age
80. a. This patient is exhibiting classic signs of and infants require chest compressions if
CHF. The wheezing in the lower lobes is pos- they are not breathing adequately and have a
sibly due to the extreme narrowing of the pulse less than 60 bpm.
bronchiole space from excess fluid.
81. c. Expiratory grunting in a pediatric patient is 91. d. A patient suffering from decompression
an attempt to keep the alveoli open. sickness will need treatment in a hyperbaric
82. d. The third stage of delivery is complete when chamber after they are stabilized.
the placenta delivers.
83. c. Para is the term that is used to describe the 92. b. The rescuer who is positioned at the head
total number of viable births that a mother should direct the movement of a patient
has had. when a spinal injury is suspected.
84. d. An umbilical cord that is wrapped around
an infant’s neck is called a nuchal cord. 93. b. Loss of feeling and sensation is a sign of a
85. a. When triaging at an MCI, no more than superficial local cold injury.
30 seconds should be spent assessing each
patient. 94. a. The cervical spine is the section of the verte-
86. d. The rhythm that originates in the ventricles, bral column that is the most susceptible to
is greater than 100 bpm, and does not allow injury.
the ventricles to adequately fill with blood is
ventricular tachycardia. Any sinus rhythm 95. c. Traumatic asphyxia is a condition where
begins in the atria, ventricular fibrillation is severe force or weight is placed upon the
unorganized, and premature ventricular thorax, forcing blood from the right atrium
contractions are extra beats usually within a into the circulation of the head and neck.
sinus rhythm.
96. d. If a cold injury appears to be deep, you
130 should not reheat the injured part.

97. b. The common dosage for the administration
of acetylsalicylic acid in a cardiac emergency
is 324 mg by mouth (PO).

98. d. Nitroglycerine is supplied as sublingual tab-
lets, sublingual spray, transdermal patches,
and cream or ointment.

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 5–

99. c. The bones that make up the toes are 113. b. When parking at the scene of a motor vehi-
phalanges. cle crash, the ambulance should be parked at
least 100 feet away from the collision.
100. a. Ligaments are the fibrous tissues that con-
nect bone to bone. 114. a. This is an unwitnessed arrest and therefore
initiation of CPR is indicated prior to the use
101. b. The somatic nervous system regulates the of the AED. You should also immediately
activities in which there is voluntary control. resume CPR post defibrillation. It is no lon-
ger recommended to assess the patient post
102. c. The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain. defibrillation as the rhythm generally does not
103. b. A patient suffering from a heatstroke will recover to an adequately perfusing rhythm
immediately after defibrillation.
typically have symptoms of hot, dry, flushed
skin. 115. a. A moistened, sterile dressing should be
104. d. A patient with a stoma should be ventilated applied to an evisceration.
by using an infant- or child-sized mask,
making a seal over the stoma, and ventilating 116. a. If a patient sustains a brain injury in the
with a BVM while maintaining a seal over temporal region, she may develop problems
the patient’s mouth and nose. with memory.
105. d. The normal tidal volume of the bag of an
adult BVM device is 1,200–1,600 mL. 117. b. An occlusive dressing is applied to a sucking
106. b. Mouth-to-mask delivers the highest tidal chest wound to seal it, preventing air from
volume to a patient. entering the pleural cavity.
107. c. COPD is a contraindication for an oxygen-
powered ventilation device. 118. d. The principle signs of hypovolemic shock
108. c. Exhalation is the passive part of breathing. are a rapid, weak pulse and low blood pres-
109. b. A pregnant female should be transported left sure.
lateral recumbent to keep the baby posi-
tioned away from the inferior vena cave. 119. c. Paradoxical movement in the chest upon
110. a. When suctioning an infant, suction for no inspiration and expiration is indicative of a
more than five seconds. flail chest.
111. b. A bulb syringe should be used to suction the
nose of a newborn. 120. c. If a patient has an increased respiratory rate,
112. c. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn at it is a sign that the patient is not getting an
rest is 30 to 60. adequate amount of oxygen.

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CHAPTER 7 EMT
PRACTICE EXAM 6

CHAPTER SUMMARY

This is the sixth of ten practice exams in this book based on
the National Registry’s EMT cognitive exam. Use this test to
continue your study and practice. Notice how knowing what to
expect on the exam makes you feel better prepared!

Like the other tests in this book, this test is based on the National Registry’s cognitive exam for EMT
Exams. See Chapter 1 for a complete description of the exam.
Following the exam is an answer key, with explanations that will help you see where you need to
concentrate your studies. When you’ve finished this exam and scored it, note your weaknesses, so you’ll know
what parts of your textbook to concentrate on before you take the next exam.

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–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 6–

EMT Practice Exam 6 6. A fracture in which the bone is broken into
more than two fragments is a(n)
1. What is the most common cause of seizures in a. comminuted fracture.
the pediatric patient? b. greenstick fracture.
a. fever c. pathologic fracture.
b. head trauma d. epiphysical fracture.
c. hypoxia
d. brain tumor 7. Your patient is a young male who appears to
have a dislocated patella. How should you
2. Which of the following is a risk factor for SIDS? splint this injury?
a. mother older than 40-years-old a. in a position of comfort
b. infant who was recently diagnosed with an b. straighten the leg, then splint with a rigid
upper respiratory infection splint
c. infant with poor hygiene c. splint in the position found
d. mother who smoked during pregnancy d. none of the above

3. The logistics function of the Incident 8. A traumatic injury caused by fragments will
Command System includes most likely occur in what blast phase?
a. providing resources. a. tertiary
b. providing support to meet the incident b. primary
needs. c. secondary
c. providing all services to support the d. none of the above
incident.
d. all of the above. 9. What is most important when assessing for
injuries sustained from a fall?
4. Who is the only person authorized to release a. the patient’s height
information to the media after approval by the b. the height of the fall
incident commander is given? c. the patient’s weight
a. liaison officer d. previous injuries
b. public information officer
c. logistics officer 10. After the administration of nitroglycerine,
d. highest-ranking officer on the scene blood pressure should be taken within
________ minutes after each dose.
5. Radio communications on an MCI or multi- a. 5
system response incident should use b. 10
a. radio codes. c. 15
b. ten codes. d. 2
c. numerical signals.
d. clear text.

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–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 6–

11. The upper airway includes which of the 15. A body temperature of what degree and higher
following structures? is considered to be abnormal?
a. Nose, nasopharynx, mouth, oropharynx, a. 99.9°F
carina, and larynx b. 100.0°F
b. Mouth, oropharynx, tongue, larynx, and c. 100.4°F
trachea d. 100.9°F
c. Nasopharynx, tongue, oropharynx, and
bronchus 16. What component in the blood contains
d. Nasopharynx, tongue, oropharynx, and hemoglobin?
larynx a. white blood cells
b. platelets
12. Where are the central chemoreceptors involved c. plasma
in controlling breathing located? d. red blood cells
a. The aortic arch
b. The cerebrum 17. How much blood loss can occur with a femur
c. The medulla oblongata fracture?
d. The cerebellum a. 500 to 1,000 cc
b. 500 to 750 cc
13. You have responded to a call for a patient with c. 1,000 to 2,000 cc
respiratory distress. Your patient states a history d. 1,000 to 3,000 cc
of asthma and states her distress began during
exercise. The patient states she is also feeling 18. In the late stages of decompensated shock, the
weak and lightheaded and her inhaler is in her body will have a(n) _______________ in
purse. Your assessment reveals diffuse wheezing blood pressure and the pulse will
upon auscultation and the following vital signs: _________________.
P – 112, R – 26 shallow and labored, BP – 122/84, a. increase, decrease
skin is warm and dry. Per medical control you b. decrease, decrease
are preparing to assist the patient with her c. decrease, increase
MDI. What are the contraindications to the use d. increase, increase
of the MDI?
a. The medication is prescribed to the patient. 19. The type of amnesia where the patient is not
b. The patient has a history of asthma. able to recall events that have happened after a
c. The medication is expired. traumatic injury or event is
d. Medical control has been consulted. a. retrograde amnesia.
b. intermittent amnesia.
14. Blood occupies what percentage of the c. false amnesia.
cranium? d. anterograde amnesia.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 80%
d. 15%

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–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 6–

20. Your patient is found lying unconscious on the 25. When assessing a central pulse in a pediatric
sidewalk. No obvious trauma is noted. How patient with a weak pulse, check the
should you open the patient’s airway? __________ pulse if the patient is older than
a. head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver one year.
b. jaw-thrust maneuver a. brachial
c. using the forefinger and thumb in a b. carotid
crossover motion c. radial
d. none of the above d. popliteal

21. The correct way to select the size of a 26. To mount a car seat in an ambulance, place the
nasopharyngeal airway is to measure car seat
a. from the corner of the mouth to the angle of a. in the front seat of the ambulance.
the jaw. b. on the bench seat.
a. from the earlobe to the corner of the jaw. c. on the stretcher.
a. from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. d. None of the above.
a. from the chin to the Adam’s apple.
27. The scene size-up should include
22. What causes the high-pitched sound in a. the number of injuries, if known.
wheezing? b. the surrounding buildings’ addresses.
a. foreign body c. the number of law enforcement on the
b. narrowing of the airways scene.
c. a fall in carbon dioxide levels d. none of the above.
d. mucous in the airways
28. You are treating a conscious patient with a
23. When assessing breathing, look for complete foreign-body airway obstruction.
a. Rate, length, rhythm, strength During your attempts to relieve the obstruction
b. Rate, strength, effort, duration the patient becomes unconscious. You should
c. Rate, length, rhythm, depth a. reassess the airway and if still obstructed
d. Rate, rhythm, depth, effort begin CPR.
b. call for an ALS unit as backup.
24. You respond to a child with unknown c. request medical direction for further
respiratory problems. You find that the child instructions.
has a tracheostomy tube and is on a ventilator. d. reassess the airway and if still obstructed
The ventilator is malfunctioning. You should begin series of five abdominal thrusts.
a. reset the ventilator settings.
b. disconnect the ventilator and ventilate the 29. A patient with repetitive questioning after a
child using a BVM connected to a traffic accident most likely has a
tracheostomy tube. a. cerebral hemorrhage.
c. contact medical control. b. skull fracture.
d. suction the airway. c. concussion.
d. herniation.

137

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 6–

30. What should be the next step in your 36. You are assessing a male patient with an altered
assessment if a significant mechanism of injury level of consciousness. The patient is talking in
is found? confused statements and your physical exam
a. focused trauma assessment has revealed the following vital signs and
b. baseline vital signs physical findings: P – 112, BP – 118/76, R – 18
c. rapid trauma assessment regular, pupils are equal and reactive, and skin
d. detailed physical exam is cool and clammy. You find no signs of
trauma and the patient has a medic alert
31. In the mnemonic DCAP-BTLS, what does the bracelet indicating he is a diabetic. Bystanders
letter B stand for? state the patient was working and suddenly
a. bruising became disoriented. This patient is most likely
b. burns suffering from
c. breathing a. hypoglycemia.
d. Battle’s sign b. hyperglycemia.
c. head injury.
32. When you find a patient facedown in water, d. cerebral vascular accident.
you should position yourself
a. beside the patient. 37. What is the artery that is located in the upper
b. at the head. arm and is palpated in infants to determine a
c. at the feet. pulse?
d. None of the above. a. radial artery
b. popliteal artery
33. Low blood flow to the coronary arteries of the c. femoral artery
heart is usually caused by d. brachial artery
a. hypovolemia.
b. anemia. 38. What is the condition when a diver starts acting
c. ischemia. strangely and out of character after diving too
d. atherosclerosis. deeply or for too long?
a. diving response
34. The heart has ____________ chambers. b. mammalian diving reflex
a. four c. decompression sickness
b. three d. nitrogen narcosis
c. two
d. five 39. The presence of hypothermia is best
determined by measuring the patient’s:
35. Blood from the abdomen, legs, and kidneys is a. skin temperature.
carried through the ________________ into b. tympanic temperature.
the right atrium. c. mid-axillary temperature.
a. inferior vena cava d. core temperature.
b. aorta
c. right coronary artery
d. femoral artery

138

–4EMT PRACTICE EXAM 6–

40. What is the membrane that is attached to the 45. An infant who is between 1 month and 1 year
lung surface? old should have a pulse rate between
a. parietal pleura a. 90–180.
b. diaphragm b. 70–120.
c. pleural membrane c. 100–160.
d. visceral pleura d. 120–190.

41. Of the following, which is characterized by 46. What is the best way to determine the proper
rapid, deep respirations that are usually present sized equipment for a pediatric patient?
with strokes or head injuries? a. Look in the protocols.
a. Kussmaul’s respirations b. Memorize appropriate sizes.
b. central neurogenic hyperventilation c. Refer to a pediatric resuscitation tape
c. Cheyne-Stokes respirations measure.
d. hypoxic respirations d. Look on the equipment packaging.

42. The three signs that make up Cushing’s triad 47. As part of the MCI guidelines, the treatment
are unit is responsible for
a. decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse, a. the direction of incoming resources.
and abnormal respirations. b. the sorting of patients according to their
b. increased blood pressure, increased pulse, seriousness and injuries.
and abnormal respirations. c. obtaining resources for the transport of
c. decreased blood pressure, increased pulse, patients to the appropriate facility.
and abnormal respirations. d. the establishment of a treatment area,
d. increased blood pressure, decreased pulse, where patients can be treated and collected.
and abnormal respirations.
48. How many incident command posts should
43. The type of asphyxia that can occur when you be established on the scene of an incident?
improperly restrain a patient is a. one for every ten units
a. traumatic asphyxia. b. one
b. positional asphyxia. c. two
c. mechanical asphyxia. d. three
d. perinatal asphyxia.
49. Signs and symptoms of abnormal breathing in
44. Which of the following is a strong indicator of a child are
circulatory status in a child who is less than a. nasal flaring, restlessness, and retractions.
3-years-old? b. restlessness, tripod position, and clear
a. blood pressure breath sounds.
b. respiratory rate c. anxiety, warm, pink skin, and stridor.
c. pulse pressure d. alert, cyanosis, and tachypnea.
d. skin

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–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 6–

50. The most important aspect of an MCI is 55. Which of the following is an atypical symptom
a. the appropriate number of responding units. of an acute myocardial infarction?
b. establishing a unified command. a. chest pain
c. establishing incident command. b. nausea
d. scene safety. c. neck pain
d. fatigue
51. Patients who are not breathing after
repositioning their airway should be tagged 56. You arrive on the scene to find an unconscious
a. black. and unresponsive patient lying supine on the
b. red. ground with his lower extremities in a puddle.
c. yellow. Bystanders state that he was complaining of
d. green. chest pain prior to falling to the ground. Before
defibrillating this patient, you should
52. When someone fractures their tailbone, what a. establish an airway.
section of the spine is involved? b. do four cycles of CPR.
a. sacrum c. remove the patient from the puddle.
b. coccyx d. insert an airway adjunct.
c. lumbar
d. ischium 57. When using an AED on a child, if child specific
pads are not available, the EMT should
53. In addition to obvious injuries, what a. use adult pads.
information is needed to determine injuries or b. cut adult pads in half.
suspected injuries in a trauma patient? c. use only one adult pad.
a. the patient’s medical history d. not use the AED.
b. bystanders’ accounts of what happened
c. the patient’s account of what happened 58. Which of the following is a component of the
d. the mechanism of injury cardiovascular system?
a. blood
54. The ______________ refers to the time from b. perineum
injury to definitive care in which the treatment c. pleura
of a trauma patient’s injuries and shock should d. insulin
occur in order to maximize the chance of
survival. 59. The structures that connect muscles to bones
a. platinum ten minutes are
b. golden period a. ligaments.
c. bronze 15 minutes b. cartilage.
d. rapid assessment c. joints.
d. tendons.
140
60. An injury that is caused by stretching or tearing
tendons or ligaments is a
a. fracture.
b. strain.
c. sprain.
d. pull.

–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 6–

61. Which of the following is a sign of a tension 67. Stranger anxiety usually develops when the
pneumothorax? patient is a(n)
a. chest pain a. toddler.
b. left-sided weakness b. infant.
c. difficulty breathing c. preschooler.
d. tracheal deviation d. adolescent.

62. Your partner has just intubated the patient. You 68. You are called to the residence of a woman who
should first listen over the ______________ to is in labor. Examination of her genitalia shows
that she has a limb presentation. You should
confirm tube placement. a. lightly pull on the exposed limb to assist in
the delivery.
a. sternum b. cover the limb with a sterile towel and
b. right side of chest transport the woman immediately.
c. left side of chest c. coach the woman to breathe and push.
d. stomach d. insert two fingers into the vagina to relieve
pressure on the limb.
63. The oropharynx is the area directly
a. posterior to the nose. 69. Your first preparation for the delivery of an
b. posterior to the mouth. infant should be
c. anterior to the nose. a. contacting medical control.
d. anterior to the mouth. b. calming the mother.
c. making a transport decision.
64. The smallest branches of the bronchi are the d. BSI precautions.
a. alveoli.
b. pulmonary capillaries. 70. When ventilating an unconscious patient
c. bronchus. without a spinal injury, you notice what
d. bronchioles. appears to be abdominal distention. You should
first
65. When performing chest compressions on an a. Reposition the head
b. Decrease your tidal volume given
infant, compress the chest c. Gently press on the stomach to relieve
pressure
a. 1 to 121 inches. d. Insert an oral adjunct
b. 1 inch.
71. A teratogenic substance
c. 1 to 1 its depth. a. causes mutation.
3 2 b. causes cancer.
d. 121 to 2 inches c. causes damage to a developing fetus.
d. None of the above.
66. Which of the following injuries should raise
your index of suspicion of child abuse?
a. Arm fracture
b. A grid pattern burn
c. Injuries consistent with history
d. Increased concern of the caregiver

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–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 6–

72. A warm zone is the area 78. The electrical impulse is held in the
a. where treatment is performed. ____________ for a fraction of a second to
b. where contamination is actually present. allow for the filling of the ventricles.
c. surrounding the contamination zone. a. AV node
d. where triage is performed. b. SA node
c. Purkinje fibers
73. Where should vehicles be parked in relation to d. bundle of His
a fuel leak or hazardous materials release?
a. downwind 79. Upon your arrival at a respiratory distress call
b. at least 50 feet away you encounter a 24-year-old male patient who
c. upwind is tachypneic at a rate of 36 times per minute
d. none of the above and shallow. The patient states he has just lost
his job and does not know what he is going to
74. SAMPLE history, rapid trauma assessment, and do. The patient also complains of chest
baseline vital signs are all components of the tightness, anxiety, and numbness around his
a. detailed physical exam. mouth and hands. Your treatment for this
b. initial assessment. patient should include which of the following?
c. scene size-up. a. Calm the patient and have the patient breath
d. focused history and medical exam. into a paper bag
b. Calm the patient, place the patient on
75. If a potentially life-threatening condition is oxygen, continue your assessment, and
identified during the detailed physical exam, transport
you should c. Tell the patient that he needs to calm down
a. contact medical control. or he will pass out!
b. change treatment modalities. d. Reassure the patient and withhold oxygen as
c. reconsider transport decision. hyperventilation is caused by excessive
d. return to the initial assessment. oxygen levels in the blood

76. The left and right sides of the heart are 80. A geriatric patient is considered to be a patient
separated by the who is ___________ years or older.
a. endoplasmic reticulum. a. 65
b. septum. b. 75
c. ventricular wall. c. 55
d. cellular wall. d. 60

77. In addition to the atria and ventricles, 81. The leaf-shaped structure that covers and
______________ also contain valves to prevent prevents food and other foreign matter from
the backflow of blood. entering the trachea is the
a. veins a. uvula.
b. arteries b. larynx.
c. arterioles c. thyroid cartilage.
d. bronchioles d. epiglottis.

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–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 6–

82. The knee is _______________ to the hip. past week and the pain began after coughing.
a. distal You listen to breath sounds and note
b. proximal diminished breath sounds in the lower left
c. posterior lobe. You suspect this patient is suffering from?
d. anterior a. angina.
b. spontaneous pneumothorax.
83. When a patient has loose dentures you should c. tension pneumothorax.
______________ before ventilating. d. pleural effusion.
a. reposition them
b. remove them 88. When a mother is in true labor,
c. ignore them a. there will be a brownish-colored bloody
d. hold them in place show.
b. pain starts and stays in the lower abdomen.
84. When a patient hypoventilates, they have a c. contractions are intermittent.
buildup of ______________ in the blood. d. change in position does not relieve
a. oxygen contractions.
b. nitrogen
c. carbon dioxide 89. When preparing for the delivery of an infant,
d. carbon monoxide you notice that the amniotic sac is protruding
from the vagina as the head is crowning. You
85. What should the oxygen flow rate be set to should
when using a small volume nebulizer? a. puncture the amniotic sac.
a. 4–5 LPM b. transport immediately.
b. 6–8 LPM c. support the infant’s head and encourage the
c. 10–15 LPM mother to push.
d. 2–4 LPM d. apply a moist, sterile pad to the vagina and
transport.
86. If lung sounds are present on the right side and
diminished on the left side, this means that the 90. In addition to the APGAR score, your
_______________ has been intubated. documentation of the infant should include the
a. left mainstem bronchus a. infant’s name.
b. right mainstem bronchus b. equipment used in the delivery.
c. esophagus c. names of the personnel on the scene.
d. epigastrium d. time of birth.

87. You respond to a patient complaining of 91. To slow bleeding after childbirth,
respiratory distress. Upon your arrival you are a. place a sanitary pad on the vagina.
directed to a tall slender male patient who b. apply direct pressure to the vagina.
complains of sudden sharp stabbing left-sided c. pack the vagina with gauze.
chest pain. The patient denies any medical d. gently massage the mother’s abdomen.
history or allergies. The patient states he has
been sick with a non-productive cough over the

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–EMT PRACTICE EXAM 6–

92. A woman who is experiencing her first 98. Accumulation of fluid in the lungs is called
pregnancy is called a. pitting edema.
a. primipara. b. dependent edema.
b. multigravid. c. pulmonary edema.
c. primigravida. d. pulmonary embolism.
d. unopara.
99. You arrive on the scene to find a 59-year-old
93. To perform a roof flap of a vehicle with an male patient sitting in his living room,
entrapped victim using a hydraulic-powered complaining of crushing chest pain. He rates
cutter, cut through the_________ with a relief the pain 10:10, his skin is pale, and he is
cut to the roof and fold the roof over. diaphoretic. Your next action should be to
a. B and C posts immediately
b. A and B posts a. administer 0.4 mg NTG SL.
c. nader pin b. apply AED.
d. windshield c. obtain SAMPLE history.
d. apply oxygen.
94. _________________ is the oversight of all
patient care aspects in EMS. 100. In what part of the skin are nerve endings
a. Incident command located?
b. The emergency medical dispatcher a. epidermis
c. The standard operating procedures guide b. dermis
d. Medical direction c. subcutaneous layer
d. fascia
95. If you are the initial unit to arrive on the scene
of a multicasualty incident, you should first 101. You arrive to find your patient sitting upright
a. report to the command post for assignment. in a chair. This position is called
b. establish command. a. Trendelenburg.
c. begin triaging patients. b. semi-Fowler’s.
d. start treating patients appropriately. c. Fowler’s.
d. laterally recumbent.
96. A condition in which the artery walls become
hard and stiff due to calcium deposits is 102. The dorsalis pedis artery is located
a. arteriosclerosis. a. posterior to the knee.
b. hypercholesterolemia. b. on the posterior surface of the medial
c. hyperlipidemia. malleolus.
d. atherosclerosis. c. on the anterior surface of the foot.
d. on the lateral aspect of the anterior wrist.
97. The dilation or ballooning of a weakened area
in the wall of an artery is called 103. Which of the following most closely mimics
a. arteriosclerosis. the signs and symptoms of an acute stroke?
b. thrombus. a. hypotension
c. embolism. b. carbon monoxide poisoning
d. aneurysm. c. hypoxia
d. hypoglycemia
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